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Flashcards in May 2022 Deck (127)
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1
Q

When will a CODR be submitted?

A

When munitions or weapons systems fail to function in accordance with their design/intent and result in no property damage or injury.

2
Q

When will an EER be submitted?

A

When an event involves munitions that unintentionally detonate, fire, burn, deflagrate, launch, leak, etc. and DOES NOT result in a mishap severity classification.

3
Q

When will an EMR be submitted?

A

Same criteria as an EER however the event DOES RESULT in a mishap severity classification of class A, B, or C.

4
Q

What are the two types of firearms discharges?

A

Intentional discharge. (Range, blanks, marking, line of duty.)

Unintentional. (Discharge of a firearm either accidentally or through negligence.)

5
Q

Definition of an accidental discharge?

A

Malfunction of the firearm or ammunition and is not caused by the member lack of disregard.

6
Q

Definition of a negligent discharge?

A

Discharge due to the disregard of or failure to follow policies or procedures.

7
Q

Command responsibilities for an unintentional discharge?

A

Members firearms quals must be suspended, within 24 hours report discharge to CG-721, report via CODR/EER/EMR, conduct an investigation, send results of investigation and quals to first Flag Officer.

8
Q

Command responsibilities for a CG discharged firearm?

A

Weapon must be segregated, firearm must be tagged, firearm must be shipped to nearest FORCECOM within 3 days along with:

  • Rounds count
  • 12 months of PMS history
  • Any recovered she’ll casings or equipment
9
Q

Who has final authority regarding an unintentionally discharge CG firearm?

A

The first Flag Officer in the CoC.

10
Q

What articles of the UCMJ might a person who negligently discharged a CG firearm be subject to?

A

Article 92, 108, 109, 134

If a death occurs: 119

11
Q

MLOS classifications?

A

Missing: You don’t know where the item is.
Lost: You know where the loss occurred, ex. A firearm fell overboard.
Stolen: Reasonable indication someone is at fault or responsible.

12
Q

MLOS timeline?

A

Quick look - 1 hour

Report to CO/OIC - 2 hours

Send MLOS message and make appropriate log entries - 12 hours

CGIS and NCIC entries - 24 hours

ATR - 48 hours

Report of survey to 721 and CG property - 10 days

13
Q

Types of expenditures?

A
Combat
Operational
Training
Structural and OP Test Fire
Range
Marking and Blank
14
Q

What are QPR’s based on?

A

The number of assigned members that need firearms qualifications.

15
Q

Can a member with a Level II firearms qual fill the role of a Level III member?

A

No, however a Level III can fill a Level II position.

16
Q

How long do you have to submit a QPR update?

A

Within 60 days of increase or decrease.

17
Q

When can commercial ammo be fired in a CG owned firearm?

A
  1. When approved by 721 for a specific mission or training.
  2. When procured with personal or morale funds for CG owned morale firearms.
  3. When procured with personal funds for an assigned CG match firearm.
18
Q

Deviation categories for Explosive Safety Program?

A
  1. Waiver - 1 day to 2 years.

2. Exemption - 2 years to 5 years.

19
Q

What is the designation for the Government Motor Vehicle Operator Card?

A

(OF-346)

20
Q

If transporting munitions onboard a CG aircraft, what manual must you use?

A

Coast Guard Air Operations Manual (COMDINST M3710.1)

21
Q

When transporting munitions, when must you have two armed CG members?

A
  1. Firearms and munitions together.
  2. Transporting C/D 1.1, 1.2, 1.5 or 1.6.
  3. One way trip greater than 2 hours.
22
Q

When is one armed CG member required?

A
  1. Gross weight of C/D 1.3 is more than 100 pounds.

2. Gross weight of C/D 1.4 is more than 300 pounds.

23
Q

Canine Explosive Detection Teams are authorized to have one armed member when?

A

Transportation of CEDT explosive training aids. Aids will not exceed 2.5 pounds NEW.

24
Q

Does the CG Honor Guard require armed escorts?

A

No, not when transporting blank ammo for honor guard events.

25
Q

What documentation must CG members have when transporting munitions?

A
  1. Government Motor Vehicle Operator Card (OF-346).

2. DD-1149 or DD-1348-1A.

26
Q

Allocation of munitions (NCEA)?

A

FORCECOM
District
Sector
Units

27
Q

When should you submit an NCEA augmentation?

A

Once you reach 80% expenditure.

28
Q

Rotation of munitions (FIFO).

A
  1. C/C Bravo or Tango must be used for training before C/C Alpha or Charlie.
  2. C/C Charlie must be used for operations and trading before C/C Alpha.
29
Q

Direct Reporters VS. Indirect Reporters?

A

Direct reporters provide information directly to NAVSUP or FORCECOM. Indirect report via ATR and PLR to a direct reporter.

30
Q

What is the difference between OIS-W (Wholesale) and OIS-R (Retail)?

A
  1. OIS-W allows FORCECOM to track munitions being held by direct reporters.
  2. OIS-R allows direct reporters to access and manage munitions of their sub units.
31
Q

Disposition of unserviceable munitions?

A
  1. C/D 1.3 & 1.4 must be returned to the servicing FORCECOM.

2. C/D 1.2 must be turned into the nearest DoD facility.

32
Q

When must the CO/OIC ensure grounding tests are conducted?

A

Every 24 months, tests must be conducted by a graduate of Electrical Explosive Safety for Naval Facilities, AMMO-29 or equivalent.

33
Q

What C/D of explosives can a CG handling facility accommodate?

A

C/D 1.1 &1.2.

34
Q

CG certified handling facilities require what two personnel?

A

Explosive Safety Officer & Safety Loading Officer.

35
Q

Where are the CG certified handling facilities?

A
Base Boston
Base Portsmouth
Base Miami
Sector Key West
Sector San Juan
Sector St. Petersburg
Base Ketchikan 
Base Kodiak
36
Q

What weapons class require Commandant approval prior to removal from the serialization program?

A

Only weapons in condition codes A & F.

37
Q

What percentage of spare weapons must district maintain?

A

10% of all operational firearms fielded with their AOR.

38
Q

Who is allowed to maintain spare inventory of P239’s, morale and match weapons?

A

SARF.

39
Q

What weapons WILL NOT be loaned to other agencies without prior approval?

A

MK19 Grenade Launchers, M2HB’s and M240’s without CG-721 approval.

40
Q

When can an individual upgrade their marksmanship award?

A

Only allowed to upgrade once every three years.

41
Q

What is the standard load out for Bear Protection?

A

.375 Magnum Rifle, ammo pouch and 10 rounds.

Or

Shotgun, web belt, ammo pouch, and 20 rounds of ammo.

42
Q

Standard method of carry for the M107?

A

Bolt forward on an empty chamber.
Magazine inserted (10 rounds).
Selector on Safe.

43
Q

Standard method of carry for the Winchester .375 H&H Magnum?

A

Bolt forward and locked on an empty chamber.
3 rounds in the magazine.
Safety lock and safe.

44
Q

What provider must you use when shipping firearms?

A

USPS or a commercial service utilizing a Commercial Bill of Lading.

45
Q

M2HB barrel marking?

A

M2HB - affixed with a marked dog tag, must have 1 to 2 digits. Barrels can also be stamped with 1 to 2 digits. Stamp will be no larger than 1/4 in.

46
Q

M240 barrel marking?

A

Must be paired to specific receiver, barrels must have last 4 digits of receiver. Stamp metal dog tag to front sight, stamp will be no larger than 1/4in. Alternate last 4 digits on flat part of barrel carrying handle, no larger than 1/4 in.

47
Q

Who can perform IMA on match firearms?

A

SARF & CG Academy armorers, if none available must be sent to approved manufacturer gunsmith.

48
Q

4 different types of range instructors?

A

FAI, PMI, AMI, CQCI.

49
Q

What are the 2 FAI competency codes?

A

HH/Active, HJ/Inactive.

50
Q

When a DoD waterborne range is unavailable, what criteria must be met for a live fire exercise?

A

Must be conducted 12NM seaward from baseline of U.S. Territorial seas.

51
Q

What CFR defines testing/training with the LA51?

A

33 CFR 328.3a

52
Q

How long must you maintain ordnance logs?

A

Minimum of 3 years.

53
Q

What is the code for NSWC-CD?

A

JXNP.

54
Q

Form number for QTPFRA (Lautenberg amendment)?

A

DD FORM 2760.

55
Q

76mm IV baseline requirements?

A
  1. 3000ft for barrels tested before July 1983.

2. Barrels after July 1983, IV is etched at the 12 o’clock position of barrel line under water jacket.

56
Q

NALC’s for depleted uranium, 20mm and 25mm?

A

20mm
- A675/A676

25mm
- A979/A983

Likely to include DU next to NALC.

57
Q

How many NULKA dummy cartridges does the USCG own?

A

Three total.

58
Q

What is Class/Division 1.1?

A

Mass detonating.

59
Q

What is Class/Division 1.2?

A

Non-mass detonating - fragment producing.

60
Q

What is Class/Division 1.3?

A

Mass fire, minor blast or fragment.

61
Q

What is Class/Division 1.4?

A

Moderate fire, no significant blast or hazard.

62
Q

Condition code A?

A

RFI, issue without qualification.

63
Q

Condition code B?

A

RFI, issue with qualification.

64
Q

Condition code C?

A

RFI, Priority issue.

65
Q

Condition code D?

A

NRFI but serviceable, test/modification.

66
Q

Condition code E?

A

NRFI, limited restoration.

67
Q

Condition code F?

A

NRFI, repairable.

68
Q

Condition code G?

A

NRFI, incomplete.

69
Q

Condition code H?

A

NRFI, condemned.

70
Q

Condition code J?

A

NRFI, in stock awaiting reclassification.

71
Q

Condition code K?

A

NRFI, return for use by weapons activity.

72
Q

Condition code L?

A

NRFI, litigation or pending litigation.

73
Q

Condition code M?

A

NRFI, in-work.

74
Q

Condition code N?

A

RFI, ammo suitable for emergency combat use only.

75
Q

Condition code P?

A

NRFI, reclamation held for cannibalization at a weapons activity.

76
Q

Condition code T?

A

Training use only.

77
Q

Condition code V?

A

Waste military munitions.

78
Q

When must an operation unit submit its TTCOR?

A

By April 15th.

79
Q

When must sectors and districts submit their TTCOR?

A

By May 15th.

80
Q

When must units who receive NCEA directly from FORCECOM submit their TTCOR?

A

By June 15th.

81
Q

What percentage increase for TTCOR requires an explanation?

A

Above 10%.

82
Q

When must you also explain your TTCOR?

A

When requesting a new NALC.

83
Q

What is the form number for a master/lot ammo stock card?

A

NAVSUP FORM 1296.

84
Q

When must an ATR be submitted?

A

Within 72 hours of expenditure.

85
Q

When must all other transactions be submitted?

A

Within 48 hours of event.

86
Q

What manual should be used to reference ATR’s & MILSTRIPS?

A

OPNAVINST 5102.1

87
Q

What is the MPC for weekly pyrotechnics inspection?

A

KB0096.0

88
Q

Minimum emergency jettison requirements?

A

At least 12NM from land with in water that is 500 fathoms deep.

89
Q

How many round are moved through the CIWS clearing sector?

A

Ten rounds.

90
Q

When in an emergency jettison situation, what can the CO authorize?

A

Direct jettison overboard regardless of water depth.

91
Q

What is the CFR # regarding emergency jettison?

A

40 CFR PART 220.

92
Q

MPPEHH discovery precautions?

A

Never disturb, do not transmit on radios or cell phones within 500 feet.

93
Q

If MPPEHH is a MK25 or MK58, what must you do?

A

Positively identify, place in fireproof container completely submerged in water.

94
Q

Who is the CG’s CAD administrator?

A

CG ALC Elizabeth City, NC.

95
Q

When removing or installing CAD’s what paperwork must you do?

A

INSTL Transaction.

96
Q

Difference between ORDALT and SHIPALT?

A

ORDALT’s are modifications to the ordnance equipment only. SHIPALT’s involve modifications to ship’s structure.

97
Q

After an ORDALT how long do you have to submit a 4790/CK to SFLC?

A

30 days.

98
Q

During a MK75 misfire, what degree of train must you place the GWS in?

A

Between 308 degrees and 052 degrees relative.

99
Q

During a MK75 misfire, if internal cooling is required what must the GCP operator do?

A

Elevation to 000 degrees and train the GWS to the port or starboard aft cutout.

100
Q

Define Title I and Title II firearms?

A

Title I - non-automatic rifles, shotguns, handguns, frames and receivers.

Title II - Machine guns, suppressors, SBR’s and destructive devices.

101
Q

Aircraft M240 trigger housing lock wire instructions?

A

Make 8/10 twists, while leaving 1/4 - 1/2 inch long pig-tail at the twisted end.

102
Q

M240 mount for the HH-60?

A

M144 machine gun mount, holds 200 rounds.

103
Q

Cyclic rate of the MK19 GMG?

A

325-375 RPM.

104
Q

Maximum distance of MK19 MGM?

A

2212 meters.

105
Q

M203 maximum distance?

A

400 meters.

106
Q

Are 40mm HV/LV grenades interchangeable between the MK19 and M203?

A

No.

107
Q

After receiving your Annual Asset Verification, how long do you have to submit?

A

45 days.

108
Q

Safe requirements for a Match firearm at home?

A

Safe must be bolted in place, not easily moved and weigh more than 150 pounds.

109
Q

Load and carry for the M240 during normal operations?

A

Load and carry the M240 with the bolt in the closed position, NEVER carry a loaded M240 with the bolt to the rear.

110
Q

When should you not engage the M240’s safety?

A

When the bolt is in the forward position.

111
Q

How far can a AP round core ricochet?

A

Out to 200 yards in any direction.

112
Q

If target lead is 1/2, the lead is?

A

1/2 as well.

113
Q

If the target speed is double?

A

The lead is double.

114
Q

Personnel who operate explosive laden vehicles must have a physical when?

A

Every 5 years until 50, then every 2 years until 60, then annually thereafter.

115
Q

During an ammo handling evolution, what is the minimum fly over altitude for aircraft?

A

Less than 500ft.

116
Q

When must the Explosive Safety Officer be notified of lightning during an ammo evolution?

A

If a lightning strike is imminent or a storm is within 5 miles of the work site.

117
Q

When loading the Winchester Model 70, what position must the safety be in?

A

Intermediate.

118
Q

Standard method of carry for the Winchester Model 70?

A
  1. 3 round in internal magazine.
  2. Empty chamber.
  3. Bolt closed, safety fully on.
119
Q

When downloading the M107, why must you hold the charging handle to the rear?

A

There is no bolt catch.

120
Q

What are the characteristics of the SLTG’s 13 & 15 ounce projectiles?

A

15 - 13/16 inch diameter, 3 1/2 inches long and painted red.

13 - 13/16 inch diameter, 3 inches long and not painted.

121
Q

What is the breaking strength and length of SLTG shot line?

A

100 pounds and 550 feet.

122
Q

What knots are used for securing shot line?

A

One round turn and four loose half hitches.

123
Q

When must a CASREP be submitted?

A

Within 24 hours of discovery and cannot be repaired within 48 hours.

124
Q

What category of CASREP does the CG not use?

A

Category 1.

125
Q

When must a CASUP be submitted?

A
  1. Every 30 days.
  2. To report a change in equipment condition.
  3. To report a successful post-repair test.
126
Q

C2OIX messaging precedence categories?

A

Routine (R): not sufficiently urgent, 6 hour response.
Priority (P): concerning operations in progress, 3 hour response.
Immediate (O): gravely affect national forces, 30 minutes response.
Flash (Z): initial enemy contact, combat messages, extreme urgency, 10 minutes response.

127
Q

When can a vessel retain it’s ammunition onboard in a shipyard?

A

When the period is less than 45 days on a ship by ship basis.