MATS

Question 1

Define an ADS Contract (ADS-C).

Answer 1

The means by which the terms of an ADS-C agreement will be exchanged between the ground system and the aircraft, via a datalink, specifying under what conditions ADS-C reports would be initiated, and what data would be contained in the reports.

Question 2

What MET information is required to be given to aircraft?

Answer 2

• SIGMET
• SPECI
• TAF ammendments
• significant information received from other flights
• altimeter settings
• take off and landing reports when not on an ATIS

Question 3

Define area of conflict.

Answer 3

For lateral separation purposes, an area within which horizontal separation between particular flights does not exist.

Question 4

Define CPDLC.

Answer 4

A means of communication between controller and pilot, using data link for ATC communications.

Question 5

Provided safety is not jeopardised, how are traffic priorities applied?

Answer 5

• an aircraft known or believed to be in a state of emergency or impaired operation has priority over all other aircraft
• an aircraft landing or in the final stages of an approach to land, has priority over a departing aircraft
• an aircraft landing or taking off has priority over taxiing aircraft

Question 6

During coordination it may be neccessary to specify or confirm who is providing separation between two or more flights. What is the phraseology used in this situation?

Answer 6

“YOUR SEPARATION (callsign of traffic from which separation is required)”

Question 7

What phraseology is used to request an early release?

Answer 7

“MAY I ASSUME CONTROL OF (callsign)” or

“REQUEST RELEASE (callsign)”

Question 8

After an early release has been effected, when is verbal coordination required?

Answer 8

Prior to an accepting controller climbing an arriving aircraft, descending a departing aircraft or instructing an aircraft to hold while the aircraft is still in the transferring controller’s airspace.

Question 9

What is the phraseology used to effect a transfer of radio guard?

Answer 9

“AT [or PASSING] (time/position/level) CONTACT (unit or operating position) (frequency)”

Question 10

When would you consider making a transfer of radio guard prior to the aircraft reaching the transfer of control point?

Answer 10

To enable the accepting controller to issue instructions which would become effective at the transfer of control point.

Question 11

Where should the RTF contact point be?

Answer 11

At the transfer of control point unless other arrangements are agreed to (verbally or in LOA/LUO).

Question 12

When can a controller withhold an ATC clearance?

Answer 12

• for traffic reasons, when ATC cannot accommodate traffic additional to that already accept due to traffic congestion, limitations of equipment, procedures, weather or environmental conditions, emergencies or other similar factors
• when instructed by the Group Manager ANS delivery provided that:
  
  • a clearance shall not be withheld unless the aircraft is on the ground and the clearance is for entry onto the manouevring area
  • normal ATC service shall be provided for any aircraft entering the manouevring area without an ATC clearance

Question 13

What are the instructions contained in a clearance to an IFR flight intended to achieve?

Answer 13

• provide separation:
  
  • where prescribed, between the aircraft concerned and other controlled flights
  • from SUA and GAA as required by RAC 5
    (except flights departing under radar control, may be cleared at a lower level and then climb under radar control)
• enable the flight to comply with promulgated procedures for IFR flights in the AIPNZ
• conform with terms of acceptance for next controlling authority
• conform, where possible, with the details requested in the flight plan and the Air Traffic Management route requirements as specified in the AIPNZ
• where the aircraft has flight planned for flight within controlled airspace, contain the flight within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace, unless applying the criteria for direct routing on unevaluated routes
  (if a clearance would involve a signification delay, a pilot may be offered an alternative which would take the aircraft out of controlled airspace, provided the pilot is advised that the clearance will take the aircraft outside controlled airspace and the pilot confirms acceptance of the clearance)

Question 14

What is the phraseology to be used if you are unable to clear a flight via the requested or flight planned route or cruising level?

Answer 14

“(route/level) NOT AVAILABLE DUE (reason) [ALTERNATIVE(S) IS/ARE……. ADVISE]”

Question 15

The clearance limit of an IFR flight must be one of three places. Name them.

Answer 15

• first intended landing
• significant point
• airspace boundary

Question 16

The use of the term Flight Planned Route should be limited to which flights?

Answer 16

• oceanic flights
• flights where the route is identified with lats and longs
• flights with a long and complicated route field

Question 17

When may controllers issue a clearance for flights to operate at non-standard levels and what are the provisos?

Answer 17

• verbal approval must be obtained from the next sector/unit prior to the aircraft reaching the sector boundary
• aircraft at standard levels are afforded priority over aircraft at non-standard levels
• the words “NON-STANDARD” shall prefix the level except for departing oceanic flights that are at standard levels for entry into the oceanic FIR

Question 18

What is the proviso for allowing an aircraft to operate within a block of levels?

Answer 18

A flight may be cleared to operate within a block of levels, provided that other aircraft are not denied use of a level within the block.

Question 19

What is an Oceanic Transition?

Answer 19

Aerodrome specific ATM procedures linking published instrument departure procedures with the departing aircraft’s planned entry into the Auckland Oceanic FIR.

Question 20

When shall a verbal revision be passed to a radar sector?

Answer 20

When the CPL or estimate has been passed to the next sector, the next sector shall be advised of any change to the coordinated level, except where specified in LUO/LOA.

Question 21

Certain procedures apply to all flights planning to operate in the Auckland Oceanic FIR. What are these procedures?

Answer 21

• any advice that an aircraft cannot meet the RNP or RVSM requirements shall be passed to OAC
• route clearances shall be issued at the last acknowledged RFL except at aerodomes where level requirements are specified in LUO/LOA
• an intermediate level shall not be inserted in the flight plan CFL field
• for aircraft requesting block levels, the CFL shall be the lower of the block levels. Any block clearance shall be pre-coordinated with OAC
• on acceptance of control of a flight and after AIDC coordination with OCS is complete, the last area sector shall seek approval for the CFL from OAC. OAC shall approve the level or coordinate another, ensuring that a conflict probe at the approved CFL has been made
• if approval of a CFL is not obtained, the area controller shall hold the aircraft in domestic airspace until a level is approved
• the last area sector shall ensure the aircraft is level at the approved CFL, or for flights with block clearances, within the OAC-coordinated block of levels, prior to entering the Auckland Oceanic airspace, unless coordinated otherwise

Question 22

What phraseology for an approval request, is used by the transferring controller?

Answer 22

“APPROVAL REQUEST (callsign, level) VIA (significant point)(any other relevant details)”

Question 23

What phraseology for an approval request, is used by the accepting controller?

Answer 23

“(callsign)(level) APPROVED [conditions/restrictions]”

“(callsign)(level) UNABLE TO APPROVE (alternative instructions/reasons)”

Question 24

When arranging separation, what allowance must be made?

Answer 24

For time involved in compilation and transmission of clearances to ensure required separation minimum is not infringed.

Question 25

When the type of separation used to separate two aircraft cannot be maintained, what action must you take?

Answer 25

Another type of separation shall be established prior to the time when the current separation minimum would be infringed.

Question 26

How is separation achieved?

Answer 26

By the application of vertical, horizontal or visual separation.

Question 27

Is the Auckland Oceanic FIR, RVSM stratum exclusive airspace?

Answer 27

Yes.

Question 28

When is a revised non RVSM clearance required to be issued to aircraft operating in the RVSM stratum?

Answer 28

When an aircraft advises:

• encountering weather turbulence that affects the aircraft’s capability to maintain the CFL
• encountering wake turbulence
• experiencing distracting system alerts

Question 29

What phraseology should be used to verbally supplement an automated EST message exchange which does not automatically transfer item 18 flight plan information regarding non-RVSM?

Answer 29

“NEGATIVE RVSM” or

“NEGATIVE RVSM STATE AIRCRAFT”

Question 30

Show reciprocal, crossing and same tracks, as defined by ICAO and OCS.

Answer 30

??Worksheet??

Question 31

Under what specified circumstances should separation be increased?

Answer 31

• requested by pilot or considered necessary by controller
• pilot reports severe turbulence or mountain wave activity or is entering an area of known severe turbulence or mountain wave activity
• navigational accuracy of an aircraft is impaired
• navigation aid failure reduces the capacity for frequent determination of position and speed
• aircraft experiencing communication failure
• aircraft’s performance is abnormal
• aircraft is subject to unlawful interference

Question 32

How may longitudinal separation based on time be established?

Answer 32

By requiring an aircraft to:

• depart at a specified time
• lose or gain time to arrive over a location at a specified time
• hold over a location until a specified time

Question 33

What is the longitudinal separation criteria which apply between aircraft at the same cruising level on the same track?

Answer 33

• OCAT 15
• MNT time separation
• T10 if navaids permit frequent determination of position and speed
• T5 if first aircraft is 20kts or more faster
• T3 is first aircraft is 40kts or more faster
  (above cases require aircraft to depart from same aerodrome or to have crossed same exact reporting point)

Question 34

What is the minima applied between aircraft on crossing tracks?

Answer 34

• OCAT 15

- T10 if navaids permit frequent determination of position and speed

Question 35

Under what circumstances may vertical or horizontal separation standards be reduced?

Answer 35

• when visual or composite visual separation is applied
• when military separation is applied
• between aircraft in formation (prior notice of formation is given to ATC or formation consists of aircraft in distress and it’s escort)

Question 36

What shall Essential Traffic information include?

Answer 36

• ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC
• direction of flight
• type of aircraft
• level information
• position information

Question 37

When alternative methods of separation are usable, which should you choose?

Answer 37

Least restrictive compatible with workload and traffic situation.

Question 38

Define the extent of a variation from a specified time standard in order to qualify as a navigation error.

Answer 38

A variation of 3 minutes or more form a specified time given for a reporting point or FIR boundary.

Question 39

Define the extent of a variation from a specified distance standard in order to qualify as a navigation error.

Answer 39

• an unauthorised lateral deviation of 15NM or more, observed by any means
• a variation of 10NM or more from a specified longitudinal distance standard, observed by ADS-C

Question 40

What is the IFERC?

Answer 40

A sub-part of RAC 7 in a separate folder of ready-reference checklists designed to assist personnel when handling various types of in-flight emergencies.

Question 41

Briefly describe the three alerting service emergency phases.

Answer 41

• Uncertainty phase (INCERFA): uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and it’s occupants
• Alert phase (ALERFA): apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and it’s occupants
• Distress phase (DETRESFA): there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and it’s occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger and require immediate assistance

Question 42

When should the Alert phase be declared?

Answer 42

• an aircraft is known or believed to be subject to unlawful interference
• following the uncertainty phase, subsequent attempts to establish communication with the aircraft or inquiries to other relevant sources fail to reveal any news of the aircraft
• an aircraft that has been given circuit joining, approach or landing instructions from an ATC unit or landing information from an AFIS unit fails to land within 5 minutes of the estimated time of landing, and communication cannot be reestablished
• an aircraft is known or believed to be experiencing impaired operating efficiency to the extent that it is having difficulty maintain height, or may have difficulty making a normal approach and landing
• an aircraft is known or believed to be subject to irregular operations or is lost and there is reason to believe the safe conduct of flight is jeopardy
• the duration of INCERFA has exceeded 30 minutes