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GM1 SWE > May 2022 > Flashcards

May 2022 Flashcards

(127 cards)

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1
Q

When will a CODR be submitted?

A

When munitions or weapons systems fail to function in accordance with their design/intent and result in no property damage or injury.

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2
Q

When will an EER be submitted?

A

When an event involves munitions that unintentionally detonate, fire, burn, deflagrate, launch, leak, etc. and DOES NOT result in a mishap severity classification.

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3
Q

When will an EMR be submitted?

A

Same criteria as an EER however the event DOES RESULT in a mishap severity classification of class A, B, or C.

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4
Q

What are the two types of firearms discharges?

A

Intentional discharge. (Range, blanks, marking, line of duty.)

Unintentional. (Discharge of a firearm either accidentally or through negligence.)

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5
Q

Definition of an accidental discharge?

A

Malfunction of the firearm or ammunition and is not caused by the member lack of disregard.

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6
Q

Definition of a negligent discharge?

A

Discharge due to the disregard of or failure to follow policies or procedures.

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7
Q

Command responsibilities for an unintentional discharge?

A

Members firearms quals must be suspended, within 24 hours report discharge to CG-721, report via CODR/EER/EMR, conduct an investigation, send results of investigation and quals to first Flag Officer.

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8
Q

Command responsibilities for a CG discharged firearm?

A

Weapon must be segregated, firearm must be tagged, firearm must be shipped to nearest FORCECOM within 3 days along with:

  • Rounds count
  • 12 months of PMS history
  • Any recovered she’ll casings or equipment
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9
Q

Who has final authority regarding an unintentionally discharge CG firearm?

A

The first Flag Officer in the CoC.

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10
Q

What articles of the UCMJ might a person who negligently discharged a CG firearm be subject to?

A

Article 92, 108, 109, 134

If a death occurs: 119

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11
Q

MLOS classifications?

A

Missing: You don’t know where the item is.
Lost: You know where the loss occurred, ex. A firearm fell overboard.
Stolen: Reasonable indication someone is at fault or responsible.

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12
Q

MLOS timeline?

A

Quick look - 1 hour

Report to CO/OIC - 2 hours

Send MLOS message and make appropriate log entries - 12 hours

CGIS and NCIC entries - 24 hours

ATR - 48 hours

Report of survey to 721 and CG property - 10 days

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13
Q

Types of expenditures?

A 
Combat
Operational
Training
Structural and OP Test Fire
Range
Marking and Blank
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14
Q

What are QPR’s based on?

A

The number of assigned members that need firearms qualifications.

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15
Q

Can a member with a Level II firearms qual fill the role of a Level III member?

A

No, however a Level III can fill a Level II position.

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16
Q

How long do you have to submit a QPR update?

A

Within 60 days of increase or decrease.

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17
Q

When can commercial ammo be fired in a CG owned firearm?

A
  1. When approved by 721 for a specific mission or training.
  2. When procured with personal or morale funds for CG owned morale firearms.
  3. When procured with personal funds for an assigned CG match firearm.
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18
Q

Deviation categories for Explosive Safety Program?

A
  1. Waiver - 1 day to 2 years.

2. Exemption - 2 years to 5 years.

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19
Q

What is the designation for the Government Motor Vehicle Operator Card?

A

(OF-346)

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20
Q

If transporting munitions onboard a CG aircraft, what manual must you use?

A

Coast Guard Air Operations Manual (COMDINST M3710.1)

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21
Q

When transporting munitions, when must you have two armed CG members?

A
  1. Firearms and munitions together.
  2. Transporting C/D 1.1, 1.2, 1.5 or 1.6.
  3. One way trip greater than 2 hours.
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22
Q

When is one armed CG member required?

A
  1. Gross weight of C/D 1.3 is more than 100 pounds.

2. Gross weight of C/D 1.4 is more than 300 pounds.

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23
Q

Canine Explosive Detection Teams are authorized to have one armed member when?

A

Transportation of CEDT explosive training aids. Aids will not exceed 2.5 pounds NEW.

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24
Q

Does the CG Honor Guard require armed escorts?

A

No, not when transporting blank ammo for honor guard events.

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25
What documentation must CG members have when transporting munitions?
1. Government Motor Vehicle Operator Card (OF-346). | 2. DD-1149 or DD-1348-1A.
26
Allocation of munitions (NCEA)?
FORCECOM District Sector Units
27
When should you submit an NCEA augmentation?
Once you reach 80% expenditure.
28
Rotation of munitions (FIFO).
1. C/C Bravo or Tango must be used for training before C/C Alpha or Charlie. 2. C/C Charlie must be used for operations and trading before C/C Alpha.
29
Direct Reporters VS. Indirect Reporters?
Direct reporters provide information directly to NAVSUP or FORCECOM. Indirect report via ATR and PLR to a direct reporter.
30
What is the difference between OIS-W (Wholesale) and OIS-R (Retail)?
1. OIS-W allows FORCECOM to track munitions being held by direct reporters. 2. OIS-R allows direct reporters to access and manage munitions of their sub units.
31
Disposition of unserviceable munitions?
1. C/D 1.3 & 1.4 must be returned to the servicing FORCECOM. | 2. C/D 1.2 must be turned into the nearest DoD facility.
32
When must the CO/OIC ensure grounding tests are conducted?
Every 24 months, tests must be conducted by a graduate of Electrical Explosive Safety for Naval Facilities, AMMO-29 or equivalent.
33
What C/D of explosives can a CG handling facility accommodate?
C/D 1.1 &1.2.
34
CG certified handling facilities require what two personnel?
Explosive Safety Officer & Safety Loading Officer.
35
Where are the CG certified handling facilities?
``` Base Boston Base Portsmouth Base Miami Sector Key West Sector San Juan Sector St. Petersburg Base Ketchikan Base Kodiak ```
36
What weapons class require Commandant approval prior to removal from the serialization program?
Only weapons in condition codes A & F.
37
What percentage of spare weapons must district maintain?
10% of all operational firearms fielded with their AOR.
38
Who is allowed to maintain spare inventory of P239’s, morale and match weapons?
SARF.
39
What weapons WILL NOT be loaned to other agencies without prior approval?
MK19 Grenade Launchers, M2HB’s and M240’s without CG-721 approval.
40
When can an individual upgrade their marksmanship award?
Only allowed to upgrade once every three years.
41
What is the standard load out for Bear Protection?
.375 Magnum Rifle, ammo pouch and 10 rounds. Or Shotgun, web belt, ammo pouch, and 20 rounds of ammo.
42
Standard method of carry for the M107?
Bolt forward on an empty chamber. Magazine inserted (10 rounds). Selector on Safe.
43
Standard method of carry for the Winchester .375 H&H Magnum?
Bolt forward and locked on an empty chamber. 3 rounds in the magazine. Safety lock and safe.
44
What provider must you use when shipping firearms?
USPS or a commercial service utilizing a Commercial Bill of Lading.
45
M2HB barrel marking?
M2HB - affixed with a marked dog tag, must have 1 to 2 digits. Barrels can also be stamped with 1 to 2 digits. Stamp will be no larger than 1/4 in.
46
M240 barrel marking?
Must be paired to specific receiver, barrels must have last 4 digits of receiver. Stamp metal dog tag to front sight, stamp will be no larger than 1/4in. Alternate last 4 digits on flat part of barrel carrying handle, no larger than 1/4 in.
47
Who can perform IMA on match firearms?
SARF & CG Academy armorers, if none available must be sent to approved manufacturer gunsmith.
48
4 different types of range instructors?
FAI, PMI, AMI, CQCI.
49
What are the 2 FAI competency codes?
HH/Active, HJ/Inactive.
50
When a DoD waterborne range is unavailable, what criteria must be met for a live fire exercise?
Must be conducted 12NM seaward from baseline of U.S. Territorial seas.
51
What CFR defines testing/training with the LA51?
33 CFR 328.3a
52
How long must you maintain ordnance logs?
Minimum of 3 years.
53
What is the code for NSWC-CD?
JXNP.
54
Form number for QTPFRA (Lautenberg amendment)?
DD FORM 2760.
55
76mm IV baseline requirements?
1. 3000ft for barrels tested before July 1983. | 2. Barrels after July 1983, IV is etched at the 12 o’clock position of barrel line under water jacket.
56
NALC’s for depleted uranium, 20mm and 25mm?
20mm - A675/A676 25mm - A979/A983 Likely to include DU next to NALC.
57
How many NULKA dummy cartridges does the USCG own?
Three total.
58
What is Class/Division 1.1?
Mass detonating.
59
What is Class/Division 1.2?
Non-mass detonating - fragment producing.
60
What is Class/Division 1.3?
Mass fire, minor blast or fragment.
61
What is Class/Division 1.4?
Moderate fire, no significant blast or hazard.
62
Condition code A?
RFI, issue without qualification.
63
Condition code B?
RFI, issue with qualification.
64
Condition code C?
RFI, Priority issue.
65
Condition code D?
NRFI but serviceable, test/modification.
66
Condition code E?
NRFI, limited restoration.
67
Condition code F?
NRFI, repairable.
68
Condition code G?
NRFI, incomplete.
69
Condition code H?
NRFI, condemned.
70
Condition code J?
NRFI, in stock awaiting reclassification.
71
Condition code K?
NRFI, return for use by weapons activity.
72
Condition code L?
NRFI, litigation or pending litigation.
73
Condition code M?
NRFI, in-work.
74
Condition code N?
RFI, ammo suitable for emergency combat use only.
75
Condition code P?
NRFI, reclamation held for cannibalization at a weapons activity.
76
Condition code T?
Training use only.
77
Condition code V?
Waste military munitions.
78
When must an operation unit submit its TTCOR?
By April 15th.
79
When must sectors and districts submit their TTCOR?
By May 15th.
80
When must units who receive NCEA directly from FORCECOM submit their TTCOR?
By June 15th.
81
What percentage increase for TTCOR requires an explanation?
Above 10%.
82
When must you also explain your TTCOR?
When requesting a new NALC.
83
What is the form number for a master/lot ammo stock card?
NAVSUP FORM 1296.
84
When must an ATR be submitted?
Within 72 hours of expenditure.
85
When must all other transactions be submitted?
Within 48 hours of event.
86
What manual should be used to reference ATR’s & MILSTRIPS?
OPNAVINST 5102.1
87
What is the MPC for weekly pyrotechnics inspection?
KB0096.0
88
Minimum emergency jettison requirements?
At least 12NM from land with in water that is 500 fathoms deep.
89
How many round are moved through the CIWS clearing sector?
Ten rounds.
90
When in an emergency jettison situation, what can the CO authorize?
Direct jettison overboard regardless of water depth.
91
What is the CFR # regarding emergency jettison?
40 CFR PART 220.
92
MPPEHH discovery precautions?
Never disturb, do not transmit on radios or cell phones within 500 feet.
93
If MPPEHH is a MK25 or MK58, what must you do?
Positively identify, place in fireproof container completely submerged in water.
94
Who is the CG’s CAD administrator?
CG ALC Elizabeth City, NC.
95
When removing or installing CAD’s what paperwork must you do?
INSTL Transaction.
96
Difference between ORDALT and SHIPALT?
ORDALT’s are modifications to the ordnance equipment only. SHIPALT’s involve modifications to ship’s structure.
97
After an ORDALT how long do you have to submit a 4790/CK to SFLC?
30 days.
98
During a MK75 misfire, what degree of train must you place the GWS in?
Between 308 degrees and 052 degrees relative.
99
During a MK75 misfire, if internal cooling is required what must the GCP operator do?
Elevation to 000 degrees and train the GWS to the port or starboard aft cutout.
100
Define Title I and Title II firearms?
Title I - non-automatic rifles, shotguns, handguns, frames and receivers. Title II - Machine guns, suppressors, SBR’s and destructive devices.
101
Aircraft M240 trigger housing lock wire instructions?
Make 8/10 twists, while leaving 1/4 - 1/2 inch long pig-tail at the twisted end.
102
M240 mount for the HH-60?
M144 machine gun mount, holds 200 rounds.
103
Cyclic rate of the MK19 GMG?
325-375 RPM.
104
Maximum distance of MK19 MGM?
2212 meters.
105
M203 maximum distance?
400 meters.
106
Are 40mm HV/LV grenades interchangeable between the MK19 and M203?
No.
107
After receiving your Annual Asset Verification, how long do you have to submit?
45 days.
108
Safe requirements for a Match firearm at home?
Safe must be bolted in place, not easily moved and weigh more than 150 pounds.
109
Load and carry for the M240 during normal operations?
Load and carry the M240 with the bolt in the closed position, NEVER carry a loaded M240 with the bolt to the rear.
110
When should you not engage the M240’s safety?
When the bolt is in the forward position.
111
How far can a AP round core ricochet?
Out to 200 yards in any direction.
112
If target lead is 1/2, the lead is?
1/2 as well.
113
If the target speed is double?
The lead is double.
114
Personnel who operate explosive laden vehicles must have a physical when?
Every 5 years until 50, then every 2 years until 60, then annually thereafter.
115
During an ammo handling evolution, what is the minimum fly over altitude for aircraft?
Less than 500ft.
116
When must the Explosive Safety Officer be notified of lightning during an ammo evolution?
If a lightning strike is imminent or a storm is within 5 miles of the work site.
117
When loading the Winchester Model 70, what position must the safety be in?
Intermediate.
118
Standard method of carry for the Winchester Model 70?
1. 3 round in internal magazine. 2. Empty chamber. 3. Bolt closed, safety fully on.
119
When downloading the M107, why must you hold the charging handle to the rear?
There is no bolt catch.
120
What are the characteristics of the SLTG’s 13 & 15 ounce projectiles?
15 - 13/16 inch diameter, 3 1/2 inches long and painted red. 13 - 13/16 inch diameter, 3 inches long and not painted.
121
What is the breaking strength and length of SLTG shot line?
100 pounds and 550 feet.
122
What knots are used for securing shot line?
One round turn and four loose half hitches.
123
When must a CASREP be submitted?
Within 24 hours of discovery and cannot be repaired within 48 hours.
124
What category of CASREP does the CG not use?
Category 1.
125
When must a CASUP be submitted?
1. Every 30 days. 2. To report a change in equipment condition. 3. To report a successful post-repair test.
126
C2OIX messaging precedence categories?
Routine (R): not sufficiently urgent, 6 hour response. Priority (P): concerning operations in progress, 3 hour response. Immediate (O): gravely affect national forces, 30 minutes response. Flash (Z): initial enemy contact, combat messages, extreme urgency, 10 minutes response.
127
When can a vessel retain it’s ammunition onboard in a shipyard?
When the period is less than 45 days on a ship by ship basis.

GM1 SWE (1 decks)

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