Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines 2025 Flashcards

(634 cards)

1
Q

List three antipsychotic adverse effects.

A
  • Extrapyramidal symptoms
  • Antipsychotic-induced weight gain
  • Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
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2
Q

What is the purpose of the Maudsley Guidelines?

A

To provide evidence-based prescribing guidance in psychiatry

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3
Q

Which new topics were introduced in the 15th edition of the Maudsley® Prescribing Guidelines?

A
  • Premenstrual syndrome
  • Menopause
  • Gambling disorder
  • ADHD in adults
  • Relational aspects of prescribing practice
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4
Q

What does PANDAS stand for?

A

Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorder Associated with Streptococcus

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5
Q

What is PANS an abbreviation for?

A

Paediatric Acute-Onset Neuropsychiatric Syndrome

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6
Q

What does PANSS stand for?

A

Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale

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7
Q

What does PAWS stand for?

A

Post-Acute Withdrawal Syndrome

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8
Q

What is the meaning of PBA?

A

Pseudobulbar Affect

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9
Q

Fill in the blank: The first antipsychotic was _______.

A

Chlorpromazine

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10
Q

True or False: Clozapine is known for having a high liability to cause extrapyramidal symptoms.

A

False

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11
Q

What is one key characteristic of atypical antipsychotics?

A

Lower propensity for extrapyramidal symptoms

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12
Q

Fill in the blank: The term _______ refers to the variability of individual response to antipsychotic medications.

A

Response and tolerability

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13
Q

What is the significance of the CATIE and CUtLASS studies?

A

Review of relative efficacy of FGAs and SGAs

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14
Q

What was concluded about the efficacy of SGAs compared to FGAs?

A

No convincing evidence of superiority if EPS minimized

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15
Q

What is the effect of olanzapine compared to other antipsychotics?

A

Marginally more effective than aripiprazole, risperidone, quetiapine, and ziprasidone

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16
Q

Fill in the blank: A meta-analysis found few differences between FGAs and SGAs, but some advantages for _______.

A

Olanzapine and amisulpride

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17
Q

What is the classification of drugs introduced since 1990?

A

Second-Generation Antipsychotics (SGAs)

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18
Q

What does the term ‘Neuroscience-based Nomenclature’ refer to?

A

A naming system that reflects pharmacological activity

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19
Q

True or False: All atypical antipsychotics have improved efficacy over older drugs.

A

False

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20
Q

What is the drug ranked as the most effective for positive symptoms in schizophrenia?

A

Amisulpride

According to a 2019 network meta-analysis of 32 antipsychotics.

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21
Q

Which drug is considered the best for negative symptoms and overall symptom improvement?

A

Clozapine

Based on the same 2019 network meta-analysis.

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22
Q

List two antipsychotics that are highly ranked for positive symptom response.

A
  • Olanzapine
  • Risperidone
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23
Q

Which antipsychotic showed the greatest beneficial effect on depressive symptoms?

A

Sulpiride, clozapine, amisulpride, olanzapine, dopamine partial agonists

Reflecting the absence of neuroleptic-induced dysphoria common to most FGAs.

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24
Q

True or False: Olanzapine may have long-term advantages over some other antipsychotics.

A

True

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25
What phenomenon has been observed regarding the efficacy of recently introduced antipsychotics?
Lower estimated efficacy ## Footnote This is due to the substantial increase in placebo response since 1970.
26
What is the drug of choice in refractory schizophrenia?
Clozapine ## Footnote Despite not being universally recognized as such due to trial biases.
27
Name two common adverse effects associated with both FGAs and SGAs.
* Weight gain * Dyslipidaemia
28
Adverse effects are a common reason for what in antipsychotic treatment?
Treatment discontinuation
29
Fill in the blank: The Glasgow Antipsychotic Side-effect Scale (GASS) is a __________.
patient-completed checklist
30
What advantage do depot/long-acting injectable antipsychotics (LAIs) provide?
Guaranteed medication delivery ## Footnote This reduces the risk of relapse and rehospitalisation compared to oral antipsychotics.
31
True or False: The optimal dose of flupentixol is around 40mg every 2 weeks.
True
32
What is recommended for patients whose symptoms do not respond to trials of two or more antipsychotic drugs?
Clozapine ## Footnote This recommendation is supported by NICE and other schizophrenia guidelines.
33
What should be one of the two drugs used before considering clozapine?
Olanzapine
34
According to one trial, continuation with which drug was found to be as effective as switching to olanzapine?
Amisulpride
35
What is a common issue with patient reports of adverse effects?
Patients do not always spontaneously report adverse effects
36
What is the role of systematic enquiry and physical examination in assessing adverse effects?
To accurately assess their presence and severity
37
What is the purpose of the Antipsychotic Non-Neurological Side-Effects Rating Scale?
To facilitate more detailed and comprehensive assessment of adverse effects
38
What is the recommended approach for dosing antipsychotics?
The lowest possible dose should be used and titrated to the lowest known effective dose. ## Footnote Dose increases should occur only after 1–2 weeks of assessment.
39
How long do plasma levels of long-acting injectables (LAIs) rise after initiation?
Plasma levels rise for at least 6–12 weeks after initiation. ## Footnote This rise occurs even without a change in dose.
40
What should be the first-line treatment for relapse prevention in schizophrenia?
Long-acting injectables (LAIs) should be used as first-line treatment aimed at preventing relapse. ## Footnote They should not be reserved only for those who have already relapsed on oral treatment.
41
When should clozapine be prescribed?
Clozapine should be offered as soon as treatment resistance is apparent. ## Footnote The sooner clozapine is prescribed, the more effective it will be.
42
What is generally recommended regarding the use of antipsychotic medications?
The use of a single antipsychotic is recommended for the majority of patients. ## Footnote Antipsychotic polypharmacy should generally be avoided due to increased adverse effects.
43
Under what circumstances should combinations of antipsychotics be used?
Combinations should only be used when response to a single antipsychotic has been inadequate. ## Footnote The effect on target symptoms and adverse effects should be carefully evaluated.
44
How should antipsychotics be used as sedatives?
Antipsychotics should not be used as 'when necessary' sedatives. ## Footnote Time-limited prescriptions of benzodiazepines or general sedatives are preferred.
45
What is the recommended method for assessing response to antipsychotic treatment?
Response should be assessed using recognized rating scales and documented in patients' records.
46
What should be monitored in patients receiving antipsychotics?
Close monitoring of physical health including blood pressure, pulse, ECG, plasma glucose, and plasma lipids is required.
47
What is the recommended approach when withdrawing antipsychotics?
Reduce the dose slowly in a hyperbolic regimen to minimize withdrawal symptoms and rebound psychosis.
48
What is the minimum effective dose of chlorpromazine for first-episode schizophrenia?
200 mg per day.
49
What is the minimum effective dose of haloperidol for multi-episode schizophrenia?
4 mg per day.
50
What is the minimum effective dose of olanzapine for multi-episode schizophrenia?
7.5 mg per day.
51
Fill in the blank: Antipsychotic polypharmacy should generally be _______.
avoided.
52
True or False: Antipsychotic LAIs provide better relapse protection than oral treatment.
True.
53
What should be the target dose of LAI for an individual?
The dose established to be optimal in clinical trials.
54
What is the minimum effective dose of risperidone for first-episode schizophrenia?
2 mg per day.
55
What is the minimum effective dose of quetiapine for multi-episode schizophrenia?
300 mg IR or 500 mg MR.
56
What are the long-term neurocognitive effects of olanzapine compared to low-dose haloperidol?
Olanzapine has been studied for its long-term neurocognitive effects in first-episode psychosis compared to low-dose haloperidol. ## Footnote Refer to Keefe RS et al. for detailed findings.
57
What is the efficacy of pimavanserin in Alzheimer's disease psychosis?
Pimavanserin shows efficacy in patients with more pronounced psychotic symptoms associated with Alzheimer's disease. ## Footnote See Ballard C et al. for detailed results.
58
True or False: Pimavanserin is effective for clozapine-nonresponsive refractory hallucinations and delusions.
True ## Footnote This is supported by the findings of Nasrallah HA et al.
59
What are the maximum licensed doses of chlorpromazine according to the European Medicines Agency?
The maximum licensed dose of chlorpromazine is 1000mg/day. ## Footnote Refer to the table provided for more maximum doses.
60
What is the maximum licensed dose of risperidone according to the US Food and Drug Administration?
The maximum licensed dose of risperidone is 50mg/2 weeks for the Consta formulation. ## Footnote Check the FDA guidelines for more information.
61
Fill in the blank: The maximum dose of olanzapine is _______.
20mg/day ## Footnote Refer to the European Medicines Agency guidelines.
62
What is the approximate equivalent dose of risperidone compared to chlorpromazine?
Approximately 1.5mg of risperidone is equivalent to 100mg of chlorpromazine. ## Footnote This equivalence is based on various studies.
63
List the maximum doses of two second-generation antipsychotics (SGAs) according to the European Medicines Agency.
* Clozapine: 900mg/day * Olanzapine: 20mg/day ## Footnote Refer to the tables for complete listings.
64
What are the licensed maximum doses of long-acting injections of paliperidone?
* Paliperidone palmitate 1-monthly: 150mg/month * Paliperidone palmitate 3-monthly: 525mg/3 months ## Footnote Refer to the prescribing guidelines for more details.
65
What is defined as 'high-dose' antipsychotic medication?
'High-dose' antipsychotic medication can result from the prescription of either a single antipsychotic medication at a dose above the recommended maximum or two or more antipsychotic medications concurrently that, when expressed as a percentage of their respective maximum recommended doses and added together, results in a cumulative dose of more than 100%.
66
What is the relationship between antipsychotic polypharmacy and high-dose prescribing?
In clinical practice, antipsychotic polypharmacy and prn antipsychotic medication are strongly associated with high-dose prescribing.
67
Is there evidence that high doses of antipsychotic medication are more effective than standard doses for schizophrenia?
There is no firm evidence that high doses of antipsychotic medication are any more effective than standard doses for schizophrenia.
68
What percentage of patients in the UK were prescribed high doses of antipsychotic medication according to the 2013 national audit of schizophrenia?
10% of patients were prescribed a high dose of antipsychotic medication.
69
In a 2022 audit of adult inpatients, what percentage of patients on acute adult wards were prescribed high-dose antipsychotic medication?
Just under 10% were prescribed high-dose antipsychotic medication.
70
What does the dose-response meta-analysis of antipsychotic drugs for acute schizophrenia suggest?
Efficacy appears to be optimal at relatively low doses.
71
What is the recommended dose of risperidone for optimal efficacy?
4mg/day risperidone.
72
What is the recommended dose of quetiapine for optimal efficacy?
300mg/day quetiapine.
73
What is the recommended dose of olanzapine for optimal efficacy?
10mg olanzapine.
74
What is the potential issue with prescribing higher dosages to patients with treatment-resistant schizophrenia?
Prescribing a higher dosage to increase dopamine blockade in such patients would seem to be of uncertain value.
75
What was the outcome of the meta-analysis conducted by Dold and colleagues regarding dose escalation?
There was no evidence of any benefit associated with increased dosage in patients whose schizophrenia proved unresponsive to standard-dose pharmacotherapy.
76
What did a small open study of high-dose quetiapine find?
It found modest benefits in a third of patients with refractory schizophrenia.
77
What are some common adverse effects associated with high-dose antipsychotic treatment?
* EPS * Weight gain * Sedation * Postural hypotension * Anticholinergic effects * QTc prolongation * Coronary heart disease mortality
78
True or False: High-dose antipsychotic treatment is not associated with a greater adverse-effect burden.
False
79
What should be documented when prescribing high-dose antipsychotic medication?
The decision to prescribe high dosage in the clinical notes, together with a description of the target symptoms.
80
What is the recommended practice for monitoring patients on high doses of antipsychotics?
Regular ECGs and assessment of target symptoms after 6 weeks and 3 months.
81
What should be ruled out before prescribing high doses of antipsychotic medication?
Contraindications such as ECG abnormalities and hepatic impairment.
82
Fill in the blank: The use of high-dose antipsychotic medication should be an ______ clinical practice.
[exceptional]
83
What is essential to consider before increasing the dosage of antipsychotic medication?
Adequate time for response should be allowed after each dosage increment.
84
What is the primary focus of the article?
Dose equivalence and efficacy of antipsychotic medications in treating schizophrenia ## Footnote The article reviews various studies related to antipsychotic dosing and efficacy.
85
What did Gardner DM, et al. study in 2010?
International consensus study of antipsychotic dosing ## Footnote This study aimed to establish standard dosing guidelines for antipsychotic medications.
86
True or False: There is robust evidence that combined antipsychotic medications are superior to monotherapy.
False ## Footnote Most studies indicate a lack of strong evidence supporting the efficacy of antipsychotic polypharmacy over monotherapy.
87
What factors are associated with the use of combined antipsychotic medications?
* Younger patient age * Male gender * Increased illness severity * Complexity and chronicity * Poorer functioning * Inpatient status * Diagnosis of schizophrenia ## Footnote These factors suggest that polypharmacy is often used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
88
What did the 2022 UK clinical audit reveal about combined antipsychotic medications?
The most common reason for prescribing them was insufficient response to antipsychotic monotherapy ## Footnote This highlights the challenges in treating schizophrenia effectively with single medications.
89
What did a meta-analysis of 16 RCTs find regarding augmentation with a second antipsychotic?
Lacked double-blind/high-quality evidence of efficacy ## Footnote This suggests that combining antipsychotics may not provide added benefits.
90
What are the potential benefits of antipsychotic polypharmacy?
* Lower likelihood of mortality * Reduced psychiatric hospitalizations * Improved medication adherence ## Footnote Combination therapy may offer advantages in managing schizophrenia despite the lack of clear superiority.
91
What is a common adverse effect associated with combined antipsychotic medications?
* Increased prevalence and severity of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) * Metabolic adverse effects * Sexual dysfunction * Prolonged QTc interval * Increased risk of hip fracture ## Footnote These adverse effects are critical considerations in treatment planning.
92
What did a 10-year prospective study find regarding polypharmacy in schizophrenia?
Receiving more than one antipsychotic medication concurrently was associated with substantially increased mortality ## Footnote This raises concerns about the safety of polypharmacy in certain patient populations.
93
What is the role of clozapine and LAI antipsychotic preparations in treatment?
They are among the most effective monotherapies for relapse prevention in schizophrenia ## Footnote Their effectiveness may justify their use in combination therapies.
94
What did a follow-up study of 99 patients with schizophrenia over 25 years find about those prescribed three antipsychotics?
Those prescribed three antipsychotics simultaneously were twice as likely to die as those prescribed only one. ## Footnote This suggests a potential risk associated with polypharmacy.
95
What is recommended regarding documentation when prescribing combined antipsychotics?
It should be standard practice to document the rationale for prescribing combined antipsychotics and a clear account of benefits and adverse effects. ## Footnote This is considered prudent from a medicolegal standpoint.
96
What are some clinical disadvantages of antipsychotic polypharmacy?
* Increased adverse-effect burden * Higher total dosage * Increased risk of drug-drug interactions * Poorer medication adherence * Difficulty in attributing response to individual medications ## Footnote These disadvantages complicate determining optimal long-term regimens.
97
What is the general consensus across treatment guidelines regarding combined antipsychotic medication for refractory psychotic illness?
It should be considered only after other evidence-based pharmacological treatments, such as clozapine, have been exhausted. ## Footnote This consensus is not consistently followed in clinical practice.
98
What is a potentially supportable practice regarding clozapine?
Clozapine augmentation with a second antipsychotic medication to enhance efficacy. ## Footnote This strategy is discussed in the chapter on optimizing clozapine treatment.
99
What rationale is there for adding aripiprazole to clozapine treatment?
* To reduce body weight * To normalize prolactin levels ## Footnote While findings on resolving hyperprolactinaemia are generally positive, they are not entirely consistent.
100
True or False: Polypharmacy with aripiprazole is considered an evidence-based practice.
True. ## Footnote This is noted despite the absence of regulatory trials demonstrating safety.
101
Fill in the blank: The use of aripiprazole alone might be a more logical choice in some cases, especially when considering _______.
[safety and efficacy] ## Footnote This consideration is important in the context of treatment decisions.
102
What is the recommendation regarding the routine use of combined, non-clozapine antipsychotic medications?
It is probably best avoided ## Footnote This recommendation is based on evidence relating to efficacy and potential serious adverse effects.
103
What should patients prescribed combined antipsychotic medications be systematically monitored for?
Adverse effects ## Footnote This includes monitoring with an ECG and documenting any beneficial effects on symptoms.
104
What do the BAP guidelines focus on regarding antipsychotic drug treatment?
Management of weight gain, metabolic disturbances, and cardiovascular risk associated with psychosis ## Footnote These guidelines were published in J Psychopharmacol in 2016.
105
What is the general recommendation regarding antipsychotic prescriptions after a first episode of schizophrenia?
Prescribed for 1–2 years ## Footnote There is a consensus on this duration of treatment.
106
What did a study find about relapse rates after withdrawing antipsychotic treatment?
Almost 80% after 1 year medication-free and 98% after 2 years ## Footnote This indicates the importance of continued treatment.
107
What was the finding of a 2019 Swedish population study regarding antipsychotic treatment duration?
Longer treatment leads to lower hospitalization risk ## Footnote Patients treated for 5 years had half the hospitalization rate of those treated for less than 6 months.
108
What percentage of patients with first-episode schizophrenia relapsed within 2 years of stopping risperidone long-acting injection?
94% ## Footnote This highlights the risks associated with discontinuation.
109
What is a notable effect of clozapine compared to chlorpromazine in the treatment of first-episode non-refractory schizophrenia?
No advantage in the medium term ## Footnote This conclusion is based on RCT findings.
110
What is the risk of suicide attempts among those with schizophrenia?
10% concentrated in the first decade of illness ## Footnote This emphasizes the severity of the condition in early stages.
111
What does the use of long-acting antipsychotic injections provide advantages over?
Oral antipsychotics ## Footnote This is likely due to better adherence and medication delivery.
112
What did meta-analyses show regarding the risk of relapse with depot maintenance treatment compared to oral treatment?
30% relative and 10% absolute risk lower ## Footnote This indicates the effectiveness of depot formulations.
113
What is a significant finding regarding adherence to antipsychotic treatment among patients with schizophrenia?
High non-adherence rates, up to 75% at 2 years ## Footnote This dramatically increases the risk of relapse.
114
What is the recommended dose for prophylaxis in schizophrenia treatment?
5mg/day risperidone equivalents ## Footnote Doses below this may lead to loss of prophylactic efficacy.
115
What is recommended when deciding to stop antipsychotic drugs?
A thorough risk–benefit analysis for each patient.
116
What should be the approach to withdrawal of antipsychotic drugs after long-term treatment?
It should be gradual and closely monitored.
117
What is the relapse rate in the first 6 months after abrupt withdrawal compared to gradual withdrawal?
Double that seen after gradual withdrawal.
118
What factors should be considered before stopping antipsychotic medication?
* Is the patient symptom-free? * Severity of adverse effects * Previous pattern of illness * Previous dosage reduction attempts * Current social circumstances * Social cost of relapse * Ability to monitor symptoms
119
What are some potential discontinuation symptoms of abrupt withdrawal of oral treatment?
* Headache * Nausea * Insomnia
120
What is the concept of 'super-sensitivity psychosis'?
A hypothesis suggesting that relapse on withdrawal may be due to super-sensitivity of dopamine receptors.
121
What should clinicians consider regarding long-term antipsychotic treatment?
The possibility that it may worsen or not improve outcomes in some patients.
122
Fill in the blank: The relapse rate is much longer for _______ than for 1-monthly and oral treatments.
3-monthly paliperidone
123
What is emphasized regarding the dosage of antipsychotics?
The need to use the lowest possible dose.
124
What might abrupt discontinuation of antipsychotics lead to?
Withdrawal reactions and high relapse rates.
125
What is the importance of monitoring symptoms for patients and carers?
To identify early signs of relapse and seek help.
126
What is the potential impact of stress on a patient's decision to stop medication?
Stressful life events can affect the decision and the likelihood of relapse.
127
What should be the duration of gradual withdrawal for oral antipsychotics?
At least 3 weeks.
128
What has research suggested about outcomes in patients with first-episode schizophrenia receiving lower doses?
They may have better outcomes.
129
What is a significant concern regarding long-term studies of antipsychotic treatment?
Rebound phenomena and withdrawal reactions may account for high relapse rates.
130
What should be the approach for patients with a history of aggressive behavior or serious suicide attempts?
Consideration for life-long treatment.
131
What do negative symptoms in schizophrenia represent?
The absence or diminution of normal behaviours and functions.
132
What are the two subdomains of negative symptoms in schizophrenia?
* Expressive deficits * Avolition/amotivation
133
What characterizes the expressive deficits subdomain of negative symptoms?
Decreased verbal output, verbal expressiveness, and flattened affect.
134
What is avolition/amotivation in the context of negative symptoms?
A subjective reduction in interests, desires, and goals, along with a behavioral reduction in purposeful acts.
135
What percentage of patients with established schizophrenia exhibit prominent negative symptoms?
Around 60%.
136
What percentage of patients with established schizophrenia are judged to have persistent, primary negative symptoms?
Up to 20%.
137
What is the distinction between primary and secondary negative symptoms?
* Primary negative symptoms: enduring deficit state, stable over time * Secondary negative symptoms: result from other factors like positive psychotic symptoms or medication effects
138
What are some potential sources of secondary negative symptoms?
* Chronic substance or alcohol use * High-dose antipsychotic medication * Social deprivation * Lack of stimulation * Hospitalization
139
What is a key factor in the pharmacological treatment of negative symptoms?
Determining the most likely cause of negative symptoms in individual cases.
140
What has been shown about antipsychotic medication and negative symptoms?
It can improve negative symptoms, primarily in secondary negative symptoms during acute psychotic episodes.
141
True or False: There is consistent evidence for the superiority of SGAs over FGAs in treating negative symptoms.
False.
142
Which antipsychotics have shown superior efficacy for negative symptoms?
* Cariprazine * Aripiprazole * Amisulpride
143
What is the only medication with convincing superiority for treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS)?
Clozapine.
144
What has been suggested about the addition of cariprazine for patients treated with clozapine who have residual negative symptoms?
It may help improve those symptoms.
145
What did a 2006 Cochrane review conclude about antidepressant augmentation for negative symptoms?
It may be an effective strategy for reducing affective flattening, alogia, and avolition.
146
What SSRIs have shown beneficial effects in treating negative symptoms?
* Fluvoxamine * Citalopram
147
Fill in the blank: Persistent negative symptoms contribute significantly to long-term _______ and poor functional outcome in schizophrenia.
[morbidity]
148
Name some experimental treatments with promising data.
* Pregnenolone * Raloxifene (in women) * Levetiracetam * Clonidine * Nanocurcumin * Xanomeline (as Cobenfy) * Berberine * Fingolimod
149
What are the findings regarding repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS)?
The findings are mixed but promising.
150
What potential does transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS) have?
Some potential as a treatment for negative symptoms, but evidence is limited.
151
True or False: Patients who misuse psychoactive substances report more severe negative symptoms.
False.
152
What is the main recommendation regarding the treatment of psychotic illness?
Identify and treat psychotic illness as early as possible for better outcomes.
153
What should be ensured when negative symptoms persist beyond an acute episode of psychosis?
* Detect and treat EPS (specifically bradykinesia) and depression * Consider the contribution of the environment to negative symptoms
154
What is the current evidence for specific pharmacological treatments for negative symptoms?
Insufficient evidence to support any specific pharmacological treatment.
155
Fill in the blank: The antipsychotic medication that provides the best balance between overall efficacy and adverse effects should be used at the _______.
[lowest dose that maintains control of positive symptoms]
156
What should be considered when choosing an augmenting agent?
Minimizing potential for compounding adverse effects through pharmacokinetic or pharmacodynamic drug interactions.
157
What should be done if neutrophils fall below 1.5×10^9/L in patients on antipsychotics?
Stop suspect medication ## Footnote Unless the patient is diagnosed with benign ethnic neutropenia (BEN).
158
What is the frequency for monitoring blood lipids in patients receiving antipsychotics?
Baseline, at 3 months, then yearly ## Footnote This is to detect antipsychotic-induced changes.
159
Which medications require FBC monitoring weekly for 18 weeks?
Clozapine ## Footnote This is to monitor for potential bone marrow suppression.
160
What is the significance of monitoring weight in patients on antipsychotics?
To detect antipsychotic-induced changes and monitor physical health ## Footnote Frequent monitoring is advised for early intervention.
161
What actions should be taken if weight gain is detected in patients on antipsychotics?
Offer lifestyle advice, consider changing antipsychotic medication, dietary, or pharmacological intervention
162
Which antipsychotics are frequently associated with weight gain?
Clozapine, olanzapine ## Footnote Monitoring is recommended every 3 months for the first year, then yearly.
163
What is the suggested frequency for monitoring plasma glucose in patients on antipsychotics?
Baseline, at 4–6 months, then yearly
164
What should be done if abnormal plasma glucose levels are detected?
Offer lifestyle advice, obtain fasting sample or non-fasting and HbA1C, refer to GP or specialist
165
Which medications require ECG monitoring?
Haloperidol, pimozide, sertindole ## Footnote ECG is mandatory for these medications.
166
When should blood pressure be monitored in patients taking antipsychotics?
Baseline and then frequently during dose titration and after dosage changes
167
What are the actions to take if severe hypotension is observed in a patient taking clozapine?
Slow rate of titration, consider switching to another antipsychotic if symptomatic postural hypotension
168
What is the recommended monitoring frequency for prolactin levels?
Baseline, at 6 months, then yearly
169
Which antipsychotics are particularly associated with hyperprolactinaemia?
Amisulpride, sulpiride, risperidone, paliperidone
170
What action should be taken if liver function tests indicate hepatitis?
Stop suspect medication
171
What is the recommended monitoring for creatinine kinase?
Baseline, then if neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is suspected
172
What adverse effects are associated with clozapine and chlorpromazine?
Hepatic failure
173
What should be monitored yearly in patients on quetiapine?
Thyroid function tests
174
What is the first step in the treatment algorithm for antipsychotic medication?
Agree the choice of antipsychotic medication with patient and/or carer
175
What should be done if no effect is observed by 2–3 weeks of treatment?
Increase the dose or change the drug
176
What is the benefit of using depot/long-acting injections in schizophrenia?
Relapse and readmission rates are vastly reduced by early use
177
What is the typical time frame to observe improvement after receiving an effective dose of medication?
2–3 weeks ## Footnote Most improvement occurs during this period.
178
What should be done if no effect is observed by 2–3 weeks?
Increase the dose or change the drug.
179
What is the impact of early use of depot/long-acting injections on relapse and readmission rates?
They are vastly reduced.
180
What is more likely to be successful than any other treatment in early cases?
Early use of clozapine.
181
What is the consequence of delaying the use of clozapine?
Diminished response to clozapine.
182
What should be assessed over 6–8 weeks in the treatment of first-episode schizophrenia?
Medication choice and effectiveness.
183
What should be considered if treatment is ineffective after initial trials?
Switch to clozapine.
184
How do first-generation antipsychotics compare in efficacy to second-generation antipsychotics?
They may be slightly less efficacious.
185
What is the recommended use of first-generation antipsychotics?
Second- or third-line use.
186
What factors should influence the choice of antipsychotic medication?
Comparative adverse-effect profile and relative toxicity.
187
What effect does allowing patients to make informed choices have on treatment outcomes?
It seems to improve outcomes.
188
Which medications may be better options than quetiapine after treatment failure?
Olanzapine or risperidone.
189
What should be ensured before considering clozapine?
Adherence to prior therapy using depot/LAI formulation or plasma drug level monitoring.
190
What is often undetected in patients taking oral antipsychotics?
Non-compliance.
191
What should be investigated when poor adherence is observed?
Reasons for poor adherence.
192
What should be done if a patient is forgetful or disorganized?
Consider compliance aids.
193
What is a characteristic of first-generation antipsychotics?
Associated with acute EPS and hyperprolactinaemia.
194
What is the therapeutic index like for haloperidol compared to olanzapine?
Haloperidol has a narrow therapeutic index, while olanzapine has a wide range.
195
What is the benefit of the NbN classification system?
Describes drugs by their pharmacological activity.
196
What does NbN stand for in the context of psychotropic medications?
Neuroscience-Based Nomenclature ## Footnote NbN is a classification system that describes individual drugs by their pharmacological activity rather than traditional classifications.
197
What is a limitation of the NbN classification system?
It preselects specific pharmacological features while ignoring others ## Footnote This is based on expert opinions about essential features for drug action.
198
What approach was proposed in 2023 for classifying antipsychotic drugs?
A data-driven approach based on in vitro binding profiles ## Footnote This approach identifies clusters of effects by receptor affinity.
199
What are the four clusters of effects identified in the data-driven approach?
* High affinity for muscarinic receptors * Low antagonism of dopamine D2 receptor * Serotonergic antagonism * Pure dopaminergic antagonism
200
Why might the data-driven approach have a disadvantage?
All receptors are assigned equal importance regardless of their clinical impact ## Footnote This could lead to overlooking receptors that have a significant influence on drug effects.
201
What role do first-generation antipsychotics (FGAs) still play in treatment?
FGAs are often used as 'when necessary' medications ## Footnote Haloperidol is a common choice, and depot preparations are still prescribed.
202
Under what circumstances might FGAs be preferred over SGAs?
* Poor tolerance of SGAs due to metabolic changes * Patient preference for FGAs
203
What are the main drawbacks of FGAs?
* Acute EPS * Hyperprolactinaemia * Tardive dyskinesia (TD)
204
Which SGAs are noted to increase prolactin levels more than FGAs?
* Risperidone * Paliperidone * Amisulpride
205
How does the risk of tardive dyskinesia (TD) compare between FGAs and SGAs?
TD occurs more frequently with FGAs than SGAs ## Footnote However, the risk can vary based on the dose of FGA used.
206
Which type of SGA is associated with the lowest risk of TD?
Partial agonists
207
What factors should be considered when choosing antipsychotic medication according to NICE guidelines?
Relative potential to cause adverse effects, views of the carer, and service user's preferences ## Footnote Adverse effects include extrapyramidal effects, cardiovascular issues, and metabolic changes.
208
What is the recommended approach to starting antipsychotic medication?
Thorough assessment of physical health and starting at the lower end of the licensed range ## Footnote Titration should be slow and based on clinical guidelines.
209
What is the duration for monitoring physical health after starting antipsychotic medication?
For 1 year or until the patient is stable ## Footnote This monitoring includes various health parameters such as weight, blood pressure, and glucose levels.
210
What is the recommendation for treatment-resistant schizophrenia?
Offer clozapine after inadequate response to two different antipsychotic drugs ## Footnote Clozapine is often considered for patients who do not respond to standard treatments.
211
What is a common clinical dilemma in treating schizophrenia?
Deciding whether to increase the dose, switch medications, add adjunctive therapy, or monitor ## Footnote This dilemma often arises when current treatment is suboptimal.
212
What dosage of lurasidone was suggested as the most effective in treating acute schizophrenia?
160mg/day. ## Footnote This conclusion came from a network meta-analysis.
213
What was the outcome of comparing doses of olanzapine in a randomized study?
No additional benefit was found with 40mg compared to 10mg, but there was a greater adverse-effect burden. ## Footnote Adverse effects included weight gain and raised plasma prolactin levels.
214
What did early studies of risperidone show regarding higher doses?
No additional benefit with higher doses, but increased risk of adverse effects. ## Footnote Adverse effects included extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) and raised plasma prolactin.
215
What is the significance of the dose of haloperidol in older studies?
8mg/day is the dose above which no additional benefit is seen. ## Footnote This finding aligns with studies on other antipsychotics.
216
True or False: The likelihood of inducing EPSEs is constrained by dose.
False. ## Footnote The frequency of EPS increases at doses beyond standard or high doses.
217
What treatment options are available for schizophrenia poorly responsive to standard antipsychotic treatment?
Trial of clozapine, switching to another antipsychotic, or adding another antipsychotic. ## Footnote Clozapine is the preferred option if criteria are met.
218
What percentage of patients meeting criteria for TRS had not received clozapine in a UK audit?
40%. ## Footnote This audit included around 5,000 patients across 60 NHS trusts.
219
What is often a reason for patients to decline clozapine treatment?
Averse to mandatory blood testing and adverse effects. ## Footnote Regular appointments are also a factor.
220
What has been found about switching antipsychotic medications?
Data on switching are sparse and can be associated with destabilisation and adverse effects. ## Footnote The management of a switch is not entirely clear.
221
What did the CATIE trial examine regarding antipsychotic switching?
Participants whose illness failed to respond to one SGA were assigned to a different SGA. ## Footnote Switching to olanzapine or risperidone was more effective than quetiapine or ziprasidone.
222
Which antipsychotics were found to be superior to FGAs in efficacy?
Amisulpride, risperidone, and olanzapine. ## Footnote Clozapine was also noted for its superior efficacy.
223
What is the common strategy chosen when adding another antipsychotic?
To increase efficacy when monotherapy at standard dosage is insufficient. ## Footnote The majority of patients may receive a second antipsychotic for this reason.
224
What should be considered if the dose of antipsychotic medication has been optimized?
Consider watchful waiting. ## Footnote This approach is a part of managing treatment failure.
225
If increasing the antipsychotic dose fails, what should be the next steps?
Switch to olanzapine or risperidone, then use clozapine if these fail. ## Footnote Supporting evidence for clozapine is very strong.
226
What should be done if clozapine fails?
Use time-limited augmentation strategies ## Footnote Supporting evidence for augmentation strategies is variable.
227
Does antipsychotic polypharmacy increase hospitalization rates for physical or cardiovascular illness?
No, at a population level, it does not appear to increase hospitalization rates ## Footnote This finding is based on evidence from multiple studies.
228
What do most RCT evidence suggest about switching from antipsychotic polypharmacy to monotherapy?
It can be safely switched back without symptom exacerbation in the majority of patients.
229
What non-pharmacological means can enhance patient well-being?
* Engagement in case management * Targeted psychological treatments * Vocational rehabilitation
230
True or False: Staying with the current medication regimen can sometimes do less harm than aimless switching.
True
231
What is a common recourse when switching to monotherapy results in a return of symptoms?
A return to the original polypharmacy regimen.
232
What is the outcome of switching to monotherapy regarding attention and processing speed?
It can improve attention and processing speed.
233
What is the aim of the treatment strategies discussed in the guidelines?
To enhance patient well-being and manage symptoms effectively.
234
What psychological factors can lead to aggressive behavior in patients?
Persecutory delusions or hallucinations (auditory, visual, or tactile).
235
What is rapid tranquillisation (RT)?
A clinical practice used when appropriate psychological and behavioral approaches have failed to de-escalate acutely disturbed behavior.
236
What type of treatments have shown efficacy in managing acute agitation?
Oral and inhaled second-generation antipsychotics (SGAs).
237
What is the risk associated with inhaled loxapine?
It is restricted in many countries due to the risk of bronchospasm.
238
Which parenteral medications have large RCTs supported for efficacy?
IM preparations of olanzapine, ziprasidone, and aripiprazole.
239
How does IM olanzapine compare to IM haloperidol in terms of effectiveness?
IM olanzapine is more effective than IM haloperidol.
240
What did Cochrane conclude about haloperidol in managing acute behavioral disturbance?
Haloperidol is effective but poorly tolerated; co-administration of promethazine improves tolerability.
241
True or False: IM olanzapine is associated with a higher incidence of extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs) compared to IM haloperidol.
False.
242
What is the suggested treatment for patients who are behaviorally disturbed due to acute intoxication?
Combination treatment, most commonly haloperidol and lorazepam.
243
What should be avoided in the treatment of agitation?
Haloperidol alone.
244
Fill in the blank: Second-line treatments for agitation are combinations of _______ and antipsychotics.
benzodiazepines
245
What are some practical measures for managing disturbed behavior in patients?
De-escalation, time out, seclusion, increased nursing levels, transfer to a psychiatric intensive care unit.
246
What are some nursing interventions that may be employed?
* De-escalation * Time out * Seclusion * Increased nursing levels * Transfer to psychiatric intensive care unit * Pharmacological management
247
What are the three aims of rapid tranquillisation (RT)?
* To reduce suffering for the patient * To reduce risk of harm to others * To do no harm
248
What should be avoided during rapid tranquillisation regarding antipsychotic drugs?
Concomitant use of two or more antipsychotics (antipsychotic polypharmacy)
249
What is Zuclopenthixol acetate best known as?
Acuphase
250
What is the elimination half-life of Zuclopenthixol acetate?
Around 20 hours
251
What is the duration of action for IM injection of Zuclopenthixol base?
12–24 hours
252
What is the effect of esterification on Zuclopenthixol acetate?
It slows absorption and makes the duration of action dependent on the rate of release from the IM reservoir
253
What was the conclusion of the initial pharmacokinetic study of Zuclopenthixol acetate?
Zuclopenthixol was detectable in plasma after 1–2 hours, but peak concentrations were not reached until around 36 hours after dosing
254
What were the most commonly reported adverse effects of Zuclopenthixol acetate?
* Dystonia * Rigidity
255
When should Zuclopenthixol acetate be used?
Only after an acutely psychotic patient has required repeated injections of short-acting antipsychotic drugs
256
What should be monitored after the administration of parenteral medication?
* Levels of consciousness * Physical health
257
What is the recommended dose of Olanzapine for patients not on regular antipsychotics?
10mg
258
What should be done if two doses of treatment fail in a patient?
Consider IM treatment
259
What is the maximum daily dose of Promethazine?
100mg
260
What should be monitored every 15 minutes after parenteral drug administration?
* Temperature * Pulse * Blood pressure * Respiratory rate
261
What is the recommended action for acute dystonia during rapid tranquillisation?
Give procyclidine 5–10mg IM or IV
262
What is the risk associated with hypokalaemia in patients receiving parenteral antipsychotics?
Increased risk of cardiac arrhythmia
263
What should be given if benzodiazepine-induced respiratory depression is suspected?
Flumazenil ## Footnote Flumazenil is indicated for respiratory depression after lorazepam, midazolam, or diazepam administration.
264
What is the initial dose of flumazenil for respiratory depression?
200 mcg intravenously over 15 seconds ## Footnote If consciousness is not achieved within 60 seconds, a subsequent dose may be given.
265
What are the contraindications for flumazenil?
Patients with epilepsy on long-term benzodiazepines ## Footnote Caution is also required in hepatic impairment.
266
What is the maximum dose of flumazenil in 24 hours?
1 mg ## Footnote This includes one initial dose and up to eight subsequent doses.
267
What should be monitored continuously after administering flumazenil?
Respiratory rate ## Footnote Monitoring should continue until respiratory rate returns to baseline.
268
What is a potential adverse effect of flumazenil?
Agitation, anxiety, or seizures ## Footnote These effects may occur particularly in regular benzodiazepine users.
269
What should be done if respiratory rate does not return to normal after flumazenil administration?
Assume sedation is from some other cause ## Footnote This indicates that further evaluation is necessary.
270
What is indicated by a fall in blood pressure greater than 30 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure below 50 mmHg?
Immediate referral to specialist medical care ## Footnote The patient should lie flat and the bed should be tilted towards the head.
271
What should be monitored when there is an increased temperature in a patient?
Creatine kinase ## Footnote There is a risk of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) and arrhythmias.
272
True or False: Flumazenil has a longer half-life than diazepam.
False ## Footnote Flumazenil has a much shorter half-life than diazepam.
273
What is the subsequent dose of flumazenil if the required level of consciousness is not achieved after the initial dose?
100 mcg over 15 seconds ## Footnote This can be repeated after 60 seconds if necessary.
274
What is the risk associated with increased temperature in patients treated with antipsychotics?
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) ## Footnote It may lead to arrhythmias as well.
275
What is the time interval before flumazenil can be repeated after administration?
60 seconds ## Footnote This is crucial to avoid complications.
276
How does the frequency of doses affect relapse rates in patients receiving LAI antipsychotics?
Patients receiving 10 doses or fewer a year are at a higher risk of relapse compared to those receiving more frequent doses. ## Footnote Consistent, timely administration of LAIs is crucial for preventing relapse.
277
What is a significant advantage of LAI antipsychotic medications over oral medications?
LAIs ensure clinical awareness of adherence, allowing timely intervention for potential relapses. ## Footnote They help differentiate between treatment resistance and adherence issues.
278
What should be considered before administering LAI antipsychotic medications?
* Test doses for FGAs * Previous treatment with oral formulations * Patient history of adverse effects ## Footnote Test doses help assess sensitivity to adverse effects and ensure safe administration.
279
What is advised regarding the initial dosing of LAI antipsychotic medications?
Begin with the lowest therapeutic dose to ensure safety and efficacy. ## Footnote Low doses may be as effective as higher doses with fewer adverse effects.
280
What is the recommended dosing interval for LAI antipsychotic medications?
Administer at the longest possible licensed interval to avoid discomfort and pain from injections. ## Footnote There is no evidence that shortening dosing intervals improves efficacy.
281
How should dose adjustments be approached with LAI antipsychotic medications?
Adjust doses only after an adequate assessment period, usually at least one month. ## Footnote Peak plasma levels and therapeutic effects may take weeks to months to stabilize.
282
True or False: LAI antipsychotic medications guarantee adherence to treatment.
False ## Footnote While LAIs help monitor adherence, they do not ensure it.
283
What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) in relation to LAI antipsychotic medication?
A serious adverse effect that requires caution when administering LAIs. ## Footnote Patients with a history of NMS should avoid LAIs.
284
What is the purpose of administering a test dose of LAI FGAs?
To assess the patient's sensitivity to extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) and the base oil used in the formulation. ## Footnote This helps in preventing severe adverse reactions.
285
What is a major factor influencing the prescription of LAI antipsychotics across different countries?
Factors beyond poor adherence, including clinician reluctance and patient acceptance. ## Footnote Some studies suggest that patients are generally willing to accept long-acting treatments.
286
What is the significance of understanding factors influencing LAI prescription?
It helps identify barriers to optimal implementation of LAI treatments. ## Footnote Understanding these factors can improve patient outcomes.
287
What is the initial plasma level response of LAI antipsychotic medications compared to oral antipsychotics?
Plasma levels are delayed with LAI antipsychotic medications
288
What should be done if adverse effects occur with LAI antipsychotics?
Doses may be reduced but should only be increased after careful assessment over at least 1 month
289
How long does it take to achieve steady state with LAI antipsychotic medications?
Steady state is achieved after at least 6–8 weeks
290
Is it logical to increase doses during the initial period of LAI antipsychotic treatment?
No, dose increases during this initial period are illogical and impossible to evaluate properly
291
What is recommended during continued LAI antipsychotic treatment?
Monitoring and recording of therapeutic efficacy, adverse effects, and impact on physical health
292
What is a potential risk of adding an oral antipsychotic medication to LAI antipsychotic treatment?
It risks a high-dose prescription
293
What was once common with LAI FGAs?
The regular prescription of an oral antipsychotic medication in addition to an LAI antipsychotic preparation
294
What is uncertain about the co-prescription of LAI and oral antipsychotic medications?
The safety and tolerability of such a combination over the longer term
295
What findings did a 2021 network meta-analysis conclude about LAI formulations?
Paliperidone (3-month), aripiprazole, olanzapine, and paliperidone (1-month) had the largest effect sizes for relapse prevention
296
Which LAI SGAs have comparable efficacy but vary in liability for adverse effects?
Aripiprazole, paliperidone, risperidone, and olanzapine
297
Which LAI is associated with substantial increases in serum prolactin?
LAI paliperidone
298
What adverse effect can LAI olanzapine cause?
Significant weight gain and post-injection delirium/sedation syndrome
299
What is the dosing interval for flupentixol decanoate?
Every 4 weeks
300
What is the maximum licensed dose for flupentixol decanoate?
High relative to other LAIs
301
What is the dosing interval for paliperidone palmitate (3-month)?
Every 3 months
302
What should be established before administering LAI?
Tolerability and response to the oral preparation
303
What is the relationship between zuclopenthixol dosing and licensing?
500mg every week is licensed whereas 1000mg every 2 weeks is not
304
What is the main focus of the research by Bailey L et al. in 2019?
Estimating the optimal dose of flupentixol decanoate in the maintenance treatment of schizophrenia ## Footnote Systematic review of the literature
305
What does the study by Uchida H et al. in 2008 investigate?
Monthly administration of long-acting injectable risperidone and striatal dopamine D2 receptor occupancy for managing schizophrenia
306
What did the study by Ikai S et al. in 2016 focus on?
Plasma levels and estimated dopamine D(2) receptor occupancy of long-acting injectable risperidone during maintenance treatment of schizophrenia
307
What was observed in the study by Hill AL et al. in 2011 regarding olanzapine long-acting injection?
Dose-associated changes in safety and efficacy parameters during a 24-week maintenance trial
308
What type of reactions did Jones JC et al. investigate in their 1998 study?
Depot neuroleptic injection site reactions
309
What did Zolezzi M et al. review in 2021?
Systematic review of the non-systemic adverse effect profile of long-acting injectable antipsychotics
310
What was the focus of Coppola D et al.'s 2012 study?
Safety, tolerability, and pharmacokinetics of the highest available dose of paliperidone palmitate in patients with schizophrenia
311
What did Mallikaarjun S et al. study in 2013 regarding aripiprazole?
Pharmacokinetics, tolerability, and safety of aripiprazole once-monthly in adult schizophrenia
312
What does Paton C et al.'s 2021 study focus on?
Side-effect monitoring of continuing LAI antipsychotic medication in UK adult mental health services
313
What aspect of antipsychotic treatment did Doshi JA et al. explore in 2015?
Concurrent oral antipsychotic drug use among schizophrenia patients initiated on long-acting injectable antipsychotics post-hospital discharge
314
What practical considerations did Correll CU et al. discuss in 2019?
Managing breakthrough psychosis and symptomatic worsening in patients with schizophrenia on long-acting injectable antipsychotics
315
What was the conclusion of Ostuzzi G et al.'s 2021 meta-analysis?
Maintenance treatment with long-acting injectable antipsychotics for people with nonaffective psychoses
316
What does Jann MW et al.'s 2018 update compare?
Long-acting injectable second-generation antipsychotics
317
What is the focus of Correll CU et al. in their 2016 review?
Evaluating the evidence for the use of long-acting injectable antipsychotics in schizophrenia
318
What did Nussbaum AM et al. conclude about paliperidone palmitate in 2012?
Review of paliperidone palmitate for schizophrenia
319
What did Sampson S et al.'s 2016 study review?
Risperidone (depot) for schizophrenia
320
What is the focus of Citrome L's 2009 article?
Olanzapine pamoate: a stick in time?
321
What did Luedecke D et al. study in 2015?
Post-injection delirium/sedation syndrome in patients treated with olanzapine pamoate
322
What does Harrison TS et al.'s review in 2004 discuss?
Long-acting risperidone for schizophrenia
323
What clinical aspect does Knox ED et al.'s review cover?
Clinical review of a long-acting, injectable formulation of risperidone
324
What is the time to peak for Aripiprazole (Abilify Maintena)?
1–3 days
325
What is the plasma half-life of Flupentixol decanoate?
4–7 days
326
What is the time to steady state for Olanzapine pamoate?
~12 weeks
327
Fill in the blank: The time to peak for Risperidone extended-release injectable suspension is _______.
3–6 days
328
True or False: The attainment of steady state levels is dependent on dose and dosing frequency.
False
329
What is the time to steady state for Paliperidone palmitate (3-monthly)?
~52 weeks
330
What is the importance of long-term follow-up for patients on maintenance LAI antipsychotic treatment?
Essential for reviewing treatment and progress at least once a year ## Footnote This includes systematic assessment of efficacy, tolerability, and safety of the medication.
331
What adverse effects should be assessed in patients receiving LAI antipsychotic medication?
Cardiovascular and metabolic adverse effects, and EPS (parkinsonism, akathisia, TD) ## Footnote EPS stands for extrapyramidal symptoms.
332
Is the risk of tardive dyskinesia (TD) different between LAI and oral antipsychotic medications?
Uncertain; the risk does not appear different when comparing LAI and oral formulations of the same antipsychotic ## Footnote TD is a serious movement disorder often associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications.
333
What should be considered before reducing the dose of LAI antipsychotic treatment?
Individual circumstances, severity of illness, risk of relapse, treatment response, and social situation ## Footnote This includes factors like symptom-free duration, severity of adverse effects, and previous dosage reduction attempts.
334
What is the recommended maximum dose reduction for LAI antipsychotics at one time?
No more than a third of the previous dose ## Footnote Reductions should be monitored closely to avoid relapse.
335
When should the interval between injections be increased before reducing the dose?
To 4 weeks ## Footnote This is to ensure stable plasma levels before dose reduction.
336
True or False: Discontinuation of medication should be seen as the ultimate aim of the dose reduction process.
False ## Footnote The process may sometimes result in discontinuation, but that is not the primary goal.
337
What is the effect of longer half-lives of LAI antipsychotics on relapse after discontinuation?
Relapse may be delayed compared with oral equivalents ## Footnote This is likely due to longer exposure and prolonged dopamine receptor blockade.
338
What is the benefit of an intermittent, targeted treatment approach with antipsychotic medication?
It may be preferable to no treatment, although not as effective as continuous treatment ## Footnote This approach is often considered in cases where continuous treatment is not feasible.
339
What is the recommended duration for the oral aripiprazole run-in before starting aripiprazole LAI?
14 days ## Footnote This is to establish tolerability and response before initiating LAI.
340
What are the two regimens for administering the starting dose of aripiprazole LAI?
One-injection start and two-injection start ## Footnote Each regimen involves different methods for maintaining therapeutic aripiprazole concentrations.
341
What should be done if a patient becomes symptomatic after a dose reduction of antipsychotic medication?
This should inform the determination of the minimum effective dose for that patient ## Footnote Monitoring symptoms helps tailor ongoing treatment.
342
In a study of rehospitalization risk, which antipsychotic treatment showed the lowest risk of severe relapse?
Continuing standard dose LAI ## Footnote High-dose olanzapine LAI and relatively low-dose oral perphenazine were exceptions.
343
Fill in the blank: Aripiprazole is a useful alternative to other SGA LAIs because it lacks _______.
prolactin-related and metabolic adverse effects ## Footnote This makes it a favorable option for patients.
344
What is the approval status of aripiprazole long-acting injection (ALAI) in the USA?
Approved for maintenance monotherapy in bipolar I disorder in adults ## Footnote In some countries, its use for bipolar is off-label.
345
What is the purpose of the oral overlap during the initiation of aripiprazole LAI?
To maintain therapeutic aripiprazole concentrations during initiation ## Footnote Without this, plasma levels may not be sufficient for therapeutic effects.
346
What is the initial dosage regimen for aripiprazole LAI?
Administer one injection of 400mg aripiprazole LAI and continue treatment with 10–20mg/day oral aripiprazole for 14 consecutive days. ## Footnote This regimen is for maintaining therapeutic aripiprazole concentrations during initiation.
347
What is the two-injection start regimen for aripiprazole LAI?
Administer two separate injections of 400mg aripiprazole LAI at different sites, along with one 20mg dose of oral aripiprazole. ## Footnote Oral therapy should not continue after this point.
348
How long after the one-injection plus oral starting regimen are peak plasma levels reached?
Peak plasma levels are reached 7 days post-injection. ## Footnote Trough levels occur at 4 weeks.
349
What is the equivalent daily dose of a 400mg monthly dose of aripiprazole?
15–20mg of daily aripiprazole.
350
What is the recommended dose for patients who do not tolerate 400mg of aripiprazole?
A lower dose of 300mg a month can be used.
351
What adverse events are most commonly reported with aripiprazole?
* Increased weight * Akathisia * Insomnia * Injection site pain.
352
What should be done if a second or third ALAI dose is missed and it has been more than 5 weeks since the last injection?
Give oral aripiprazole for 14 days and one dose of ALAI or give two ALAI injections at different sites plus a single dose of 20mg aripiprazole.
353
What is the maintenance treatment schedule for aripiprazole 2-month ready-to-use (Ari 2MRTU)?
Administer 960mg every 56 days into the gluteal muscle.
354
What is the initiation regimen for switching to Ari 2MRTU from oral antipsychotics?
Administer one 960mg injection and give 10–20mg oral aripiprazole for 14 consecutive days.
355
What is the equivalent dose of aripiprazole lauroxil for a 15mg daily oral dose?
1064mg Aristada for every 2 months.
356
What is the common adverse reaction associated with Aristada?
Akathisia.
357
What should be done if a maintenance dose of Ari 2MRTU is missed for more than 14 weeks?
Administer 960mg or 720mg plus oral aripiprazole for 14 days.
358
What is the starting dose for Aristada Initio?
675mg IM injection.
359
True or False: Aristada can be administered into the same muscle as Aristada Initio.
False.
360
What is the dosing interval for Aristada 441mg?
Monthly.
361
What is the recommended action if oral aripiprazole cannot be given at all?
Always use the two-injection starting regimen.
362
What is olanzapine pamoate?
A very poorly water-soluble salt ester of olanzapine
363
What is the route of administration for olanzapine LAI?
Intramuscular injection
364
What are the peak plasma levels seen after olanzapine LAI injection?
Within 1 week, most commonly within 2–4 days
365
How often is olanzapine LAI typically administered?
Every 4 weeks
366
What is the half-life of olanzapine?
30 days
367
True or False: Olanzapine has been compared with other LAIs in randomized controlled trials.
False
368
What should be considered when switching to olanzapine LAI?
A prior oral trial is ideal
369
What is the recommended action when switching from risperidone Consta to olanzapine?
Start olanzapine 2 weeks after the last Consta injection
370
What is post-injection delirium sedation syndrome (PDSS)?
A condition that may occur after olanzapine LAI injection, characterized by confusion, delirium, and somnolence
371
What is the incidence of PDSS following olanzapine injections?
Less than 0.1% of injections
372
What is the recommended observation period after olanzapine LAI injection?
At least 3 hours
373
What can cause olanzapine to dissolve more rapidly, leading to PDSS?
Exposure to a large volume of blood or plasma
374
What is the recommended action if an overdose is suspected after olanzapine LAI injection?
Continue close medical supervision and monitoring
375
Fill in the blank: After each injection, patients should be observed for signs and symptoms consistent with _______.
[olanzapine overdose]
376
What factors may increase the risk of PDSS?
* Male gender * Higher doses * Previous injection site-related adverse effects
377
How long may olanzapine remain detectable in the bloodstream after the last dose?
Up to 8 months
378
What type of data suggests the effectiveness of olanzapine LAI compared to paliperidone LAI?
Naturalistic data
379
What is the purpose of loading doses in some olanzapine regimens?
To assess response and tolerability before starting maintenance
380
True or False: Oral supplementation after the first depot injection of olanzapine is necessary.
False
381
What should patients be advised to do on the day of olanzapine injection?
Be vigilant for signs and symptoms of overdose
382
What is the major active metabolite of risperidone?
Paliperidone
383
What is paliperidone palmitate?
The ester prodrug of paliperidone
384
What are the available formulations for paliperidone palmitate long-acting injection?
* Monthly * 3-monthly * 6-monthly
385
How is paliperidone palmitate administered?
As an aqueous nanosuspension, hydrolysed after IM administration
386
What is the benefit of administering paliperidone LAI via the deltoid muscle?
Results in an average 28% higher peak concentration compared to the gluteal muscle
387
When can improvement in psychotic symptoms be observed after administering paliperidone?
As early as day 4
388
What is the recommended initiation dosing schedule for paliperidone LAI 1-monthly?
* Day 1: 150mg IM (deltoid only) * Day 8 (±4 days): 100mg IM (deltoid only)
389
What is the recommended maintenance dosing for paliperidone LAI 1-monthly?
50-150mg IM every month (±7 days)
390
What is the median time to maximum plasma concentration for paliperidone LAI?
13 days
391
What is the half-life range of paliperidone?
25 to 49 days
392
True or False: A test dose is necessary for paliperidone palmitate.
False
393
What are the potential advantages of paliperidone LAI 3-monthly compared to 1-monthly?
* Lower risk of hospitalizations * Fewer emergency department visits
394
What is the recommended switching process from paliperidone 1-monthly to 3-monthly?
Give the first dose of PP3M in place of the next scheduled dose of PP1M (±7 days)
395
What are the patient-reported advantages of PP3M over PP1M?
* Less frequent and painful injections * Less travelling * Fewer moments of experiencing shame
396
What is the median half-life for paliperidone LAI 3-monthly after deltoid injection?
84-95 days
397
What is the dosing recommendation for switching from oral antipsychotics to paliperidone?
Reduce the dose of the oral antipsychotic over 1-2 weeks following the first injection of paliperidone
398
What is the indication for paliperidone LAI 6-monthly?
Patients on maintenance treatment with 100mg or 150mg of PP1M for 4 months or more
399
What should be ensured before changing to paliperidone LAI 3-monthly?
Patients should be on a stable and effective therapeutic dose of PP1M
400
What is the recommended method of administration for avoiding incomplete administration of the PP3M suspension?
Shake vigorously the prefilled syringe for at least 15 seconds
401
How should maintenance dose adjustments for paliperidone be made after switching to PP3M?
Adjustments should be made at 3-monthly intervals
402
What are the equivalent doses for paliperidone LAI?
* 75mg monthly for general adult population * 100mg and 150mg are more often prescribed in practice
403
What is the recommended administration route for PP6M?
Gluteal muscle ## Footnote PP6M should not be administered via any other route.
404
What are the equivalent doses for paliperidone long-acting injection (LAI) in PP1M and PP3M?
PP1M to PP3M equivalent doses: * 50mg to 175mg * 75mg to 263mg * 100mg to 350mg * 150mg to 525mg
405
What is the median half-life of PP6M?
148–159 days or longer
406
What is the suitable patient condition for administering PP6M?
Stable mental state ## Footnote Patients should not require any dose adjustments.
407
How long should the vial be shaken before IM administration of PP6M?
Minimum of 30 seconds
408
What common adverse effect was noted in a phase 3 trial of PP6M?
Injection site pain
409
What is the switching regimen for a patient on 100mg PP1M to PP6M?
Give 700mg of PP6M in place of the next scheduled dose of 100mg PP1M
410
What is the switching regimen for a patient on 150mg PP1M to PP6M?
Give 1000mg of PP6M in place of the next scheduled dose of 150mg PP1M
411
What is the switching regimen for a patient on 350mg PP3M to PP6M?
Give 700mg of PP6M in place of the next scheduled dose of 350mg PP3M
412
What is the switching regimen for a patient on 525mg PP3M to PP6M?
Give 1000mg of PP6M in place of the next scheduled dose of 525mg PP3M
413
What is Rykindo?
A 2-weekly injectable suspension of risperidone ## Footnote Given in the gluteal muscle to patients who have previously responded and tolerated risperidone.
414
What is the recommended starting dose of Rykindo?
25mg every 2 weeks
415
What must be done before administering Rykindo after Consta?
The first IM injection of Rykindo should be given 4–5 weeks after the last Consta administration.
416
What is the peak plasma concentration time for Rykindo after IM injection?
14 days
417
What is the maximum dose of Rykindo?
50mg every 2 weeks
418
What is a common characteristic of risperidone long-acting injections (RLAIs)?
They are rarely initiated in practice
419
How long do plasma concentrations of RLAI remain therapeutic after the last injection?
Around 6 weeks
420
What is the time frame for plasma levels to fall below the therapeutic threshold after RLAI?
6 weeks
421
What is the importance of switching from RLAI?
To ensure therapeutic plasma concentration of the new antipsychotic is established before risperidone concentrations become subtherapeutic
422
When should the first IM injection be given after the last Consta administration?
4–5 weeks after the last Consta administration ## Footnote Refer to Table 1.25 for equivalent doses.
423
What is the storage requirement for Rykindo?
Stored in the refrigerator and allowed to sit at room temperature for at least 30 minutes before reconstitution.
424
What is the recommended method for switching from oral risperidone to long-acting injections?
Start oral tablets 4–5 weeks after the last RLAI injection.
425
What are the equivalent doses for oral risperidone to long-acting injections?
* 25mg/2 weeks = 2mg/day * 37.5mg/2 weeks = 3mg/day * 50mg/2 weeks = 4mg/day
426
What should be done when switching to paliperidone LAI from RLAI?
Initiate the equivalent dose of paliperidone LAI in place of the next scheduled dose of RLAI.
427
How often should risperidone ISM be administered?
Every 28 days.
428
What is the peak plasma concentration timeframe for risperidone ISM after IM administration?
Initial peak within 24–48 hours, second peak between days 18 and 25.
429
True or False: Risperidone ISM requires a loading dose.
False
430
What are the main advantages of risperidone ISM?
* Absence of a loading dose requirement * 28-day administration interval
431
What are the disadvantages of risperidone ISM?
* Not suitable for patients requiring 2mg or 6mg/day of oral risperidone * Not for patients with creatinine clearance of less than 60mL/minute
432
What is RBP-7000 and how is it administered?
SC risperidone LAI available in 90mg and 120mg dosage forms, given every 28 days.
433
What is the biphasic release pattern of RBP-7000?
* First peak at 4–6 hours * Second peak at 10–14 days post-dose
434
What are common adverse effects reported for RBP-7000?
* Injection site pain * Weight gain
435
What is the recommended initiation dose for risperidone ISM?
* 75mg or 100mg IM on Day 1
436
What storage condition is required for Uzedy?
Stored in the fridge and allowed to sit at room temperature for at least 30 minutes before administration.
437
What is the therapeutic effect timeframe for Uzedy?
Therapeutic concentrations are seen on day one.
438
What are the most commonly reported adverse effects of Uzedy?
* Injection site pain * Injection site nodules * Weight gain * Extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs)
439
Fill in the blank: The equivalent oral risperidone dose for RBP-7000 90mg is ______.
3mg/day oral risperidone
440
What is the bioavailability assumption for risperidone-based long-acting injections?
Assumed to be 100%.
441
What is RBP-7000?
A long-acting injectable formulation of risperidone for schizophrenia treatment. ## Footnote RBP-7000 is administered once monthly and is designed to improve adherence in patients.
442
What is the usual dose of penfluridol for weekly administration?
20–40mg per week. ## Footnote Higher doses have been used in clinical settings, but 30mg is considered adequately effective.
443
What is the plasma half-life of penfluridol?
At least 60 hours. ## Footnote This long half-life allows for once-weekly dosing.
444
True or False: Penfluridol can be used as a once-weekly oral therapy.
True. ## Footnote It serves as an alternative to long-acting injectable antipsychotics.
445
What are common adverse effects of penfluridol?
* Acute EPS * Increased prolactin * Tardive dyskinesia * QT prolongation ## Footnote Sedation is usually minimal.
446
What is the recommended starting dose of penfluridol in practice?
20mg. ## Footnote The dose can be increased to a maximum of 40mg after assessment.
447
What is the significance of the study by Walling DP et al. regarding monthly risperidone injections?
It assessed the efficacy of monthly risperidone injections following a switch from daily oral risperidone. ## Footnote This study contributes to understanding the transition between different formulations of risperidone.
448
Fill in the blank: The usual dose of penfluridol is _______.
20–40mg per week.
449
What is the role of ECT in treating schizophrenia?
ECT augmentation of antipsychotic medication can improve persistent positive symptoms. ## Footnote Evidence suggests it may be beneficial for medication-resistant cases.
450
What did the Cochrane systematic review from 2005 assess regarding ECT?
It compared ECT with placebo, sham ECT, non-pharmacological interventions, and antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia. ## Footnote Results indicated more significant improvement in patients receiving real ECT.
451
What are the benefits of RBP-7000 in treating schizophrenia?
* Improved adherence * Long-acting formulation * Monthly administration ## Footnote Designed to address issues of non-adherence common with daily oral medications.
452
What is the typical duration for reaching steady-state levels with penfluridol?
2–3 weeks. ## Footnote Monitoring of renal and hepatic function is essential during this period.
453
What are some antipsychotics suitable for once-weekly oral administration?
* Pimozide * Aripiprazole * Cariprazine ## Footnote These alternatives may also improve adherence in treatment.
454
What is the primary concern regarding long-term ECT effectiveness?
Lack of data on long-term effectiveness, cognitive deficits, and quality of life. ## Footnote More research is needed to assess these aspects.
455
What was the outcome of the Dutch retrospective cohort study regarding penfluridol?
Discontinuation trends for oral penfluridol were similar to depot formulations. ## Footnote Suggests comparable efficacy in treatment adherence.
456
What does ECT stand for?
Electroconvulsive Therapy
457
What types of interventions were compared with ECT in the Cochrane systematic review?
* Placebo * Sham ECT * Non-pharmacological interventions * Antipsychotic medication
458
What was concluded about ECT combined with antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia?
It is a valid treatment option, especially for rapid improvement and reducing symptoms.
459
What was the outcome of the mirror-image study involving ECT for schizophrenia patients?
The rate of psychiatric hospitalization decreased in those treated with ECT.
460
What is TRS an abbreviation for?
Treatment-Resistant Schizophrenia
461
What did the 2019 Cochrane systematic review conclude about ECT for TRS?
Moderate-quality evidence suggested a positive effect on medium-term clinical response.
462
In studies of ECT augmentation, what symptoms showed significant decreases?
Dominant negative symptoms
463
What was the finding of the 2016 meta-analysis regarding ECT and non-clozapine antipsychotic medication?
The combination was superior in symptom improvement, response, and remission rates.
464
True or False: ECT augmentation of clozapine is less effective than other antipsychotic medications.
False
465
What percentage of responders showed a 30% or greater reduction in PANSS total score with clozapine and ECT?
Almost two-thirds
466
What was the response criterion in the study involving clozapine and ECT?
40% or greater reduction in the psychotic symptom subscale of the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale
467
What did the 2016 systematic review conclude about ECT for clozapine-resistant schizophrenia?
ECT may be an effective augmentation strategy but requires further research.
468
What adverse effects have been reported from ECT?
* Transient retrograde amnesia * Anterograde amnesia * Drowsiness * Headaches * Nausea
469
What type of studies were noted to lack in the meta-analysis of ECT augmentation?
Controlled studies with sham ECT as a control
470
What did a recent RCT find about ECT augmentation for clozapine-resistant schizophrenia?
It was not superior to sham treatment for symptom response.
471
What is the general consensus on the cognitive adverse effects of ECT?
They are generally mild and transient.
472
What is needed to establish the clinical benefit-risk balance of ECT augmentation?
Further well-controlled trials
473
What are the two main omega-3 fatty acids found in fish oils?
Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) ## Footnote These are also known as polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs)
474
What is the potential role of omega-3 fatty acids in relation to neuronal membranes?
Involvement in maintaining neuronal membrane structure, modulation of membrane proteins, and production of prostaglandins and leukotrienes
475
What ratio may be relevant in the development of psychotic disorders?
The ratio between omega-6 and omega-3 fatty acids
476
What has genetic research suggested about individuals with schizophrenia and fatty acids?
They may have difficulty converting short-chain fatty acids to long-chain polyunsaturated fatty acids
477
What effect may high dietary intake of PUFAs have on psychosis?
It may protect against psychosis
478
What conclusion did a 2012 meta-analysis reach regarding EPA's efficacy in established schizophrenia?
EPA had no beneficial effect in established schizophrenia
479
What was the finding of an RCT involving 71 patients with first-episode schizophrenia regarding EPA and DHA?
It showed a reduction in symptom severity with a number needed to treat (NNT) of 4 for a 50% reduction in symptoms
480
What was the outcome of a relapse prevention study involving EPA and DHA?
Failed to demonstrate any value for PUFAs over placebo
481
What did a 2019 meta-review conclude about the use of PUFAs in treating schizophrenia?
Found no evidence for the use of PUFAs in the treatment of schizophrenia
482
What does current evidence suggest about the use of EPA in schizophrenia?
Unlikely to be a worthwhile option when added to standard treatment
483
What are the recommendations from the World Federation of Societies of Biological Psychiatry regarding omega-3 fatty acids?
Not recommended for use in schizophrenia
484
What are potential side effects of fish oil supplementation?
Mild gastrointestinal symptoms may occur
485
What did the Vienna High Risk study find about omega-3 fatty acids and psychosis?
Treatment greatly reduced emergence of psychotic symptoms compared with placebo
486
What did the NEURAPRO trial conclude about omega-3 fatty acids for patients at high risk of psychosis?
Failed to find evidence of efficacy for reducing transition to psychosis or improving symptoms
487
What correlation did the NAPLS study find regarding dietary intake of EPA?
A positive correlation between functional improvement and frequency of dietary intake of EPA
488
What does the current consensus state about the use of PUFAs for treating schizophrenia?
No longer recommended for treatment of residual symptoms or prevention of transition to psychosis
489
Fill in the blank: If omega-3 fatty acids are used, careful assessment of response is important and fish oils should be withdrawn if no effect is observed after _______.
3 months' treatment
490
What is the suggested dose of EPA for patients at high risk of first-episode psychosis if used?
700mg/day
491
What is the suggested dose of EPA for residual symptoms of multi-episode schizophrenia if used?
2g/day
492
What is the main purpose of inhaled loxapine?
Licensed for the rapid control of mild to moderate agitation in patients with schizophrenia or bipolar disorder ## Footnote It requires cooperation of the patient and is associated with increased risk of bronchospasms.
493
What is the dosing information for inhaled loxapine?
9.1mg (10mg), can be repeated after 2 hours ## Footnote Manufactured by Angelini Pharma (UK) and Teva (USA).
494
What are the off-label uses of intranasal haloperidol?
Acute disturbance ## Footnote ECG monitoring is recommended due to reported EPSEs.
495
What is the recommended dose of asenapine sublingual for schizophrenia?
5mg twice daily, up to a maximum dose of 10mg twice daily ## Footnote Licensed for moderate to severe manic episodes associated with bipolar disorder in the UK.
496
What is the main route of administration for antipsychotics?
Oral or intramuscular ## Footnote Alternative routes may be needed due to medical illness or patient preference.
497
What is the primary indication for asenapine transdermal patch?
Moderate to severe manic episodes associated with bipolar disorder ## Footnote Can be applied to upper arm, upper back, abdomen, and hip.
498
What is the dosing information for the asenapine transdermal patch?
Starting dose 3.8mg/24 hr, may increase to 5.7mg/24 hr or 7.6mg/24 hr after 1 week ## Footnote Licensed in the USA.
499
What is the dosing for chlorpromazine rectal administration?
100mg every 6–8 hr ## Footnote Limited information about this route for the treatment of psychosis.
500
What are the reported risks associated with intravenous olanzapine?
Hypoxia, respiratory depression, and bradycardia ## Footnote Used off-label for acute disturbance.
501
What is the primary benefit of using inhaled loxapine?
Rapid onset of tranquillising effect around 10 minutes ## Footnote Administration requires cooperation, which may not be feasible in medically unwell patients.
502
What is the bioavailability of asenapine when used sublingually?
35% ## Footnote Compared to only 2% when taken orally.
503
What common issue is associated with intravenous haloperidol?
Close ECG monitoring is advised ## Footnote Doses typically recommended are between 5 and 10mg.
504
What is the maximum daily dose for intravenous olanzapine?
30mg/day ## Footnote Bolus doses from 2.5 to 10mg have been safely administered.
505
What is a key characteristic of buccal administration of drugs?
Absorbed through the lining of the cheek ## Footnote Absorption is slower compared to sublingual use.
506
What is the primary indication for droperidol when used intranasally?
Acute disturbance ## Footnote ECG monitoring is recommended.
507
What is the primary concern with the intravenous use of antipsychotics in delirium?
Antipsychotics are probably not effective in delirium ## Footnote Large clinical trials showed no benefit over placebo.
508
What is the dosing information for olanzapine used intranasally?
1.25–30mg ## Footnote Used off-label for acute disturbance with limited evidence.
509
What are the reported side effects of asenapine sublingual?
Eating and drinking should be avoided for 10 minutes after administration ## Footnote This is to ensure proper absorption.
510
What is the role of nanotechnology in antipsychotic delivery?
Developed for intranasal delivery of various antipsychotics ## Footnote Remains clinically untested.
511
What is the dosing information for prochlorperazine rectal administration?
25mg every 12 hr ## Footnote Suppositories available in some countries.
512
What is the route of administration for dexmedetomidine in acute agitation?
Sublingually ## Footnote Dexmedetomidine is used sublingually for managing acute agitation in patients.
513
How are buccally administered drugs absorbed?
Through the lining of the cheek ## Footnote Buccal administration results in slower absorption compared to sublingual use.
514
What is prochlorperazine indicated for in the UK?
Treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with migraines ## Footnote Prochlorperazine is rarely used for psychiatric indications.
515
What is a benefit of transdermal drug delivery?
Minimises fluctuations in plasma drug concentrations ## Footnote Transdermal delivery allows for lower doses and possibly reduced systemic adverse effects.
516
Which antipsychotic is available as a daily transdermal patch in the USA?
Asenapine (Secuado) ## Footnote Blonanserin is also available as a transdermal patch in certain Asian countries.
517
What is the rectal route's status for chlorpromazine in adults?
Not licensed ## Footnote Chlorpromazine suppositories are available in the UK but the rectal route is not officially licensed for adults.
518
What can withdrawal from antipsychotics cause?
Withdrawal symptoms including psychotic symptoms ## Footnote Withdrawal effects can also include non-psychotic symptoms like insomnia and anxiety.
519
What is one potential outcome of reducing or stopping antipsychotics?
Improvement in social functioning ## Footnote This may occur without worsening relapse or symptom burden in the medium term.
520
What is the risk associated with rapid cessation of antipsychotic medication?
Increased risk of relapse ## Footnote Abruptly stopping antipsychotics can lead to withdrawal-associated relapse.
521
What does the term 'dopaminergic hypersensitivity' refer to?
Increased sensitivity to dopamine after long-term antipsychotic treatment ## Footnote This can lead to a higher risk of relapse when antipsychotics are reduced.
522
What is the advised method for tapering off antipsychotics to minimize relapse risk?
Gradual dose tapering ## Footnote Slower tapering allows for neuroadaptations to resolve, reducing relapse risk.
523
Name two withdrawal symptoms associated with cholinergic withdrawal.
* Agitation * Insomnia ## Footnote Other symptoms can include anxiety, dizziness, and nausea.
524
What is a potential effect of antipsychotic withdrawal related to cognitive functioning?
Improvement in cognitive functioning ## Footnote Reducing antipsychotic burden may lead to better cognitive outcomes.
525
True or False: Antipsychotics are recommended for short-term treatment of schizophrenia.
False ## Footnote Antipsychotics are recommended for long-term treatment to reduce symptoms and relapse risk.
526
What percentage of antipsychotic prescriptions in the UK are given to patients without a psychotic disorder?
More than half ## Footnote These prescriptions are often for insomnia, anxiety, personality disorders, and dementia symptoms.
527
What withdrawal symptoms can be caused by stopping antipsychotics?
* Psychotic symptoms * Insomnia * Anxiety ## Footnote Withdrawal symptoms can reflect the blocking of various neurotransmitter receptors.
528
What are common withdrawal symptoms associated with antipsychotic medications?
* Restlessness * Myalgia * Rigidity * Paraesthesia * Agitation * Fear * Hallucinations * Confusion or disorientation * Hypothermia * Sweating * Irritability * Insomnia * Depressed affect * Loss of appetite * Nausea * Tremulousness * Incoordination * Lethargy * Amnesia * Withdrawal dyskinesia * Parkinsonism * Neuroleptic malignant syndrome * Akathisia * Auditory hallucinations * Persecutory delusions * Other psychotic symptoms * Flu-like symptoms * Dizziness * Light-headedness * Tachycardia * Electric shock sensations * Anxiety * Low mood * Nightmares * Diarrhoea * Decreased concentration * Headache * Hypertension * Angina * Palpitations * Risk of myocardial infarction * Presyncope * Sweating
529
What does positron emission tomography reveal about the relationship between antipsychotic dosage and D2 receptor occupancy?
A hyperbolic relationship exists between dose of antipsychotic and D2 receptor occupancy.
530
What is the law of mass action in relation to antipsychotic drugs?
Each additional molecule of a drug has incrementally less effect as receptor targets become saturated.
531
True or False: A linear reduction of antipsychotic dose is the most effective tapering method.
False
532
What is the consequence of linear dose reductions of antipsychotics?
They produce increasingly larger reductions of D2 blockade.
533
What is recommended for tapering antipsychotic medication?
A hyperbolic reduction pattern is advised, approximated by sequential halving of the dose.
534
What should patients be informed about when tapering antipsychotic medication?
They should be informed of the risk of withdrawal symptoms, including insomnia and potential increase in psychotic symptoms.
535
What is the recommended approach for patients who have been on antipsychotic medication for less than one year?
A reduction as large as 25% might be feasible.
536
Fill in the blank: Relapse rates using fast linear tapers generally exceed ______ for both first episode and multi-episode patients.
90%
537
What should be monitored after a reduction in antipsychotic medication?
Patients should be monitored for withdrawal symptoms or worsening of psychotic symptoms.
538
What may be necessary if a patient experiences significant withdrawal symptoms after dose reduction?
An increase in dose back one or two steps or back to the original dose may be necessary.
539
What is the significance of final doses before complete cessation of antipsychotics?
Final doses may need to be very small to prevent a large decrease in D2 blockade.
540
What dosing method should generally be avoided due to the risk of withdrawal effects?
Every-other-day dosing of antipsychotics with half-lives of less than 24 hours.
541
What might facilitate gradual tapering of depot medication?
Reducing depot medication might facilitate gradual tapering because of the longer half-lives of elimination.
542
What does the example tapering regimen for olanzapine suggest for the first step?
Reduce olanzapine by 5–10mg every 1–3 months until reaching 20mg per day.
543
What is the maximum duration suggested for the tapering process?
This process could take 12–48 months.
544
What are extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)?
Movement disorders associated with antipsychotic medication that can be stigmatising and distressing. ## Footnote EPS can include symptoms such as dystonia, akathisia, pseudoparkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia.
545
What factors influence the likelihood of developing EPS?
Factors include: * Dose of antipsychotic medication * Type of antipsychotic used * Genetic predisposition * Substance misuse * Age and gender ## Footnote EPS are less likely to occur with SGAs compared to FGAs.
546
Which atypical antipsychotics are less likely to cause EPS?
Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole. ## Footnote These medications have a lower incidence of EPS compared to FGAs like haloperidol.
547
What is the prevalence of EPS in community samples?
The prevalence may exceed 30%. ## Footnote This statistic highlights the common occurrence of EPS in patients, even in those who may not be on antipsychotic medication.
548
What is the relationship between dose and incidence of EPS?
The incidence of EPS is often steeply dose-related for most drugs. ## Footnote This relationship can extend beyond the licensed dose range for some antipsychotics.
549
What are some common types of EPS?
* Dystonia * Pseudoparkinsonism * Akathisia * Tardive dyskinesia ## Footnote Each type has distinct symptoms and characteristics.
550
What are the symptoms of dystonia?
Uncontrolled muscular spasms, including: * Oculogyric spasm * Torticollis * Difficulty swallowing ## Footnote Acute dystonia can be painful and frightening for patients.
551
What characterizes pseudoparkinsonism?
Symptoms include: * Bradykinesia * Tremor * Muscle rigidity ## Footnote Pseudoparkinsonism can be mistaken for depression or negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
552
What is akathisia?
A state of inner restlessness with a desire to move, characterized by: * Foot stamping * Constantly pacing ## Footnote Akathisia can be mistaken for psychotic agitation and has been linked to suicidal ideation.
553
What are the timeframes for the development of EPS?
Symptoms develop at different rates: * Dystonia: hours * Pseudoparkinsonism: months * Akathisia: hours to weeks * Tardive dyskinesia: months to years. ## Footnote Understanding these timeframes is crucial for monitoring patients on antipsychotics.
554
What treatments are available for acute dystonia?
Treatment options include: * Anticholinergic drugs * IM or IV administration * Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for severe cases. ## Footnote Response to IV anticholinergic administration is seen within 5 minutes.
555
What is tardive dyskinesia (TD)?
Abnormal involuntary movements that develop after long-term antipsychotic treatment. ## Footnote The reversibility of TD after stopping medication is unclear and may depend on age.
556
Which demographic is more likely to experience dystonia?
More common in young males and those who are antipsychotic-naïve. ## Footnote Dystonic reactions are rare in the elderly.
557
What is the relationship between EPS and cognitive impairment?
Parkinsonian symptoms and other motor abnormalities may be associated with cognitive impairment and poor long-term psychosocial functioning. ## Footnote This association emphasizes the importance of monitoring cognitive health in patients with EPS.
558
What is the recommended action if a patient experiences akathisia due to antipsychotic medication?
Prescribe an anticholinergic. ## Footnote Majority of patients do not require long-term anticholinergic agents; use should be reviewed at least every 3 months.
559
What should be done to manage akathisia in patients taking antipsychotics?
Reduce the antipsychotic dose or change to an antipsychotic drug with lower propensity for akathisia. ## Footnote Refer to sections on akathisia and relative liability of antipsychotic medications for adverse effects.
560
Which medications may help reduce symptoms of akathisia?
* Low-dose propranolol (30–80mg/day) * Clonazepam (low dose) * 5HT2 antagonists such as cyproheptadine, mirtazapine, trazodone, mianserin * Possibly diphenhydramine ## Footnote Note that all of the above medications are unlicensed for this indication.
561
What should be considered if anticholinergics are prescribed?
Stop anticholinergic if prescribed. ## Footnote Anticholinergics are generally unhelpful unless akathisia is part of a general EPS spectrum.
562
What is recommended if a patient is experiencing tardive dyskinesia (TD)?
Reduce dose of antipsychotic medication or change to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD. ## Footnote Clozapine is most likely to resolve symptoms; Quetiapine may also be useful.
563
Which treatments have a positive risk–benefit balance as add-on treatments for TD?
* Valbenazine * Deutetrabenazine * Tetrabenazine * Ginkgo biloba ## Footnote Refer to the review by the American Academy of Neurology for other treatment options.
564
True or False: Anticholinergics are effective for treating akathisia.
False. ## Footnote Anticholinergics are generally unhelpful unless akathisia is part of a general EPS spectrum.
565
What is the primary purpose of using low-dose propranolol in the context of akathisia?
To reduce symptoms of akathisia. ## Footnote Dosage is typically 30–80mg/day.
566
Fill in the blank: Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of _______.
tardive dyskinesia.
567
What should be done every 3 months regarding the prescription of anticholinergic agents?
Review use of anticholinergic agents. ## Footnote Majority of patients do not require long-term anticholinergic agents.
568
Which antipsychotic is noted for having a lower propensity for tardive dyskinesia?
Clozapine. ## Footnote Quetiapine may also be useful in this regard.
569
What is akathisia?
Akathisia is a common adverse effect of most antipsychotic medications characterized by mental unease and dysphoria, with a compulsion to move and motor restlessness.
570
Which antipsychotic medications have a minimal risk of inducing akathisia?
Sertindole and quetiapine have a minimal risk of inducing akathisia.
571
Which antipsychotic medications have a high risk of inducing akathisia?
Haloperidol and lurasidone are associated with a high risk of inducing akathisia.
572
What effect does dosage have on the risk of akathisia?
The risk of akathisia tends to increase with dose, but the dose-response curves differ between medications.
573
Fill in the blank: The core feature of akathisia is _______.
mental unease and dysphoria.
574
What association has been postulated regarding akathisia?
An association with suicidal ideation has been postulated but remains uncertain.
575
What factors may mitigate the risk of akathisia?
Avoiding high-dose antipsychotic medication, antipsychotic polypharmacy, and rapid increases in dosage may mitigate the risk.
576
Which adjunctive treatments were identified as most efficacious for akathisia?
Mirtazapine, biperiden, and vitamin B6 emerged as the most efficacious treatments.
577
What did the 2024 systematic review find about the efficacy of vitamin B6?
Vitamin B6 was judged to have the most favorable efficacy and tolerability profile.
578
Which treatments were considered effective alternatives for akathisia?
Trazodone, mianserin, and propranolol were considered effective alternatives.
579
True or False: It is prudent to initially consider increasing the antipsychotic dose to manage akathisia.
False.
580
What should be evaluated for each treatment option for akathisia?
The efficacy of each treatment option should be evaluated over at least 1 month.
581
Which medication can be considered for acute akathisia?
Midazolam has been successfully used to prevent akathisia associated with IV metoclopramide.
582
What is the recommended maximum daily dose of propranolol for akathisia?
30–80 mg/day.
583
Fill in the blank: Combinations of treatments may be considered for ________ cases of akathisia.
refractory.
584
What is the role of benzodiazepines in treating akathisia?
Benzodiazepines may be prescribed for a limited period to manage short-lived effects of antipsychotic medication.
585
Which other treatments for akathisia have been investigated?
Vitamin B6, pregabalin, diphenhydramine, trazodone, and zolmitriptan.
586
What is a common challenge in diagnosing akathisia?
Akathisia can be difficult to diagnose with certainty and is commonly overlooked or misdiagnosed.
587
What is the objective of the proposed treatment program for akathisia?
To determine effective treatment options for persistent, antipsychotic-induced akathisia.
588
What did the 2023 dose–response meta-analysis confirm regarding partial agonists?
The risk of akathisia with partial agonists is greatest with cariprazine and lowest with brexpiprazole.
589
What should be done before starting the next treatment option for akathisia?
Withdraw previously ineffective add-on akathisia treatments.
590
What is the significance of the clinical physical examination schedules proposed for akathisia?
They aim to improve the identification and diagnosis of akathisia in clinical practice.
591
What is akathisia?
A movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and an uncontrollable need to be in constant motion.
592
What is the relationship between akathisia and suicidality?
Akathisia has been linked with treatment-emergent suicidality among patients with first-episode schizophrenia.
593
What are common antipsychotic medications associated with akathisia?
Haloperidol and risperidone.
594
What is the annualized incidence of tardive dyskinesia (TD) across FGA treatment groups?
6.5%.
595
What is the annualized incidence of TD across SGA treatment groups?
2.6%.
596
Fill in the blank: The risk of developing TD may be related to the extent of _______ occupancy.
D2 receptor
597
What is a recommended initial step in treating early signs of TD?
Withdrawal of any co-prescribed anticholinergic agents.
598
What medication is considered to have the lowest liability for TD?
Dopamine partial agonists, particularly aripiprazole.
599
True or False: SGAs are less likely to cause TD than FGAs.
True.
600
What is the treatment strategy when TD is first observed?
Withdraw the antipsychotic and substitute it with a medication with lower liability for TD.
601
What are some potential options for treating TD?
Clozapine, quetiapine, olanzapine, aripiprazole.
602
Which agents are considered first-choice for treating tardive dyskinesia?
* Deutetrabenazine * Valbenazine * Amantadine * Vitamin E * Vitamin B6
603
What is the dose range for deutetrabenazine in treating TD?
12–48mg/day.
604
What is the evidence supporting the use of Ginkgo biloba for TD?
Limited; a Cochrane review concluded it did not justify routine use.
605
What is the characteristic of involuntary movements in TD?
They are often unaware by the majority of patients.
606
What is the role of VMAT-2 inhibitors in the treatment of TD?
Considered agents of first choice due to supporting evidence.
607
What is the typical dose of amantadine for TD?
100–300mg/day.
608
What is the potential effect of vitamin B6 on TD?
Supported by a Cochrane review and a 2020 meta-analysis.
609
What is the risk of TD associated with low doses of haloperidol?
TD can occur even with low doses.
610
Fill in the blank: The treatment of established TD is often _______.
unsuccessful
611
What is the relationship between TD and cognitive impairment?
TD is associated with greater cognitive impairment.
612
What is a common practice when TD is first observed?
Withdraw the antipsychotic prescribed.
613
What is the significance of dopamine receptor occupancy in relation to TD?
Greater occupancy is associated with a higher risk of TD.
614
What is the effect of Ginkgo biloba on tardive dyskinesia (TD) symptoms?
Could reduce TD symptoms but not justified for routine use as treatment. ## Footnote Evidence does not support routine use despite potential benefits.
615
What was the effective dose of Ginkgo biloba identified in a meta-analysis of three Chinese RCTs?
240 mg/day. ## Footnote This dosage showed a good effect in reducing TD symptoms.
616
What is the maximum recommended dose of pyridoxine for treating TD?
Up to 400 mg/day. ## Footnote Supported by a Cochrane review and a 2020 meta-analysis.
617
What is Tetrabenazine used for in the UK?
The only licensed treatment for moderate to severe TD. ## Footnote Can cause depression, drowsiness, parkinsonism, and akathisia.
618
What is the effective dose range for Tetrabenazine?
25–200 mg/day.
619
What is valbenazine and its approved use?
VMAT-2 inhibitor licensed for TD in the USA. ## Footnote Supports a favorable benefit-risk ratio.
620
What is the effective dose of valbenazine?
80 mg once daily.
621
What is the role of Vitamin E in treating TD?
Efficacy remains inconclusive; may slow deterioration of TD. ## Footnote Dose is in the range of 400–1600 IU/day.
622
What is the main finding from the Cochrane review regarding Vitamin E's effect on TD?
Evidence only for slowing deterioration, not definitive treatment effect.
623
What is the significance of amino acids in TD treatment?
Supported by a small randomized, placebo-controlled trial with low toxicity risk.
624
What is the potential role of Botulinum toxin in TD treatment?
Treatment of choice for localized dyskinesia with success reported in case reports.
625
What does DBS stand for and its relevance in TD?
Deep Brain Stimulation; may have a role in severe and distressing TD unresponsive to pharmacological treatment.
626
What dose of Donepezil is mentioned in relation to TD?
10 mg/day.
627
What is the evidence for using Gabapentin in TD treatment?
Inconclusive data, but supports the theory that GABAergic mechanisms improve TD.
628
What is the effective dose range for Levetiracetam?
Up to 3000 mg/day.
629
What is the dose and evidence supporting Melatonin for TD?
10 mg/day; supported by a meta-analysis of four trials.
630
What is Naltrexone's potential efficacy when added to benzodiazepines?
May be effective; well tolerated at a dose of 200 mg/day.
631
What are the contraindications for using Propranolol in TD treatment?
Asthma, bradycardia, and hypotension.
632
What is the dose range for Quercetin?
No specific dose mentioned; considered a plant compound with antioxidant properties.
633
What is the significance of rTMS in treating TD?
Bilateral hemispheric high-frequency rTMS may be feasible for TD unresponsive to first-line treatments.
634
What is the dose range for Zolpidem mentioned?
10–30 mg a day.