Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Step 2 CK > May 12th > Flashcards

May 12th Flashcards

(67 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What medications commonly cause urinary retention/overflow incont?

A

Anticholinergics, opiates, CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is tolterodine? What is it used for?

A

Anticholinergic; indicated for urge incontinence or overactive bladder symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is superficial infantile hemangioma?

A

Aka strawberry hemangioma; vascular birthmark appears during first few weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a nevus flammeus?

A

AKA: Port wine stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a nevus simplex?

A

“Stoke bite” or “angel kiss”; patch that most commonly occurs on eyelid and glabella and nape of neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common cause of CF-related pneumonia in children?

A

S aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common CF-related pneumonia seen in adults?

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are Bitot spots and when do you see them?

A

Dry, silver-gray plaques on the bulbar conjunctiva; seen in Vit A def

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Leriche syndrome?

A

Triad of bilateral hip, thigh and buttock claudication, absent or diminished femoral pulses, impotence; seen with aortoiliac occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

A

Autoimmune hemolytic disorder with intra and extravascular hemolysis and hemoglobinuria; due to lack of glycosylphosphatidylinositol anchor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria diagnosed?

A

Flow cytometry - absence of CD55 and CD59

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria treated?

A

Iron and folate supplementation; Eculizumab (mab that inhibits complement activation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the pathophysiology of exophthalmos?

A

T cell activation and stimulation of orbital fibroblasts and adipocytes by TRAB, resulting in orbital tissue expansion and lymphocytic infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which vitamin can help lower homocysteine levels?

A

B6, folate and B12 may be helpful as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What symptoms are seen in small fiber nerve injury of DM?

A

Positive sxs: pain, paresthesias, allodynia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What symptoms are seen in large fiber nerve injury in DM?

A

Negative sxs: numbness, loss of proprioception and vibration sense, diminished ankle reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

A

Idopathic avascular osteonecrosis of the femoral head; affects boys 3-12 (peak incidence is 6); dull, chronic LE pain and antalgic gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is acute dystonia treated?

A

Benztropine, diphenhydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is the EPS akathisia treated?

A

Beta blocker, benzo, benztropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is parkinsonism EPS treated?

A

Benztropine, amantadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of immune response is seen with the PPSV23 vaccine? Why?

A

T cell independent B cell response; vaccine contains 23 polysaccharides, which alone cannot be presented to T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of immune response is seen with PCV13 vaccine? Why?

A

T cell dependent B cell response; capsular polysaccharides have been covalently attached to inactivated diphtheria toxin protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of vaccines produce a CD8+ T cell response?

A

Certain live attenuated vaccines (MMR), intranasal flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a luteoma?

A

A benign, large ovarian mass that consists of lutein cells during pregnancy; results in hirsutism and acne during pregnancy; >10 cm in size, solid ovarian mass on US; expectant management - regress after delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is a Krukenberg tumor?
Metastatic tumor to ovaries from primary GI tumor; can cause hirsutism in pregnancy
26
How is bronchiectasis diagnosed?
HRCT
27
How is vesicoureteral reflux diagnosed?
Voiding cystourethrogram
28
What are the characteristics of restrictive PFTs?
Decreased TLC and normal FEV1/FVC ratio; decreased DLCO
29
NF2 tumor suppressor gene codes for what protein?
Merlin
30
NF2 tumor suppressor gene is on what chromosome?
22
31
Nf1 tumor suppressor gene codes for what protein? And is on what chromosome?
Nuerofibromin; 17
32
What are the key lab findings in hereditary spherocytosis?
Increased MCHC, neg Coombs, increased osmotic fragility, abnormal eosin-5-maleimide binding test; hemolytic anemia is seen
33
Neonate presents with jaundice on first day of life and has persistent jaundice refractory to standard management; what should you think of?
Hereditary spherocytosis
34
Intensive glycemic control in t2dm reduces the risk of what complications?
Microvascular complications: nephropathy and retinopathy
35
Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors should be used with caution in what combination with what other medications?
Nitrates and alpha blockers
36
If a patient has h/o CIN2 or higher, what is the appropriate pap screening end point?
Continues for another 20 years after detection (past age 65 if indicated)
37
When is pap testing stopped?
Age 65 (with other factors met)
38
What is the cause of HELLP syndrome?
Systemic inflammation and activation of coagulation system and plt consumption
39
Mirtazapine is a good antidepressant choice when what symptoms accompany depression?
Weight loss and decreased appetite and insomnia
40
How is acute infection with parvovirus B19 diagnosed?
B19 IgM antibodies if immunocompetent; NAAT for B19 if immunocompromised
41
What are common chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy drugs?
Vincristine, platinum-baed meds, taxanes
42
What organisms are covered by ciprofloxacin?
Gram negatives; NOT anaerobes or gram positives
43
What are good antibiotic options in aspiration pneumonia?
Clindamycin + azithromycin; metronidazole with amoxicillin, amoxicillin + clavulanate, or carbapenem
44
What organisms cause emphysematous cholecystitis?
Clostridium spp; some E coli
45
What is ziprasidone?
Secon gen antipsychotic with low metabolic risk profile (aripiprazole and lurasidone also have low metabolic profile)
46
What is fomepizole?
Competitive Alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor; useful in methanol and ethylene glycol ingestions
47
Nephrotic syndrome associated with African American and Hispanic ethnicity; obesity, HIV and heroin use?
FSGS
48
Nephrotic syndrome associated with adenocarcinoma (breast and lung); NSAIDs, HBV, SLE?
Membranous nephropathy; HBV also associated with membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis; NSAIDs also associated with MCD
49
Nephrotic syndrome associated with HBV, HCV, lipodystrophy?
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
50
Nephrotic disease associated with NSAIDs and lymphoma?
MCD; NSAIDs also associated with Membranous
51
Most common nephrotic syndrome in patients with Hodgkin lymphoma?
MCD
52
What is seen in MEN2B?
Medullary thyroid cancer, pheo, mucosal neuromas/marfanoid habitus
53
What is seen in MEN2A?
Medullary thyroid cancer, pheo, parathyroid hyperplasia
54
What is seen in MEN 1?
Primary hyperparathyroidism, pituitary tumors, pancreatic tumors
55
Small shallow painless genital ulcers with large, painful lymphadenopathy (buboes)
Lymphogranuloma venerum; associated with chlamydia trachomatis L1-L3
56
What is the next best step in a patient with suspected posterior urethral injury?
Retrograde urethrogram
57
What is conduct disorder?
Violation of major societal norms and rights of others (cruelty toward animals, destruction of property, lying, stealing)
58
How is conduct disorder treated?
CBT, family therapy
59
What is oppositional defiant disorder?
Angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior toward authority; less severe and do not include stealing or aggression toward people
60
What is the most common GI complication of Henoch-Schonlein purpura?
Intussusception; usually ileoileal which does not response to air or contrast enema and usually needs surgical management
61
How is PCP treated?
TMP-SMX and glucocorticoids in patients with impaired oxygenation; treatment of PCP can cause worsening of oxygenation
62
What is the mechanism behind CCB causing edema?
Preferential dilation of precapillary vessels —> increased capillary hydrostatic perssure
63
Contact dermatitis is what type of HSR?
Type IV, delayed, T cell mediated
64
What is scleroderma renal crisis?
Acute onset renal failure and malignant hypertension (headache, blurry vision, nausea); can see schistocytes and thrombocytopenia
65
When are Burr cells seen?
Liver disease and ESRD
66
When are spur cells seen?
Liver disease
67
What is the outpatient treatment for PID?
IM ceftriaxone + doxycycline

Step 2 CK (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions