19. TQ ___________________________— Inspecting an apparatus and equipment on the apparatus to ensure that all equipment is in place, clean, and ready for service. Pump 36.

19. Operational Readiness Inspection

20. ______________________________— A visual inspection of an apparatus to ensure the major components of the chassis are present and in proper working condition. Pump 36.

20. Pre-trip Road Worthiness Inspection

Matt's Initial Driver Bible Flashcards by Matt Farris

NFPA 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, contains the requirements of pumper design. The standard specifies a minimum pump capacity of ____ gpm and a water tank with a capacity of at least ____ gallons. Pump 14.

1. 300

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Pump capacities larger than 750 gpm increase in increments of ____ gpm with most municipal fire departments operating pumpers of _______ gpm or less. Pump 14.

1. 2000

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The foam proportioning systems commonly found on municipal fire pumpers are scaled down versions of those used for industrial fire pumpers. Likewise, the foam tanks are correspondingly smaller, usually ranging from ___ to ____ gallons. Pump 16.

20 to 100

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TQ** The articulating or telescoping devices most commonly combined with pumpers generally range in height from ____to ____ feet. Pump 16.

50 to 75

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Mini-Pumper. — Small fire apparatus mounted on a pickup-truck-sized chassis, usually with a pump having a rated capacity less than _____ gpm. Its primary advantage is speed and mobility, which enables it to respond to fires more rapidly than larger apparatus. Pump 16.

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Midi-Pumper. — Apparatus sized between a mini-pumper and a full-sized fire department pumper, usually with a gross vehicle weight of _______ pounds or greater. The midi-pumper has a fire pump with a rated capacity generally not greater than _____ gpm. Pump 16.

12,000. 1000

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Mobile water supply apparatus, as stated in NFPA® 1901, Chapter 7, are equipped with a tank capacity of at least _______ gallons. Pump 17.

1000

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Specially designed wildland apparatus are often mounted on ______or larger chassis, usually featuring all-wheel drive. Pump 19.

one-ton

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Commonly known as brush trucks, brush breakers, or booster apparatus, these vehicles often have pump capacities and water tanks of _____ gallons or less. However, some jurisdictions operate larger apparatus with pumps up to 1,000 gpm and water tanks of 1,000 gallons or larger. Pump 19.

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IFSTA does not recommend riding on the outside of the apparatus, and this practice is prohibited by NFPA ______ Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.

NFPA 1500. Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program

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Requirements for ARFF apparatus are found in NFPA _______, Standard for Aircraft Rescue and Fire-Fighting Vehicles. Pump 20.

NFPA 414

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Some fireboats have capacities as high as __________ gpm. Pump 21.

50,000

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A quint is an apparatus equipped with a fire pump, water tank, and hose, in addition to an aerial device and ground ladders. According to the NFPA® 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, the vehicle must be equipped with a pump rated at a minimum of _______ gpm and a water tank of at least _______ gallons. Pump 22.

1000, 300

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Portable generators are available with a variety of power capacities; _________watts is typically the largest capacity. Pump 23.

5,000

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Rescue apparatus or other specialized units may feature fixed generator systems with capacities of ___________ watts or greater. Pump 23.

50,000

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Ranging from _______to _______watts, portable lights are advantageous during incidents where illumination is needed some distance away from a piece of apparatus, or where additional lights are required. Pump 23.

300 to 1000

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Driver/ operators in many jurisdictions are required to perform these routine maintenance checks and functions. NFPA _______ also requires that driver/operators be skilled in the performance of certain maintenance tasks. Pump 29.

NFPA 1002

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NFPA®___________, Standard for Emergency Vehicle Technician Professional Qualifications, provides a basis to train and certify fire apparatus mechanics and fire department maintenance officers. Pump 29.

NFPA 1071

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TQ**___________________________— Inspecting an apparatus and equipment on the apparatus to ensure that all equipment is in place, clean, and ready for service. Pump 36.

Operational Readiness Inspection

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______________________________— A visual inspection of an apparatus to ensure the major components of the chassis are present and in proper working condition. Pump 36.

Pre-trip Road Worthiness Inspection

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____________________— An inspection where a certain system or component of an apparatus is operated to ensure that it is functioning properly. Pump 36.

Functional Check

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CAUTION: Diesel exhaust may contain up to _______ harmful chemicals and compounds. Pump 37.

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NFPA® 1911 requires that all tires be replaced every _______ years, regardless of their condition. Pump 39.

Seven

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In general, steering wheel play should be no more than approximately _______degrees in either direction. Pump 40.

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25. On a 20-inch diameter steering wheel, the play may be about ______ inches in either direction. Pump 41.

25. 2

Per NFPA® 1901 and 1911, a side-to-side variance in weight should not exceed ______ percent. Pump 42.

26. Seven

27. Most commercial and private vehicles built since 1990 are equipped with____________________________. Pump 42.

27. Anti-Lock Braking Systems

28. Apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents air horns or other nonessential devices from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below ______ psi. Pump 43.

28. 80

29. In addition to a DPF system, engines produced after January 1, 2010, may be equipped with an exhaust after-treatment system called____________________________. Pump 45.

29. Selective Catalyst Reductant (SCR)

30. NFPA®_______ , Standard for Fire Apparatus Driver⁄Operator Professional Qualifications, has established minimum qualifications for apparatus driver/ operators. Pump 79.

30. NFPA 1002

A periodic medical evaluation, in accordance with the NFPA_______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program, should be administered under the direction of the authority having jurisdiction (AHJ) in order to establish and maintain a driver/operator’s fitness for duty. Pump 82.

31. NFPA 1500

32. NFPA ________, Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments, provides specific standards that contain information and specific details on uncorrected vision and diseases of the eye. Pump 82.

32. NFPA 1582

33. NFPA _________ contains a list of frequencies that a driver/ operator must be able to hear and recommends rejecting a candidate who has hearing loss among those frequencies. Pump 82.

33. NFPA 1582

34. In a study conducted by the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE), it was determined that in _____ percent of all collisions, the driver/operator was not aware of a problem until it was too late to correct. Pump 88.

34. 42 percent

35. NFPA ________, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, and NFPA _______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program, establish requirements for seat belt use on the apparatus. Pump 90.

35. NFPA 1901, NFPA 1500

36. Beginning with engines produced in_________, apparatus began to be equipped with a diesel particulate filter (DPF). Pump 94.

36. 2007

37. After a driver/operator continues to ignore an empty DEF tank, the apparatus may be limited in speed to _______ mph and will need service from the dealer. Pump 95.

37. 5 mph

38. TQ** Weigh the apparatus after loading it with all equipment and personnel to ensure that the axle loading is balanced within _______ percent from side to side and within the axle weight ratings front-to-back. Pump 98.

38. 7 percent

39. There are ________ locations in the U.S. where there is less than 100 feet following the railroad tracks.

39. 19,824 locations

40. It may take ____to ____ times greater distance for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow and ice than it does on dry pavement. Pump 99.

40. 3 to 15 times greater

41. At speeds above _____ mph , an emergency vehicle may outrun the effective range of its audible warning device. Pump 101.

41. 50 mph

42. In some instances, increasing the speed of an apparatus by 20 mph can decrease the audible distance by _____ feet or more. Pump 101.

42. 250 feet or more

43. *When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, they should travel at least ________to _______ feet apart. Pump 101.

43. 300 to 500 feet

44. NFPA 1901 requires that all apparatus with a GVWR of _________ lb or greater be equipped with an auxiliary braking system. Pump 109.

44. 36,000 lb

45. TQ** The ____________is the least capable of the four auxiliary brake devices. Pump 110.

45. Exhaust brake

46. ** When preparing to back the apparatus, the spotter should be positioned in the vision of the driver/operator, preferably in the left (driver’s side) mirror, approximately ___ to ____ feet behind and slightly to the left of the apparatus. Pump 114.

46. 8 to 10 feet

47. At 5 mph, ______feet of hose is pulled out each second. Pump 120.

47. 7 feet

48. TQ** NFPA 1901 specifies that any equipment not needed while driving to the scene must be secured in brackets or contained in a storage cabinet. The bracket or cabinet must be capable of restraining the equipment against a force of up to _____ times the equipment’s weight. Pump 120.

48. Ten times

49. High pressure hydraulic fluid at pressures as low as _____ psi can penetrate skin. Pump 122.

49. 100 psi

50. Apparatus may be equipped with manually applied tire chains or automatic chains featuring short lengths of chain on a rotating hub in front of each drive wheel. The hubs swing down into place upon activation from the cab. The hub with chains attached is driven by the drive wheel and the lengths of chain are spun under the tire by centrifugal force. These chains maybe ineffective in snow deeper than ___to ___ inches depending on consistency of the snow, or when the vehicle is moving at very slow speeds, or in reverse.

50. 3 to 6 inches

51. Depending on the incident, apparatus, equipment, and personnel operating within _____ feet of the base of a high-rise fire may need to be protected from falling glass and debris. Pump 139.

51. 200 feet

52. In tandem pumping operations apparatus may be located up to _____ feet apart. Pump 146.

52. 300 feet

53. NFPA ______, Standard for the Inspection, Care, and Use of Fire Hose, Couplings, Nozzles, and the Service Testing of Fire Hose, contains test pressures for various types of fire hose. Pump 146.

53. NFPA 1962

54. Because it is not always possible to stop the flow of trains on a track during emergency operations and it may require _____ to _____ miles for a fully loaded train to make a complete stop, fire apparatus should never position on railroad tracks. Pump 154.

54. One to two miles

55. Apparatus should maintain a clear zone of at least _____ feet from railroad tracks to prevent contact with objects on the railroad cars. Pump 154.

55. 30 feet

56. TQ** Water's density, or its weight per unit of volume, is measured in pounds per cubic foot. For fire protection purposes, ordinary fresh water is considered to weigh ____lb/ft3 gal or _____ lb/gal. Pump 167.

56. 62.4 lb/ft3 gal or 8.3 lb/gal

57. Methylene Chlorides’ specific gravity is _____. Pump 168.

57. 1.33

58. Gasoline’s specific gravity is _____-_____. Pump 168.

58. 0.72-0.76

At 212°F (100°C), water converted to steam occupies approximately ______ times its original volume, helping to dissipate heat in a well-vented room. Pump 169.

59. 1,700 times

60. Shut down the engine immediately if oil pressure gauge does not fall within manufacturers recommendations within ____to _____ seconds. Pump 125.

60. 5 to 10 seconds

61. The ________ at which a fluid travels through a hose or pipe is determined by the pressure upon that fluid as well as the size of the orifice through which it is flowing. Pump 172.

61. Speed

62. ______ principles determine the action or pressure on fluids. Pump 172.

62. Six

First Principle. 63. Fluid pressure is __________________to any surface on which it acts. Pressure exerted by the weight of the water is _____________________ to the walls of the container.

63. Perpendicular, perpendicular

Second Principle. 64. Fluid pressure at a point in fluid at rest is the same ___________ in all directions. This principle is used in hydrostatic testing.

64. Intensity

Third Principle. 65. Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted __________ in all directions.

65. Equally

Fourth Principle. 66. The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its_________.

66. Depth

Fifth Principle. 67. The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the ________ of the liquid.

67. Density

Sixth Principle. 68. The pressure of a liquid at the bottom of a vessel is _____________ of the shape of the vessel.

68. Independent

69. A common method of measuring atmospheric pressure is by comparing the weight of the atmosphere with the weight of__________. When observing a vertical cylinder, the greater the atmospheric pressure, the taller the column of ______________. A pressure of 1 psi makes the column of mercury about 2.04 inches tall. At sea level, the column of mercury is 2.04 x 14.7, or ______ inches tall. Pump 174.

69. Mercury. mercury. 29.9 inches tall.

70. Head — Alternate term for pressure, especially pressure due to elevation. For every 1-foot increase in elevation, _______ psi is gained. Also known as Head Pressure. Pump 175.

70. 0.434

71. To convert head in feet to head pressure, you must divide the number of feet by ______(the number of feet that 1 psi will raise a one square inch column of water). Pump 175.

71. 2.304

72. Above sea level, atmospheric pressure decreases approximately _____ psi for every 1,000 feet. Pump 176.

72. 0.5 psi

73. The friction loss in older hose may be as much as _____ percent greater than that of new hose.

73. 50 percent

74. First Principle. If all other conditions are the same, friction loss varies directly with the ______ of the hose or pipe.

74. Length

75. Second Principle. When hoses are the same size, friction loss varies approximately with the ___________ of the increase in the velocity of the flow. NOTE: Velocity is proportional to flow.

75. Square

76. Third Principle. For the same discharge, friction loss varies __________ as the ______ power of the diameter of the hose. Whenever possible the driver/operator, in conjunction with the unit officer, should consider using larger diameter hose sizes to reduce friction loss.

76. Inversely, fifth power

77. Fourth Principle. For a given velocity, friction loss is approximately the same, regardless of the _________ on the water.

77. Pressure

78. With water being virtually incompressible, a pressure of _________ psi is required to reduce its volume one percent. Pump 179.

78. 30,000 psi

79. The _______________________________is the average amount of water used per day based on the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over the period of one year.

79. average daily consumption (ADC)

80. The _____________________________ is the maximum total amount of water that was used during any 24-hour interval within a 3-year period.

80. maximum daily consumption (MDC)

81. The _______________________________is the maximum amount of water used in any 1-hour interval over the course of a day. Pump 188.

81. peak hourly consumption (PHC)

82. A fog stream may be produced by_____________________, by_____________________, or a combination of these methods.

82. deflection at the periphery, impinging jets of water

83. Most constant flow nozzles feature a ____________________stream and are equipped with an adjustable pattern range

83. periphery-deflected stream

84. Most constant flow nozzles are designed to operate at a nozzle pressure of ______ psi.

84. 100 psi

85. Nozzles for use on handlines may be solid, fog, or broken stream design, ranging in size from a ____inch “booster” nozzle to a nozzle suitable for a ___inch diameter hoseline. Page 199.

85. ¾ inch, 3 inch

86. Operating at a pressure of up to _____ psi, high pressure fog nozzles produce a stream with significant forward velocity, but a relatively low volume of water delivery.

86. 800 psi

87. Featuring a stream of fast-moving, fine spray, high-pressure fog nozzles may use an **impinging stream**. These nozzles are best suited for wildland fires and are not recommended for structural fire fighting due to their low water flow of only ____ to _____ gpm.

87. 8 to 15 gpm

88. The piercing nozzle is generally designed as ___ to ___ foot hollow steel rod _____ inches in diameter.

88. 3 to 6 foot, 1 ½ inches in diameter

89. Flowing only ____ to _____ gpm at a nozzle pressure of ______ psi, the impinging holes of the chimney nozzle produce a very fine mist which turns to steam in the hot interior of the chimney flue. Pump 201.

89. 1.5 to 3 gpm, 100 psi

90. As water is discharged from a nozzle at a given pressure, a counterforce pushes back against firefighters operating the hoseline. This force, called nozzle reaction, illustrates Newton’s ________ Law of Motion: For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

90. Third law of motion

91. TQ** When two hoselines of equal length are Siamesed to supply a fire stream, friction loss is approximately _____ percent less than that of a single hoseline at the same nozzle pressure.

91. 25 percent

92. The following are safe and efficient nozzle pressures for common fire streams: Solid stream nozzle (handline) = ___ psi Solid stream nozzle (master stream) = ___ psi Fog nozzle = ____ psi Low pressure fog nozzle = ___ or ___ psi.

50 80 100 50 or 75

93. Based on the NFPA 1901 standard, for every discharge outlet equipped with a flowmeter, a pressure gauge shall also be provided. These flowmeters must display flow in increments of _____ gpm or less. Pump 282.

93. 10 gpm

94. With proper calibration, a flowmeter in good working order should be accurate to a tolerance of plus or minus ____ percent.

94. 3 percent

95. Each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within ______ inches of the control valve for that discharge. If a pressure gauge is mounted at the ___-inch location, then the flowmeter must be mounted within _____ inches adjacent to the pressure gauge.

95. 6 inches. 6 inch. 2 inches.

Driver/operators must be aware of the margin of difference when using the Condensed Q formula. Although sufficient for many fireground calculations, the friction loss results will be ________ percent greater than when using the FL= CQ2L formula.

96. 20 percent greater

97. TQ** ___________________are constructed with moveable elements that automatically compensate for wear, maintaining a tighter fit with closer clearances as the pump is used.

97. Rotary Vane pumps

98. Pumps used in the fire service constructed with a single impeller are referred to as single-stage centrifugal pumps. These may consist of front-mount pumps, power take off, auxiliary engine driven, and midship pumps that use a single intake impeller and a simple casing to provide flow capacities up to _______ gpm.

98. 2,250 gpm

99. When the pump transfer valve is in the _______ position, each of the impellers takes water from a source and delivers it to the discharge. Each of the impellers is capable of delivering its rated pressure while flowing _____percent of its rated capacity; therefore, the total amount of water the pump can deliver is equal to the sum of the stages.

99. Volume. 50 percent

100. When the transfer valve is set in the ________position, all water from the intake manifold is directed into the eye of the first impeller. Depending on the specific pump, the first stage increases the pressure and discharges ____ to ____ percent of the volume capacity through the transfer valve and into the eye of the second impeller.

100. Pressure position. 50 to 70 percent

101. In the parallel mode, the pump will be capable of supplying 100 percent of its rated capacity at _____ psi at _____ feet of lift with ____ feet of suction hose while drafting.

101. 150 psi. 10 feet of lift. 20 feet of suction hose

102. Many power-operated transfer valves operate at pressures as high as _____ psi.

102. 200 psi

103. In the past, conventional PTO units were limited to powering pumps up to approximately ____ gpm. However, some manufacturers now provide full torque power take-offs that allow for the installation of pumps as large as ______ gpm. Pump 308.

103. 500 gpm. 1,250 gpm

104. With the engine idling and the pump engaged, most speedometers will indicate between ____ to ____ mph.

104. 10 to 15 mph

105. The piping system and the fire pump itself must be capable of withstanding a hydrostatic test of ______ psi before being placed into service. Pump 312.

105. 500 psi

106. According to NFPA® 1901 pumpers with a capacity of 500 gpm or less should have piping capable of flowing _____ gpm.

106. 250 gpm

107. Pumpers with a capacity greater than 500 gpm should be able to flow at least _____ gpm.

107. 500 gpm

108. TQ** Many pumpers are equipped with tank-to-pump piping as large as ____ inches in diameter.

108. 4 inches

109. Pumps rated greater than ______gpm capacity may require more than one large intake connection at each location. Pump 314.

109. 1,500 gpm

110. As a minimum, all fire apparatus with a rated pump capacity of ___ gpm or greater must be equipped with at least ____ 2 1⁄2-inch discharges. Pumps rated less than ____ gpm are required to have only _____ 2 1⁄2-inch discharge.

110. 750 gpm, Two, 750 gpm, one

111. A minimum of ______-inch piping, valves, and elbows must be used to supply discharges where 1 1⁄2-, 1 3⁄4-, or 2-inch handlines are attached.

111. 2 inch

112. All valves should be designed and maintained so that they are easily operable at pressures of up to _____ psi.

112. 250 psi

113. According to NFPA® 1901, apparatus equipped with tanks of less than 1,000 gallons must have a tank fill line of at least _____-inch in diameter. Tanks greater than 1,000 gallons must be provided with at least a _____-inch tank fill line.

113. 1 inch. 2 inch

114. NFPA® 1901 requires that all intakes or discharges that are _____ inches or greater be equipped with slow acting valve controls.

114. 3 inches or greater

115. TQ** NFPA® 1901 requires some type of pressure control device to be part of any fire apparatus pumping system. This device must operate within _______to ______ seconds after the discharge pressure rises and restricts the pressure from exceeding ______ psi above the set level. Pump 318.

115. 3 to 10 seconds. 30 psi above

116. It is generally recommended that the intake relief valves be set to open when the intake pressure rises more than _____ psi above the necessary operating pressure.

116. 10 psi above

117. The electronic governor also features cavitation protection by returning the engine to idle when intake pressure drops below ____ psi. Pump 321.

117. Below 30 psi

118. The operator manual supplied by the fire pump manufacturer should specify the preferred engine speed (rpm) for priming but, in general, the range is between ______ to _____ rpm. Activate the primers with the engine at idle speed and then increase the throttle to the specified rpms.

118. 1000 to 1,200 rpm

119. The master intake gauge (vacuum or compound gauge) is connected to the intake side of the pump and measures either positive pressure or a vacuum. This gauge is usually calibrated from ____ to ____ psi of positive pressure and from ____ to ____ inches of mercury (vacuum) on the negative side.

119. 0 to 600 psi, 0 to 30 inches of mercury

120. When the vacuum reading approaches _____ inches, the pump is nearing its capacity and is not able to supply additional lines.

120. 20 inches

121. Driver/operators should maintain a residual pressure of at least ____ psi on their master intake gauge at all times during pumping operations.

121. 20 psi

122. Water supply systems must maintain a residual pressure of at least ____ psi within their mains for several reasons; contamination from sources outside the main may occur if the pressure in the main drops too low.

122. 20 psi

123. The ability to overcome losses in pressure is limited to atmospheric pressure at sea level (_____ psi or _____ inches Hg). Pump 352.

123. 14.7 psi. or 30 imches Hg

124. This pressure (atmospheric pressure) decreases approximately 0.5 psi or 1 inch of Hg for each 1,000 feet of altitude gain. In a city located 5,000 feet above sea level, the atmospheric pressure is _____ psi.

124. 12.2 psi

Most pumps are able to develop a vacuum capacity of approximately _____ inches of mercury (Hg).

125. 22 inches of mercury

126. When using a portable tank or swimming pool for drafting operations, a low-level strainer is the appliance of choice. These strainers are designed to sit directly on the bottom of a tank or pool and allow water to be effectively drafted down to a depth of approximately ___ inches.

126. 2 inches

127. Water temperature will also affect drafting operations. Water below ____°F or above ____°F may adversely impact the ability of the pump to reach capacity. Pump 356.

127. 35. 90

128. __________________to a water source is an important factor in selecting a drafting site. Because drafting is accomplished by evacuating air from the pump and allowing atmospheric pressure to push the water into it, a maximum of ______ psi is available.

128. Accessibility. 14.7 psi

129. All fire pumps meeting NFPA and Underwriter’s Laboratories Inc. requirements are rated to pump their capacity at _____ feet of lift. Pump 357.

129. 10 feet of lift

130. A pumper in good working order can lift water a maximum of ____ feet.

130. 25 feet

131. To create an effective fire stream, a lift of no greater than ______ feet is recommended. Working with this lift, the pump operates at about ______ percent of its rated capacity.

131. 20. 60 percent.

132. Most priming pumps are intended to work most effectively when the engine is set at a rate between ______ and ______ rpm.

132. 1,000 to 1,200 rpm

133. The entire priming action typically requires ____ to ____ seconds from start to finish. However, when up to 20 feet of intake hose lifting a maximum of 10 vertical feet, it may take as long as ______ seconds (45 seconds in pumps larger than 1250 gpm) to accomplish this.

133. 10 to 15 seconds. 30 seconds

134. When specific information is unavailable, driver/operators should pump ____ psi into the FDC when supporting automatic sprinkler systems.

134. 150 psi

135. Add approximately ___ psi for each floor above the fire department connection that will have operating fire streams.

135. 5 psi

136. Do not use pump discharge pressures in excess of ______ psi unless the standpipe system, hose, and appliances have been designed to function under high pressures.

136. 185 psi

137. When a standpipe system is known to be equipped with pressure-reducing valves, the elevation pressure used must be based on the_________________________________________________.

137. total height of the standpipe or zone being used

138. Pressure-Reducing Valve — Valve installed at standpipe connection that is designed to reduce the amount of water pressure at that discharge to a specific pressure, usually _____ psi.

138. 100 psi

139. An external standpipe may also be created by hoisting up, or rolling hose down the outside of a building, securing it inside every ______ or ______ floors.

139. Two or three floors

140. Theoretical Lift — Theoretical, scientific height that a column of water may be lifted by atmospheric pressure in a true vacuum; at sea level, this height is _______ feet. The height will decrease as elevation increases. Pump 404.

140. 33.9 feet

141. For every 1,000 feet of altitude, the atmospheric pressure decreases by approximately _____psi.

141. 0.5 psi

142. In the fire service, _______________ is defined as the greatest height to which any amount of water may be raised through an intake hose to the pump.

142. Maximum lift

143. In most circumstances, maximum lift is approximately ______feet.

143. 25 feet

144. _____________________ — Height a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable fire flow. Lift may be raised through a hard suction hose to a pump, taking into consideration the atmospheric pressure and friction loss within the hard suction hose; ________________ is usually considered to be ______ feet.

144. Dependable lift. Dependable lift. 14.7 feet

145. All fire department pumping apparatus are rated when drafting with a minimum lift of ____ feet from the center of a pump intake to the surface of water through ____ feet of hard intake hose. A strainer is submerged at least ___ feet in a water depth of at least ___ feet.

145. 10 feet of lift. 20 feet of hose. 2 feet. 4 feet

146. As the lift or friction loss in hard intake hose is increased, the water supply capability of the pump decreases. The pump may only deliver about ____ percent of its capacity if lift is increased by 5 feet , to a 15-foot lift, and ____ percent at a 20 foot lift.

146. 70 percent. 60 percent.

147. Floating pumps placed in an adequate water source can develop and maintain a flow of up to ____ gpm.

147. 500 gpm

148. Although lesser depths may be suitable, ___ feet of water all around a barrel-type strainer is generally considered the minimum for that type of equipment.

148. 2 feet

149. Floating strainers may be used for water as shallow as___ foot.

149. 1 foot

150. Low-level strainers are most commonly used to draft from portable water tanks. These devices may draw water as shallow as ___ to ___ inches, but generally will not provide the flow required to reach the capacity of the pumping apparatus.

150. 1 to 2 inches

151. Although they may vary in size, cisterns typically range from ___________ to ________ gallons. Pump 415.

151. 10,000 to 100,000 gallons

152. Large Diameter Hose (LDH) — Relay-supply hose of _____ to _____ inches in diameter; used to move large volumes of water quickly with a minimum number of pumpers and personnel.

152. 3 ½ inch to 6 inches

153. TQ** Centrifugal pumps are rated to pump at their maximum volume capacity at __ psi at draft.

153. 150 psi

154. As previously mentioned, fire department pumpers are rated to flow their maximum volume at ____psi, 70 percent of their maximum at ____ psi, and 50 percent of their maximum at ____ psi at draft.

154. 150 psi, 200 psi, 250 psi

155. It is advisable for driver/operators to maintain an intake pressure of ___ to ___ psi as a relay pumper.

155. 20 to 30 psi

156. For relay pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve, they should be set to ___ psi above the static pressure of the water system to which it is attached or ___ psi above the discharge pressure of the previous pumper in the relay.

156. 10 psi. 10 psi.

157. Attack pumpers equipped with an adjustable intake relief valve should be set between ___ and ___ psi to establish a stable operating condition. Pump 434.

157. 50 and 75 psi

158. The driver/operator of the attack pumper should expect small variations in pressure during relay pumping operations. You should not attempt to correct minor fluctuations as long as the intake pressure does not drop below ___ psi.

158. 20 psi

159. Driver/operators should refer to NFPA _____ for further information regarding the placement of relief devices.

159. NFPA 1962

160. In accordance with NFPA® 1901, water tenders must be designed to be filled at a rate of at least ______ gpm so that pumpers assigned to the fill site must be rated at that capacity or greater.

160. 1,000 gpm

161. Vehicle weight restrictions generally limit single rear axle apparatus to a maximum capacity of _______ gallons.

161. 2,000 gallons

162. For apparatus with a capacity greater than _______ gallons , tandem rear axles, tri-axles, or semi-trailers are required.

162. 2,000 gallons

163. Tenders featuring pumps of ____ gpm or greater rating are often called pumper/tenders.

163. 750 gpm

164. Pumper/tenders have large water tanks and the ability to pump at ____ gpm or greater.

164. 750 gpm

165. The vacuum tender is able to self-fill from a static water source at a rate of up to ______ gpm with a lift of up to ____ feet. These apparatus are also capable of discharging its water tank at a rate up to _______ gpm.

165. 2,000/ 22 feet/ 1,750 gpm

166. With a gravity dump, gravity is used to empty water from the tank. These dumps often use ____-inch or larger round or square piping with a valve that extends to the exterior of the vehicle.

166. 8 inch

167. When possible, a water supply source capable of supplying at least ______ gpm should be chosen in order to match the NFPA® recommended rate at which tenders should be filled. Pump 452.

167. 1000 gpm

168. Nurse Tanker — Very large water tanker (generally _______ gallons or larger) that is stationed at the fire scene and serves as a portable reservoir rather than as a shuttle tanker. Also known as Nurse Tender.

168. 4,000 gallons

169. NFPA® 1901 requires all tenders to have the capability to dump at a minimum average flow rate of _______ gpm for the first ___ percent of its tank capacity. Pump 462.

169. 1000 gpm. 90 percent

170. A simple dump site may feature the use of one portable tank that is supplied directly by water shuttle tenders. This operation is generally adequate for fire fighting operations that require relatively low flow rates (less than _____ gpm).

170. 300 gpm

171. Any tank, regardless of type, should be set up on a surface that is as level as possible and have a capacity at least _____ gallons larger than the water tank on the apparatus that will supply it.

171. 500 gallons

172. The dump site pumper should utilize a low-level strainer to allow for continuous drafting to a point of about ___inches.

172. 2 inches

173. Incidents that require a flow rate in excess of ____ gpm are best served by a multiple tank operation.

173. 300 gpm

174. Most multi-tank operations use from ____ to _____ portable tanks.

174. Two to five portable tanks

175. For operations that require more than three tanks and jet siphons and flows over 500 gpm, __________________ should be used to transfer water to the tank supplying the attack pumper.

175. Parallel Jet Siphons

176. ( question from fired up: tender fill lines should be pressurized at ____-___ psi at all times.) page 472 in the skill sheets. Place pumper in pump gear and charge tender fill lines, keeping pumper in gear and fill lines charged at all times. Follow local SOPs for discharge pressure, usually between ____ and ____ psi

176. 100-150 psi

177. (Hose size between the hydrant and pumper at the fill site is ____ LDH minimum.)

177. One LDH minimum

178. Many modern fuels, including gasoline, are blended with up to ___ percent solvent additives. Treat these products as polar solvents during emergency operations.

178. 15 percent solvent additives

179. Most fire fighting foam concentrates are formulated to mix with ____ to ____ percent water.

179. 94 to 99.9 percent

180. Class A foams are formulated to be proportioned within certain limits established by the manufacturer to achieve specific objectives. These percentages may range from a little as ___ percent to ___ percent.

180. 0.1 to 1 percent

181. When bulk storage of foam concentrates is required, some fire departments or industrial facilities may specify ____ gallon containers, called ______. Pump 484.

181. 275 gallon, totes

182. Foam concentrate tanks on municipal fire apparatus generally range from ___ to ____ gallons, while foam pumper or tenders may carry _______ gallons or more of concentrate.

182. 20 to 200 gallons. 8,000 gallons

183. Available since the 1940s, _________ foam technology has only recently been widely accepted and used for increasing numbers of structure, wildland, coal, tire storage, and other fires involving deep seated fuels.

183. Class A foam

184. The shelf life of properly stored foam solution can be as long as ___years making it an economical choice to purchase in bulk quantities.

184. 20 years

185. Class A foam concentrates may be mixed with percentages as little as _____ to ______ percent.

0.1 to 1.0 percent

The following guidelines are commonly used for proportioning Class A foam: 186. Fire attack and overhaul with standard fog nozzles — ____ to ____ percent concentrate.

186. Fire attack, overhaul = 0.2-0.5 percent

188. Any application with air aspirating foam nozzles — ____ to ____ percent concentrate.

188. Aspirating = 0.3-0.7 percent

187. Exposure protection with standard fog nozzles — ___ to ___ percent concentrate.

187. Exposure protection = 0.5-1.0 percent

189. Any application with compressed air foam systems (CAFS) — ___ to ___ percent concentrate.

189. CAFS = 0.2-0.5 percent

190. Class B foam concentrates should be stored in cool areas to maximize shelf life: approximately ____ years for protein based foams and ___ to ___ years for synthetic foam.

190. 10 years. 20 to 25 years

191. Class B foams are mixed in proportions from ____ to ____ percent.

191. One to 6 percent

192. Class B foams are mixed in proportions from ____ to ____.

192. 1% to 6%

193. Some foam is formulated for use on both hydrocarbon and polar solvent fuels. These products may be used at different concentrations depending on which fuel is involved. The concentration for hydrocarbon fuels is normally ______ or ____ percent, while ____ or ____ percent is used for polar solvents, based on the manufacturer’s recommendation.

193. One or three percent. Three or six percent

For class B foams. 194. Hydrocarbon fuels use ___ or___ percent concentration.

194. 1 or 3 percent.

For class B foams. 195. Polar solvents use ___ or ___ percent concentration.

195. 3 or 6 percent

196. NFPA 11 states that low expansion foam contains an air/solution ratio of up to __ parts finished foam for every part of foam solution, a ____ ratio.

196. 20 parts. 20:1 ratio

197. Medium expansion foam is commonly used at a rate of ____ up to _____ through hydraulically operated nozzle type delivery devices.

197. 20:1 up to 200:1

198. When high expansion foam is used the expansion rate is from ____ to _____.

198. 200:1up to 1000:1

199. In order to calculate the application rate available from a specific nozzle, divide the _______ by the area of the fire.

199. Flow rate

200. Regular protein foam generally has good heat stability and burnback resistance. However, it is not as fluid as other low expansion foams when applied to a fuel source. In addition, regular protein foam degrades more quickly in storage than synthetic foam (an approximate ____-year shelf life). Pump 492.

200. 10 year shelf life

201. ________________ foam may be made alcohol resistant with the addition of ammonia salts suspended in organic solvents. The alcohol-resistive properties will be effective for approximately _____ minutes, offering high-water retention and resistance to heat.

201. Flouroprotein. 15 minutes

202. Alcohol resistant AFFF concentrate is commonly available for use on polar solvents. This concentrate is generally used at a concentration of ______ or _______ percent, based on manufacturer’s recommendations.

202. Three or six percent

203. Alcohol-resistant AFFF may also be used on hydrocarbon fuels at _____ to _____ percent proportion based on the manufacturer’s guidelines.

203. One to six percent

204. The pressure at the discharge side of the eductor must not exceed _____ percent of the eductor inlet pressure. This back pressure is determined by adding the nozzle pressure, friction loss in the hose between the eductor and the nozzle, and the elevation pressure.

204. 70 percent

205. The concentration of foam solution will only blend accurately if the inlet pressure at the eductor is correct (usually ____-____ psi).

205. 150-200 psi

206. The foam concentrate inlet to the eductor should be no more than ____ feet above the liquid surface of the foam concentrate.

206. Six feet

207. Some master stream foam nozzles are capable of delivering _______ gpm.

207. 14,000 gpm

208. A jet ratio controller (JRC) is a type of in-line eductor that may be used to supply foam concentrate to a self-educting master stream. It allows the foam concentrate supply to be located as far as ________ feet away from a self-educting master stream nozzle. This distance allows firefighters charged with operating the fire pump and maintaining the foam concentrate supply to do so from a considerable distance, as well as an elevation change of up to ___ feet.

208. 3000 feet. 50 feet

209. Variable flow variable rate direct injection systems proportion foam concentrate at rates from ____to ____ percent.

209. 0.1 to 3 percent

210. Class A foam solutions do not retain their foaming properties when mixed in water for more than ____ hours, making pre-mixing virtually impossible.

210. 24 hours

211. CAFS apparatus use a standard centrifugal pump with an automatic discharge side proportioning system. Due to the low eduction rates, a variable flow rate sensing proportioner is required to supply the fire stream at the rate of ___ to ____ percent.

211. 0.1 to 1.0 percent

212. Generally, ___ cubic feet per minute of airflow per gallon, per minute of foam solution produces a dry foam of up to 100 gpm of foam solution. This creates a substantial amount of foam at a 10:1 expansion ratio.

212. 2 cubic feet

213. Most structural and wildland suppression operations conducted with CAFS use an airflow rate of ____ to ____ ft3/min of foam solution.

213. 0.5 to 1.0 ft/3

214. Expansion ratios for most fog nozzles are in the ___ up to ___ range. Pump 504.

214. 2:1 up to 4:1 range

215. NFPA 11 states that low expansion foam contains an air/solution ratio of up to 20 parts finished foam for every part of foam solution, a ____ ratio.

215. 20:1

216. The air content of medium expansion foam ranges from ____ to _____.

216. 20:1 to 200:1

217. For high expansion foam, the ratio ranges from ______ to ______.

217. 200:1 to 1000:1

218. When used on a fire line, durable agents are often applied at ___ to ___ percent.

218. 1 ½ to 2 percent

219. For structure protection, the application ratio is ____ to ___ percent. With this application, durable agents will adhere to vertical structural surfaces for up to ___ hours.

219. 2 to 3 percent. 24 hours

220. NFPA® _____, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus, NFPA _______, Standard for Wildland Fire Apparatus, and NFPA ______, Standard for Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting Vehicles are commonly used as a basis for most apparatus bid specifications.

220. NFPA 1901, NFPA 1906, NFPA 414

221. _____________— Preservice apparatus maneuverability tests designed to determine the road-worthiness of a new vehicle. Pump 516.

221. Road Tests

222. The apparatus must accelerate to ____ mph from a standing start within ____ seconds. This test is conducted in two runs in opposite directions over the same course.

222. 35 mph. 25 seconds

223. The apparatus must achieve at least a top speed of ____ mph. This requirement may be waived for vehicles not designed for use on public roadways.

223. 50 mph

224. The apparatus must come to a full stop from ____ mph within ____ feet.

224. 20 mph. 35 feet

225. The pump body as well as the entire intake and discharge piping system, with the exception of the tank fill and tank-to-pump lines on the tank side of the valves, are subjected to a minimum hydrostatic test pressure of _____ psi for a minimum of ____ minutes.

225. 500 psi. 10 minutes

226. In jurisdictions that are higher than ________ feet above sea level, a pumping engine overload test should be performed as part of acceptance testing.

226. 2000 feet above sea level

227. The requirements for fire department service testing are contained in NFPA ______, Standard for the Inspection, Maintenance, Testing and Retirement of In-Service Automotive Fire Apparatus.

227. NFPA 1911

228. For pumps rated at 1,500 gpm or less, _____ feet is the maximum distance, while 2,000 gpm pumps use a _____ foot maximum lift.

228. 10 feet. 6 feet

229. The air temperature when the testing is conducted should be between ___°F and ____° F.

229. 0. 110

230. The water temperature should be between ___° F and ____° F.

230. 35. 90

231. The barometric pressure should be at least _____ inches of Mercury (Hg) when corrected to sea level. This adjustment is necessary because a 1-inch drop in barometric pressure reduces the static lift of a pumper by approximately 1 foot.

231. 29 inches of mercury

232. When conducting the pump test a sufficient number of discharge hoses must be stretched and operated. The minimum diameter hoseline for this purpose is _______-inch hose, although larger diameter hoselines may be employed if so desired.

232. 2 ½ inch hose

233. To monitor the continued serviceability of the hose throughout the test, a mark may be scribed where the hose and couplings meet. If the scribe mark is found to have moved away more than _____ of an inch from the coupling, stop the test and replace the hose.

233. 3/8 of an inch

234. Performance tests are conducted at ____ psi, ____ psi, ____ psi, and ____ psi net pump discharge pressure.

234. 150 psi, 165 psi, 200 psi, 250 psi

235. NFPA 1911 specifies that all gauges used for service testing must be calibrated within _____ days of the testing.

235. 60 days

The following equipment is required for performance tests on fire department pumpers: 236. A gauge to determine intake pressure. The gauge should be calibrated to a range of 30 in Hg to zero for a _________ gauge, or 30 in Hg vacuum to 150 psi for a ____________gauge.

236. Vacuum gauge. Compound gauge

The following equipment is required for performance tests on fire department pumpers: 237. A gauge with a range of 0 to at least 400 psi (with + or - _____ % accuracy) to determine pump discharge.

237. 5 % accuracy

The following equipment is required for performance tests on fire department pumpers: 238. A pitot tube with knife edge and air chamber rated from 0 to at least _____ psi is required if a flowmeter is not used.

238. 160 psi

The following equipment is required for performance tests on fire department pumpers: 239. Two 6-foot lengths of ____-inch diameter, ______psi hose with screw fittings and gauges. These gauges are connected to fittings at the pump panel.

239. ¼ inch diameter. 300 psi hose

To perform fire pump service testing safely, personnel should: 240. Wear protective head gear, eyewear, gloves, and hearing protection if noise levels have the potential to reach or exceed _____ decibels (dB).

240. 90 decibels

241. If it is not running at the correct speed (plus or minus _____ rpm), the apparatus should be evaluated by a qualified mechanic before any further tests are performed. Pump 524.

241. 50 rpm

242. According to NFPA® 1911, fire pumps of 1,250 gpm capacity must achieve prime in ____ seconds or less, and those rated at 1,500 gpm must be primed within _____ seconds.

242. 30 seconds or less. 45 seconds

243. Pumpers with an onboard tank capacity of 500 gallons or less must be capable of flowing ______ gpm from their onboard tank.

243. 250 gpm

244. Pumpers with a capacity of greater than 500 gallons must be capable of flowing at least ____ gpm.

244. 500 gpm

245. Any apparatus that achieves results less than _____ percent of its originally rated capabilities has two options for continued use: It may be placed out of service and restored to its original capabilities and tested again, or the apparatus may be given a lower rating based on the results of the most recent testing.

245. 90 percent

246. The amount of force exerted by the hydraulic fluid depends on the hydraulic system pressure and the piston surface area. The larger the piston area, the more upward force is produced. Normal hydraulic pressure is from ______to ______ psi.

246. 850 to 3000 psi (P551)

247. In aerial ladders made in North America, the fully extended (working) length ranges from ____ to ____ ft.

247. 50 to 137 feet

248. TQ** The required minimum floor area of a platform is _____ square feet. Each platform must have a rail completely enclosing the floor area with no opening under the railing greater than ____ inches.

248. 14 sq feet. 24 inches

249. TQ** All elevating platforms must have a minimum load capacity of ____ pounds when the aerial device is fully extended, at any elevation within its normal range of motion, and with no water in the piping system. This load requirement drops to ______ pounds when the water delivery system is charged.

249. 750 pounds. 500 pounds

250. The water delivery system must be capable of discharging at least ____ gpm at___ psi nozzle pressure when the aerial device is in any position.

250. 1000 gpm at 100 psi

251. Elevating platforms that are 110 feet or shorter should be able to be raised from the bedded position to the maximum elevation and extension and be rotated 90 degrees in _____ seconds or less. There is no time requirement for elevating platforms taller than 110 feet.

251. 150 seconds

252. Aerial ladder platforms commonly range in size from ____ to ____ feet.

252. 85 to 110 feet

253. Common sizes of telescoping aerial platforms in use in North America range from __ to ___ feet.

253. 75 to 100 feet

254. In aerial ladders made in North America, the fully extended (working) length ranges from ___ to ____ ft.

254. 50 to 137 feet

255. Standard articulating aerial platforms range in height from ___ to ___ feet.

255. 55 to 85 feet

256. Most water towers are designed so that their fire streams may be deployed at a range of elevations starting from a few degrees below horizontal to nearly 90 degree from the ground. Common sizes for these devices range from ___ to ____ feet. They are capable of maximum flows ranging from ______ to _____ gpm.

256. 50 to 130 feet. 1000 to 5000 gpm

257. The oldest type of pre-piped aerial ladder waterway is the______________, which is a section of pipe, usually 3 or 3 1⁄2 inches in diameter, attached to the underside of the bed (base) section of the aerial ladder.

257. Bed ladder pipe

258. Ladders that are _____ feet or shorter and equipped with a telescoping water system have piping that extends directly to the tip of the fly section.

258. 110 feet or shorter

259. Most telescoping water systems are capable of flows up to ______ gpm.

259. 1000 gpm

260. Detachable ladder pipes are typically limited to flows of less than ____ gpm.

260. 750 gpm

261. Most ladders with detachable ladder pipe appliances restrict the sideways movement of the nozzle to about _____ degrees either side of center. Pump 571.

261. 15 degrees

262. Because elevating platforms typically have greater load capacities than aerial ladders, the piping on these systems may be larger, and flows of up to ______ gpm are possible on some models.

262. 2,000 gpm

263. Some water towers also have an optional piercing nozzle at the end of the aerial device. This hardened steel nozzle penetrates through sheet metal buildings, aircraft skins, and metal roofs. Once the nozzle pierces the structure, a **broken stream** nozzle at its tip may be charged at the operator’s control panel. This stream is capable of flows up to _____ gpm.

263. 300 gpm

264. Electrical power cords are needed to conduct electric power to portable equipment. Common recommended lengths should not exceed ____ feet per reel or cord.

264. 200 feet

265. Hose distances ______ feet or greater from the hydraulic pump may have a negative effect on tool operation.

265. 100 feet

266. Many fire agencies choose to carry an extension ladder that is ____ feet or longer to reach fourth-or fifth-story windows that are not accessible with the main aerial device. These ladders are also called “pole” ladders. Due to the extreme weight and awkwardness of this type of ground ladder, these ladders are equipped with “staypoles” or “tormentors” for stability and leverage during the raising of the ladder.

266. 40 feet or longer

267. Since the tiller axle is a steering axle, steering wheel free play must not exceed ____” on a 20” wheel, or ____ degrees on any other sized steering wheel.

267. 2 inches. 10 degrees

268. TQ** When testing the emergency power unit (EPU), the main hydraulic system should be disengaged and a control valve must be open before turning on the pump to prevent ____________.

268. Deadheading

269. Aerial apparatus placement on the fireground is critically important because aerial devices and ladders have a fixed maximum length, as opposed to pumpers and other fire apparatus that may carry _______ feet of fire hose and can attach more length if they need to be positioned at a great distance from the fire. Pump 609.

269. 1000 feet

270. TQ** Moderate to high winds impose a ___________ on the aerial device and may reduce the overall stability by forcing movement for which the apparatus was not designed.

270. Dynamic load

271. Electricity will arc across a gap as large as ____ feet, and all overhead wires or cables should be considered hazardous and dangerous.

271. 10 feet

272. The long-standing fire service standard has been to provide 10 feet of clearance between the aerial device and overhead high-voltage lines energized from _____ to ______ volts, and 50 feet of clearance for high-voltage transmission lines over ________ volts.

272. 600 to 50,000 volts. Over 50,000 volts

273. Do not work within ____ feet of high-voltage transmission lines.

273. 50 feet

274. NOTE: OSHA recently revised their overhead power line clearances for the construction industry. The new standard requires ____ feet between the device and overhead electric lines of less than 350 kilovolts. For high tensions lines of over 350 kilovolts, OSHA requires _____ feet of clearance.

274. 20 feet. 50 feet

275. Jack-knifing involves turning the tractor at an angle from the trailer. Greatest stability occurs when this angle is approximately ___° from in-line and the aerial device is extended away from this angle. Good stability occurs at angles up to ___°. Beyond ___° stability decreases rapidly.

275. 60 degrees. 90 degrees. 90 degrees

276. The maximum loading for any unsupported aerial device occurs when operated at angles between ___° and ____° from horizontal.

276. 70 degrees and 80 degrees from horizontal

277. Most railroad companies advise that vehicles be kept at least ____ feet from the tracks when possible.

277. 25 feet

278. If it becomes absolutely necessary to raise an aerial device across a railroad track, confirm with the railroad company that train traffic has been halted on that set of tracks. Even when a halt confirmation has been received, keep the aerial device at least ____ feet above the level of the rails as an added safety precaution.

278. 25 feet

279. When parked, with the aerial device in its stowed position, the apparatus has a center of gravity located somewhere along the _____________________ of the chassis, between the front and rear axles.

279. Longitudinal midline

280. The type of PTO activation switch varies from manufacturer to manufacturer and may be pneumatic, electric, hydraulic, or a combination of these three. Pneumatic systems require anywhere from _____ to _____ psi air pressure for the PTO to be operated, depending on the manufacturer.

280. 50 to 140 psi

281. Correction of lateral unevenness is possible on grades of up to ____ percent (app. 3 degrees), although this can vary depending on the aerial device (check the operators manual for specific vehicle information, for example, some older trucks may be much less than this).

281. 5 percent

282. A slope of ____ percent means that there is a rise in terrain height of 5 feet for every run of 100 feet of distance

282. 5 percent

283. Check the manufacturer’s requirements for aerial device loading on grades. Most have restricted loads when operating on grades, some as much as _________ the normal load, and if in the red zone (unsafe load), do not operate the aerial device.

283. One-half

284. All operators on an aerial device should be equipped with fall restraint ladder belt and tether. This ladder belt and tether should meet the requirements of the NFPA _________, Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services.

284. NFPA 1983

285. Use the 75-80-80 guideline for quick ladder pipe use: 75 degree elevation, 80 percent extended length, and 80 psi nozzle pressure for a _____-inch tip.

285. 1 ½ inch tip

286. Use ladder pipes _______________ to the rungs on older units, with a maximum lateral movement of 15 degrees to either side, if lateral movement is allowed. Many new models offer a 180 degree sweep.

286. Perpendicular

287. The limit of ice build-up allowed by NFPA® 1901 is _____ inch on all surfaces.

287. ¼ inch

288. 1 cubic inch of ice = _______ lb.

288. 0.03 lb

289. Keep aerial device, vehicle, and personnel _____ feet from power lines (if voltage is not known) and _____ feet (____ feet, if possible) from power lines if voltage is 350 Kilovolts or less.

289. 50 feet. 10 feet. 20 feet

290. When removing trapped victims from a roof (or other similarly open, flat areas), the tip of the aerial ladder should be placed so that at least ______feet extends above the edge of the roof.

290. 6 feet

291. Rope and hardware used with the lifting eye(s) should be appropriate for the load being lifted, should comply with NFPA _____, Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services, and should be rigged by an individual trained in proper rope rescue techniques such as those found in NFPA ______, Standard on Operations and Training for Technical Search and Rescue Incidents.

291. NFPA 1983. NFPA 1670

292. The best way to effect a blitz attack with an elevated master stream is to try to deflect water off the ceiling of the fire room. Water deflection can be accomplished by positioning the aerial device so that the nozzle is about even with the bottom of the window. This position allows water to enter the area at an angle of about _______ degrees.

292. 30 degrees

293. The quantity of heat required to change the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 degree Celsius is ______ joules. (S11)

293. 4.2 joules

294. When comparing joules and Btu, _______ J = 1 Btu. (S11)

294. 1055 J = 1 BTU

295. _______________________ = Colorless, odorless gas. Inhalation of _________________ causes headache, dizziness, weakness, confusion, nausea, unconsciousness, and death. Exposure to as little as 0.2 percent _________________ can result in unconsciousness within 30 minutes. Inhalation of high concentration can result in immediate collapse and unconsciousness. (S15)

295. Carbon monoxide

296. ____________________ = Colorless gas with a pungent, irritating odor that is highly irritating to the nose. 50-100 ppm can cause severe irritation to the respiratory tract and serious injury. Exposure to high concentrations can cause injury to the skin. _______________ is a suspected carcinogen. (S15)

296. Formaldehyde

297. ____________________ = Colorless, toxic, and flammable liquid below 79° F, produced by the combustion of nitrogen-bearing substances. It is a chemical asphyxiant that acts to prevent the body from using oxygen. It is commonly encountered in smoke in concentrations lower than carbon monoxide. (S15)

297. Hydrogen cyanide

298. _____________________ = Reddish-brown gas or yellowish-brown liquid, which is highly toxic and corrosive. (S15)

298. Nitrogen dioxide

299. ___________________ = Small particles that can be inhaled and deposited in the mouth, trachea, or the lungs. Exposure to particulates can cause eye irritation and respiratory distress (in addition to health hazards specifically related to the particular substances involved).

299. Particulates

300. ____________________ = Colorless gas with a choking or suffocating odor. ______________ is toxic and corrosive, and can irritate the eyes and mucous membranes. (S15)

300. Sulfer dioxide

301. CO molecules attach to hemoglobin, decreasing the blood’s ability to carry oxygen, as it combines with hemoglobin about __________times more effectively than oxygen.

301. 200 times

302. _____________________is a toxic and flammable substance produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen.

302. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)

303. Smoke frequently contains ______, although at lower concentrations than CO.

303. HCN

304. Incomplete combustion of substances that contain nitrogen and carbon produces ____.

304. HCN

305. HCN is a significant byproduct of the combustion of ____________________ used in many household furnishings.

305. Polyurethane foam

306. HCN is ____ times more toxic than CO.

306. 35 times

307. HCN prevents the body from using oxygen at the _________ level.

307. Cellular

308. Inhaled __________ enters the bloodstream and prevents the blood cells from using oxygen properly, killing the cells.

308. Inhaled HCN

309. CO2 is a product of complete combustion of __________ materials.

309. Organic materials

310. CO2 acts as a respiratory _____________.

310. Stimulant

311. More than ____________ irritants in smoke have been identified, including hydrogen chloride, formaldehyde, and acrolein.

311. Twenty irritants

312. The standard international (SI) unit for power is the ______. One _____ is 1 joule per second (J/s).

312. watt (W). watt

313. Liquid fuels that vaporize sufficiently to burn at temperatures under ______° F present a significant flammability hazard.

313. 100 degrees

314. Pyrolysis of wood begins at temperatures below ______° F, lower than the temperature required for ignition of the released vapors. (S29)

314. Below 400 degrees

315. Normally, air consists of about ___ percent oxygen.

315. 21 percent

316. At normal ambient temperatures (68° F), materials can ignite and burn at oxygen concentrations as low as ___ percent.

316. 15 percent

317. Typically, an atmosphere having less than _____ percent oxygen is considered oxygen-deficient and presents a hazard to persons not wearing respiratory protection, such as SCBA.

317. 19.5 percent

318. When the atmosphere’s oxygen concentration exceeds _____ percent, the atmosphere is considered oxygen-enriched and presents an increased fire risk.

318. 23.5 percent

319. When placed in an oxygen-enriched atmosphere of approximately _____ percent oxygen, Nomex® ignites and burns vigorously.

319. 31 percent

320. When flames reach ____ ft high, radiated heat begins to transfer more heat than convection.

320. 2.5 feet high

321. As flashover occurs, the gas temperatures in the room reach ________° F or higher.

321. 1,100 degrees

322. During flashover, the volume of burning gases can increase from approximately ____ to _____ of the room’s upper volume to fill the entire volume and extend out of any openings.

322. ¼ to ½ of the rooms upper volume

324. WARNING: Wind-driven conditions can occur in any type of structure. Wind speeds as low as ___ mph can create wind-driven fire conditions.

324. 10 mph

323. NOTE: The autoignition temperature of CO, the most abundant fuel gas created in most fires, is approximately _________ ° F.

323. 1,100 degrees

325. Type 1 Since _______, manufactured homes must meet the Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards (HUD Code).

325. 1976

326. Type II Use of asbestos has decreased dramatically in the U.S. since the ______, but asbestos exposure is still a concern in older buildings.

326. 1970s

327. Type I

327. Fire-resistive

328. Type II

328. Noncombustible/limited combustible.

329. Type III

329. Ordinary.

330. Type IV

330. Heavy Timber.

331. Type V

331. Wood frame.

332. In single-family residential structures, the square footage of houses increased over ____ percent between 1973 and 2008.

332. 150 percent

333.For steel trusses, _____° F is the critical temperature of steel — the temperature at which steel begins to weaken.

333. 1000 degrees

334. In Type I construction, all structural members consist of _______________ materials with high fire-resistance ratings, unless exempted by the building code.

334. Noncombustible

335. NFPA _______, Standard on Selection, Care, and Maintenance of Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting.

335. NFPA 1851

336. Standard ceilings rise ___ to ___ feet and vaulted or cathedral ceilings may reach higher than ____ feet.

336. 8 to 12 feet. 13 feet

337. Compartmentation is typical in _______ residential and commercial structures, office buildings, and schools.

337. Pre-1980

338. Ceiling height of a typical basement is approximately ___ to ___ feet, allowing the fire to rise rapidly.

338. 8 to 9 feet

339. When exposed to temperatures above _________° F , unprotected steel expands and twists, pushing out walls, and slightly constricts when cooled.

339. 1000 degrees

340. Steel expands .06 percent to .07 percent in length for each _____° F rise in temperature.

340. 100 degree rise

341. _____ steel is the most commonly used structural steel in the United States.

341. A36 steel

342. Steel loses strength at around ____° F.

342. 570 degrees

343. After flashover, structural steel supports less than ____ percent of its designed load and could fail at any time.

343. 40 percent

344. Lath and plaster construction is generally found in buildings constructed before ____.

344. Before 1950

345. ____________________________________— Originally used in the 1970s for insulating walls, this material caused high levels of formaldehyde emissions when improperly installed. It may still appear in some older houses.

345. Urea Formaldehyde Foam Insulation (UFFI)

346. ____________________— The term refers to different materials: slag wool and rock wool. Accounting for approximately 80 percent of ___________ produced, slag wool primarily from iron ore blast furnace slag, an industrial waste product. Rock wool is produced from rocks. Prior to the 1960s, ___________ was the most common type of insulation.

346. Mineral wool, mineral wool, mineral wool

347. ___________________ — Most comes from approximately 80 percent post-consumer recycled newspaper by weight; the rest is composed of fire-retardant chemicals and acrylic binders in some products. Over time, _______ loses its ability to be fire-retardant. It is also a respiratory irritant.

347. Cellulose

348. ___________________ — It consists of 85 percent recycled ______ and 15 plastic fibers treated with borate, the same flame retardant and insect/rodent repellent used in cellulose insulation. It is as effective as fiberglass or cellulose, has fewer documented health risks than fiberglass, and offers easy installation. It costs more than fiberglass and is widely available.

348. Cotton

__________________ — Used in the exterior walls of hybrid or natural (green) construction buildings and houses. It can be affected by moisture and may become infested by insects and vermin.

349. Straw

350. __________________ — Applied in rigid boards called extruded and expanded polystyrene (EPS) or blown into wall cavities or voids in spray form. Spray ______ can irritate the respiratory system, has a high toxicity level, and adds to the fuel load. ______ blocks are incorporated into building construction.

350. Foam

351. In 2011-2015, U.S. fire departments responded to an estimated average of ________ structure fires per year in vacant properties.

351. 30,200 structure fires per year

352. Fires in __________ buildings are more likely to be intentionally set and spread beyond the building than fires in other structures.

352. Vacant

353. _____ percent of reported structure fires in 2011-2015 were in vacant properties.

353. 6 percent

354. Only ___ percent of civilian structure fire deaths and _____ percent of civilian structure fire injuries resulted from fires in vacant properties.

354. 2 percent. 1 percent

355. ____________ percent of firefighter injuries at structure fires occurred in or at vacant buildings.

355. Thirteen percent

356. NFPA _____, Standard for Pre-Incident Planning.

356. NFPA 1620

357. NFPA _____, Standard for Smoke and Heat Venting, provides guidelines for the design and installation of smoke-and-heat venting equipment.

357. NFPA 204

359. ____________ — Organizational level having functional/geographic responsibility for major segments of incident operations; organizationally located between Section and Division or Group.

359. Branch

358. ___________ — Organizational level having responsibility for a major functional area of incident management includes: — Operations. — Planning. — Logistics. — Finance/Administration. — Information and Intelligence.

358. Section

360. ____________ — Organizational level having responsibility for operations within a defined geographic area; organizationally between Branch and single resources, task force, or strike team (described in the following section).

360. Division

361. Resources assigned to a Division report to that Division ___________.

361. Supervisor

362. ____________ — Organizational level, equal to Division, having responsibility for a specified functional assignment (such as ventilation, salvage, water supply) at an incident without regard to a specific geographical area.

362. Group

363. ________________ — Organizational level within the sections that fulfill specific support functions, such as the resources, documentation, demobilization, and situation units, within the Planning Section.

363. Unit

364. According to the 2008 NIMS-ICS model, the span-of-control ratio for ICS ranged from ______ to ______ subordinates per supervisor, with ______ being optimal.

364. Three to seven. 5 being optimal

365. NIMS 2017 suggests an optimal span of control of one supervisor to _____ subordinates.

365. Five subordinates

366. NFPA _____ Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety, Health, and Wellness Program.

366. NFPA 1500

367. A modern structural fire can quickly exceed _____° F, creating the potential for flashover (approximately 1,110° F within minutes).

367. 500 degrees

368. Deploying a master stream device and the necessary hoselines usually requires a minimum of ____ firefighters.

368. Two

369. Winds as slow as ____ mph can affect structure fires, potentially making them wind-driven. (S)

369. 10 mph

370. Floor-by-floor smoke control systems are typical in commercial high-rises constructed prior to ______. (S)

370. Prior to 1990

371. Fire officers certified to NFPA _____, Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications, should be able to determine the cause and origin of most fires. (S)

371. NFPA 1021

372. In the metric system used in technical literature, the Canadian fire service, and most of the rest of the world, _______ are the unit of measure for heat energy. (T22)

372. Joules

373. _______________— Unit of work or energy in the International System of Units; the energy (or work) when unit force (1 newton) moves a body through a unit distance (1 meter); takes the place of calorie for heat measurement (1 calorie =______ ). (T22)

373. Joule (J). 4.19 J

374. It takes ________ joules to raise the temperature of one kilogram (kg) of water one degree Celsius. (T22)

374. 4,186 joules

375. The U.S. fire service uses the customary system in which the unit of measure for heat energy is the_________________. (T22)

375. British thermal unit (Btu)

376. One Btu is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. By comparison, 1 Btu equals approximately _________ joules.

376. 1,100 joules

377. British Thermal Unit (Btu) — Amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit. One Btu = _________kilo joules (kJ).

377. 1.055 kilo joules

378. ___________________is usually expressed in either kilojoules/gram (kJ/g) or megajoules/kilogram (MJ/kg).

378. Heat of combustion

379. ___________________is thermal energy (heat) that could be generated by the combustion (oxidation) reaction if a fuel were completely burned. The _______________ is measured in British Thermal Units (Btu) per pound or calories per gram.

379. Heat of combustion. Heat of combustion

380. The ceiling temperature approaches _____________°F during a rollover and the heat being radiated to the floor may be sufficient to ignite ordinary materials such as newspaper.

380. 1,100 degrees

381. If the concentration of flammable combustion and pyrolysis products is above the upper flammable limit, the temperature is above 1,100°F or another source of ignition is available, and ventilation is increased, a ____________ may occur.

381. Back-draft

382. Incident Management System = System described in NFPA ________, Standard on Fire Department Incident Management System, that defines the roles, responsibilities, and standard operating procedures used to manage emergency operations. Such systems may also be referred to as Incident Command Systems (ICS).

382. NFPA 1561 (NFPA 1620 is Preincident Planning.)

383. ________________________= System by which facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications are organized to operate within a common organizational structure designed to aid in the management of resources at emergency incidents.

383. Incident Command System (ICS)

384. The use of an ____________________is required by NFPA® 1500, Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program, and NFPA® 1561, Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System.

384. Accountability system

385. _______________= A magnesium silicate mineral that occurs as slender, strong flexible fibers. Breathing of _________dust causes __________and lung cancer.

385. Asbestos, asbestos, asbestiosis

386. _______________ = Colorless, odorless gas. Inhalation of carbon monoxide causes headache, dizziness, weakness, confusion, nausea, unconsciousness, and death. Exposure to as little as 0.2% _________________ can result in unconsciousness within 30 minutes. Inhalation of high concentration can result in immediate collapse and unconsciousness.

386. Carbon Monoxide

387. ________________ = Colorless gas with a pungent irritating odor that is highly irritating to the nose. 50-100 ppm can cause severe irritation to the respiratory track and serious injury. Exposure to high concentrations can cause injury to the skin. ________________ is a suspected carcinogen.

387. Formaldehyde

388. _________________ = Reddish brown gas or yellowish-brown liquid, which is highly toxic and corrosive.

388. Nitrogen dioxide

389. _______________ = Small particles that can be inhaled and be deposited in the mouth, trachea, or the lungs. Exposure to ______________ can cause eye irritation, respiratory distress (in addition to health hazards specifically related to the particular substances involved).

389. Particulates

390. _______________ = Colorless gas with a choking or suffocating odor. __________ is toxic and corrosive and can irritate the eyes and mucous membranes.

390. Sulfur dioxide

391. While two firefighters may be sufficient to locate a firefighter in distress, it may take a _______________ firefighters to effect the rescue.

391. A dozen or more

392. Removing the wall between any two adjacent studs will only create an opening approximately ____ inches wide.

392. 14 inches wide

393. ____________________— a strong respiratory irritant produced when polyethylene is heated and when items containing cellulose, such as wood and other natural materials smolder. It is used in the manufacture of pharmaceuticals, herbicides, and tear gas.

393. Acrolein (CH2=CHCHO)

394. ____________________— a colorless but very pungent and irritating gas given off in the thermal decomposition of materials containing chlorine such as polyvinyl chloride (PVC) and other plastics.

394. Hydrogen chloride (HCl)

395. ____________________— a colorless gas with a characteristic almond odor. Twenty times more toxic than CO, it is an asphyxiant and can be absorbed through the skin. _____ is produced in the combustion of natural materials, such as wool and silk, which contain nitrogen. It is also produced when polyurethane foam and other plastics that contain urea burn. The concentrated bulk chemical is also used in electroplating.

395. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)

396. ____________________— a colorless, odorless, and nonflammable gas produced in free-burning fires. While it is nontoxic, ____ can asphyxiate by excluding the oxygen from a confined space. It is also a respiratory accelerant that can increase the intake of other toxic gases.

396. Carbon dioxide (CO2)

397. _____________________— two toxic and dangerous gases liberated in the combustion of pyroxylin plastics. Because ____________readily converts to ________________in the presence of oxygen and moisture, _______________ is the substance of most concern to firefighters. _______________is a pulmonary irritant that can also have a delayed systemic effect. The vapors and smoke from the _______________have a reddish brown or copper color.

397. Nitrogen oxides (NO and NO2), nitric oxide (NO), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), oxides of nitrogen

398. _____________________— a highly toxic, colorless gas with a disagreeable odor of musty hay. It may be produced when refrigerants, such as Freon, contact flame. ________ can be expected in fires in cold-storage facilities or in fires involving heavy-duty HVAC systems. It is a strong pulmonary irritant, the full harmful effect of which is not evident for several hours after exposure.

398. Phosgene (CCl2O), phosgene

399. If there are sufficient on-scene resources, firefighters should start salvage operations on the floor _______________as soon it is safe to do so.

399. Below the fire

400. To ensure that ladders are safe to use when needed, firefighters must follow the maintenance procedures recommended by the ladder manufacturer, as prescribed in departmental SOPs, and as specified in NFPA _____, Standard on Use, Maintenance, and Service Testing of In-Service Fire Department Ground Ladders.

400. NFPA 1932

401. As discussed in Essentials, the ideal climbing angle for ground ladders is____ degrees from horizontal.

401. 75 degrees from horizontal

402. At angles less than _____ degrees, the distance between personnel on the ladder should be increased.

402. Less than 75 degrees

403. The most relevant fitness related standards are NFPA______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program and NFPA _______, Standard on Health-Related Fitness Programs for Fire Department Members.

403. NFPA 1500. NFPA 1583

404. A minimum of _____ firefighters are required to raise a pole ladder, but adding a fifth or sixth firefighter to the team increases both safety and efficiency.

404. Four

405. If the window opening is wide enough to permit the ladder tip to project into it and still allow room beside it to facilitate entry/exit and rescue, the ladder can be placed so that it extends ____ or _____ rungs into the window opening.

405. Two or three rungs

406. If the gap between the buildings is not more than ________ its length, a single ladder can be laid on the roof of one building and the tip simply slid over to the other building.

406. One-third

407. Size-up for a structure fire incident typically starts with the ______________.

407. Initial dispatch

408. Both residential and commercial buildings constructed before the middle of the twentieth century commonly had high ceilings, some _____ feet or more, but many of them have since had dropped (false) ceilings installed during renovation.

408. 10 feet or more

409. If a firefighter crawling on the floor of a smoke-filled Victorian-style residence can touch the ceiling with a ___-foot pike pole, there is probably a false ceiling in that room.

409. 6-foot pike pole

410. A recent trend in residential construction in North America has been the emergence of extremely large dwellings compared to those built in the middle to late twentieth century. These single-family residences are commonly between ________ and _______ square feet, and some even larger.

410. 5,000 to 10,000

411. Evacuations should be made at least ___ mile away from a LPG tank that has the potential for BLEVE.

411. At least ½ mile

412. The DOT ERG 2008 recommends staging anywhere from ____ to ___ feet from the source of both LPG and natural gas leaks.

412. 160 to 330 feet

413. Since the LEL for natural gas is ____ percent (50,000 ppm), many fire departments establish the perimeter at ____ percent of that figure — 0.5 percent (5,000 ppm).

413. 5 percent. 10 percent

414. If extinguishing a fire on an upper floor of a 50 × 100-foot building results in 6 inches of water accumulating on the floor, the total weight of that water exceeds ____ tons (68 t).

414. 75 tons

415. While wooden fences are found in many heights and styles, the majority consist of individual vertical boards nailed to horizontal wooden stringers between posts spaced about ____ feet apart.

415. 8 feet

416. Because of personal security concerns, a growing number of upscale homes and even entire housing developments, called gated communities, are enclosed within masonry walls. Most of the walls are about ___ feet high and roughly ___ foot thick.

416. 6 feet high. 1 foot thick

417. Scientifically controlled fire tests conducted by the NFPA® indicate that the time available for escape (TAE) from a burning building can be as little as ___ minutes after ignition due to heat buildup in a confined space such as a bedroom.

417. 11 minutes after ignition

418. Replace 12-tooth wood cutting blades when ____ or more teeth are damaged or worn down more than the other teeth or when the tips are worn down to the circumference of the blade.

418. 2 or more teeth

419. Replace 24-tooth wood cutting blades when ____ or more teeth are damaged or worn excessively, or the tips are worn down to the circumference of the blade.

419. 8 or more teeth

420. Replace composite concrete or metal cutting blades when they have been worn down sufficiently for the blade to fit inside an ____-inch circle.

420. 8 inch circle

421. If fire conditions inside an exterior roll-up or sheet-curtain door make a single cut in the center unsafe to use, an alternative is to make a horizontal cut across nearly the full width of the door, stopping about ___ foot from the doorframe on each side. This horizontal cut should be made about ___ feet above the bottom of the door.

421. 1 foot. 6 feet

422. Lexan — Polycarbonate plastic used for windows. It has one-half the weight of an equivalent-sized piece of glass, yet is ___ times stronger than safety glass and ___ times stronger than ordinary glass. It cannot be broken using standard forcible entry techniques.

422. 30 times. 250 times

423. A rotary saw with a _________________carbide-tipped blade is most effective when entry must be made through all types of plastic windows.

423. medium (40 tooth)

424. NFPA ___________, Recommended Practice for Pre-Incident Planning.

424. NFPA 1620

425. Most imagers use one of two technologies —_______________technology, or ________________________________technology.

425. Microbolometer. BST (barium, strontium, titanium)

426. Some imagers are designed primarily for locating the seat of a fire by being calibrated to respond to temperatures in excess of ____ °F.

426. 900 degrees

Departmental SOPs usually dictate one accepted method of marking; however, all department personnel must be trained to understand and use whatever method is selected. Regardless of the marking method used, the marks should be placed on the ___________of the wall or door so they are more likely to be visible below the smoke layer.

427. Lower third

424. NFPA ___________, Life Safety Code.

428. NFPA 101

429. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) respiratory protection regulations in 29 CFR 1910.134 state that whenever firefighters are in an IDLH atmosphere, including the interior of burning buildings when the fire is beyond the incipient or early growth stage, the firefighters must work in teams of___________.

429. Two or more

430. NFPA _______, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.

430. NFPA 1500

431. When searching large or complex spaces that are filled with smoke, some fire departments employ a primary search system that uses a dedicated search line. The search line consists of _____ feet of _____-inch rope with a Kevlar sheath for maximum abrasion protection and heat resistance. Every ___ feet along its length, a ___-inch steel ring is tied into the search line.

431. 200 feet. 3/8 inch rope. 20 feet. 2 inch steel ring

432. Implementing a primary search using a search line system requires a team with a minimum of _____ firefighters, although more is better.

432. 3 firefighter

433. About ____ feet outside of the entry point (or as close as possible) to the area being searched, the end of the search line is tied to a fixed object about ____ feet above the floor.

433. 10 feet. 3 feet

434. Under certain conditions, NFPA 1500 allows members of a RIC to perform other duties outside of the hazard zone as long as one member remains at the ___________.

434. Entry point

435. The most significant difference between telescoping doors and other types of service doors is that telescoping doors consist of two layers (skins) separated by at least ____ inches of air space.

435. 2 inches of air space

436. Exterior masonry walls usually range from ___ to ___ inches or more in thickness, depending upon the material used.

436. 8 to 12 inches

437. For PPV, blowers are set up about ___ feet outside the point of entry into the building so the cone of air they create completely covers the inlet opening.

437. 6 feet

438. Compared with mechanical smoke ejectors, fog streams are capable of removing ____________________ more smoke, depending on the type and size of the nozzle, the angle of the spray pattern, and the location of the nozzle in relation to the ventilation opening.

438. Two to four times more smoke

439. A fog or spray stream directed through a window or doorway with a ___-degree pattern covering ___ to ___ percent of the opening provides the best results for ventilation.

439. 60 degree pattern. 80 to 90 percent of the opening

440. Most roof assemblies employ a parallel rafter system with rafters spaced from __ to ___ inches on center, spanning the shortest distance between structural members or bearing walls.

440. 12 to 24 inches

441. If sounding does not reveal the location and direction of the rafters, a diagonal cut through the roof covering can be made with a chain saw or rotary saw at an angle of __ degrees to any exterior wall.

441. 45 degrees to any exterior wall

442. While departmental SOPs must always be followed, it is recommended that a clear space of at least ___ feet be maintained in all directions from anyone using a cutting tool in vertical ventilation.

442. 10 feet

443. A roof that decreases 5 inches vertically for each foot horizontally from the ridge would be described as a ___________roof, which is the most common pitch on residential roofs in areas with mild climates.

443. Five-in-twelve roof

444. A roof designed to withstand a heavy snow load might have a ____________pitch (____-degree angle).

444. Twelve-in-twelve pitch. 45 degree angle

445. Because it is difficult and time consuming to cut concrete roofs that are more than ___ inches thick, they are often designed with built-in access panels that can be lifted out in an emergency.

445. 4 inches thick

446. Typically, arches are spaced at ___ to ___ foot centers.

446. 16 to 20 foot centers

447. Panelized roof construction consists of laminated beams of various sizes – commonly __ × __ inches – that span the length or width of the building.

447. 6x36 inches

448. Wooden I-beams consist of three main components: a top chord, a bottom chord, and a solid _____-inch plywood or OSB web.

448. 3/8 inch

449. Roof coverings are classified in NFPA ___, Guidelines on Roof Coverings and Roof Deck Construction.

449. NFPA 203

450. Shakes and shingles are usually nailed to wooden 1- × 4-inch or 1- × 6-inch ___________________ with a space of about 1 inch between the planks.

450. Plank sheathing

451. Concrete, clay, or ceramic tile roofs use tiles that are usually flat, interlocking pieces that hook over 1- × 2-inch __________ (sometimes called_______________) nailed to the sheathing or directly to the rafters.

451. Battens. Furring strips

452. Because a 1/4-inch steel plate weighs about _____ pounds per square foot, a 20 × 50-foot roof would have approximately 10,000 pounds added to it.

452. 10 pounds per square foot

453. The time required to enlarge an opening of inadequate size or to cut several smaller holes is greater than that required to make one large opening. One 8 × 8 foot opening is equal in area to ______ 4 × 4 foot holes.

453. Four 4x4 foot holes

454. Trench ventilation is accomplished by cutting an opening in the roof, at least ___ feet wide, across the entire width of the building.

454. 4 feet wide

455. A fully equipped firefighter, especially one wearing a full tool belt or carrying spare air tanks, can weigh more than _____ pounds.

455. 300 pounds

456. Most PPV blowers positioned at street level are effective up to about ______ floors.

456. Up to 22 floors

457. Assuming that the structure is closed, with little or no gases being vented to the atmosphere, a neutral pressure plane exists at the level of ambient atmospheric pressure (usually between ____ percent and ____ percent of the building height).

457. 35 and 50 percent of the building height

458. The standard that provides guidelines for the design and installation of smoke and heat venting equipment, NFPA ______, Standard for Smoke and Heat Venting, recommends using automatic heat-activated roof vents and curtain boards.

458. NFPA 204

459. In_____, Homeland Security Presidential Directive-___, Management of Domestic Incidents, was issued.

459. 2003, presidential directive 5

460. HSPD-5 directed the U.S. Secretary of Homeland Security to develop and administer a National Response Plan, later renamed the________________________________.

National Response Framework

461. Extraordinary control measures may be necessary in _____________(those involving large-scale building-to-building spread) that may involve an entire city block, and ______________ (huge fires that cross streets, highways, rivers, or other natural fire breaks) that may engulf entire neighborhoods.

461. Group fires. Conflagrations

(CH2=CHCHO)

462. Acrolein

(HCl)

463. Hydrogen chloride

(HCN)

464. Hydrogen cyanide

(CO2)

465. Carbon dioxide

(NO and NO2)

466. Nitrogen oxides

(CCl2O)

467. Phosgene

Matt's Initial Driver Bible Flashcards

Important sentences from P&A 3rd Ed./ Truck 2nd Ed./Strategy and Tactics 3rd Ed. (467 cards)