MBE Rules - All Subjects Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

Admissibility of Criminal Defendant’s Prior Crimes or Bad Acts

A

Evidence of a criminal defendant’s prior crimes or bad acts may be admissible for relevant, noncharacter purposes (MIMIC – Motive, Intent, Absence of Mistake, Identity, Common Plan of Scheme, and Other (knowledge of crime))

Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Inadmissbility of Criminal Defendant’s Prior Crimes or Bad Acts

A

Under Federal Rule of Evidence (FRE) 404, evidence of a criminal defendant’s prior crimes or wrongful acts is inadmissible if it is **used to show the defendant’s propensity **(or inclination) to commit the charged crime.

This helps to ensure that the jury convicts the defendant for committing the charged crime—not for having a bad character.

Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Can a witness or defendant be **impeached ** with evidence of prior conviction?

A

Yes. Any witness, including a criminal defendant, can be impeached with evidence of a prior conviction for a crime involving dishonesty if the conviction occurred within the **previous 10 years **

Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Can a child testify as a witness?

A

Every person, including a child, is generally presumed competent to be a witness until proven otherwise. The child must have personal knowledge and if a child’s competency is questioned, then the court must evaluate the child’s:

  • Intelligence
  • ability to differentiate between truth and falsehood and
  • understanding of the importance of telling the truth.

Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Admissibility of a Remedial Measure and Timing of Injury

A

Evidence of a remedial measure is inadmissible if it was undertaken by the defendant after the plaintiff was injured.

A remedial measure undertaken before the plaintiff was injured is not subject to exclusion.

Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When is an out of court statement excluded from hearsay rule and admissible?

A

If:

(1) the declarant **testifies **and is subject to cross-examination at trial and

(2) the declarant’s statement satisfies any of the following criteria:

  • it is inconsistent with the declarant’s testimony and was given under penalty of perjury at a trial, hearing, deposition, or other proceeding
  • it is consistent with the declarant’s testimony and offered to (1) rebut an allegation that the declarant recently fabricated that testimony or has testified due to recent improper influence or (2) rehabilitate the declarant’s credibility when attacked on other grounds or
  • it identifies a person as someone the declarant perceived earlier.

Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Is a judgment of acquital an exception to hearsay?

A

No. One exception exists for judgments of conviction. However, no such exception exists for judgments of acquittal.

Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Can evidence of a plea bargain be used to impeach?

A

Yes. Plea bargains can be used for impeachment purposes when the defendant who made the plea is a prosecution witness in another defendant’s trial

Evidence

A witness can be impeached with evidence of self-interest or bias that may motivate the witness to testify falsely—e.g., benefits received in exchange for testimony.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is evidence of a witness’s juvenile conviction admissible in civil cases?

A

No, evidence of a juvenile conviction is never admissible in a civil case to attack a witness’s character for truthfulness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Public Records Hearsay Exception

A

Under the hearsay exception for absent public records, testimony by a public official that a diligent search failed to disclose a public record is admissible to prove that the record does not exist—if the public office regularly kept records for a matter of that kind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is an original or document document not necessary?

A

when the contents go toward a collateral issue—i.e., an unimportant or undisputed issue or fact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Marital-Communications Privilege

A

Protects confidential communications made between spouses during the marriage.

Under the majority view, either spouse may assert the privilege—even after termination of the marriage—and:
* (1) refuse to testify about the communication or
* (2) prevent the other spouse from testifying.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is Character Evidence Admissible?

A

Such evidence is admissible substantively in rare instances when character (or a character trait) is an **essential element **of a civil claim, criminal charge, or asserted defense—e.g., in a defamation action. In such cases, character evidence can be introduced by any party through either:

  1. Reputation or opinion testimony on that essential character trait or
  2. Specific instances of conduct (e.g., prior instances of adultery) demonstrating that trait.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is an affidavit former testimony?

A

No – it does not fall within a hearsay exception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If witness is unavailable but there is an affidavit, it that admissible?

A

No – the affidavit is hearsay and does not fall within an exception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Is evidence of a habit admissible?

A

Yes. Evidence of a person’s habit is **admissible **to prove that the person acted in accordance with that habit on a particular occasion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Can a party attack a witness’s character for truthfulness?

A

Yes. A party can attack any witness’s character for truthfulness with reputation or opinion testimony OR with specific instances of conduct (SICs) that are probative of that character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Specific Incidents of Conduct for attacking witness’s character for truthfulness

A

Only two types of SICs are admissible for this purpose: (1) convictions for a felony or crime of dishonesty and (2) other bad acts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Does an arrest qualify as a bad act for witness character?

A

No. A mere arrest does not qualify as a bad act that can be used to attack a witness’s character for truthfulness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Expert Witness Testimony

A

An expert witness typically may offer an opinion on an ultimate issue. That opinion may be based on facts and data that the expert has personally observed or has been made aware.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens when the facts/data an expert witness relies on is not available?

A

When such facts and data are not admissible (e.g., because they constitute hearsay), the opinion itself is still admissible if **experts in that particular field would reasonably rely **on those kinds of facts and data in forming an opinion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When does federal law versus state law apply for Rules of Evidence?

A

Federal Rule of Evidence 302 governs the application of law to presumptions in federal civil cases. Under this rule, when state law supplies the rule of decision for a claim or defense (i.e., in diversity cases such as this one), the court should apply state law to determine the effect of a presumption on the claim or defense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How much notice must be provided to the other party for a default judgment hearing?

A

10 Days — otherwise party can seek a motion to set aside the default judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is a life tenant liable to the holder of the future interest for property taxes?

A

Only to the extent of rents received, or the fair market value of the property if the life tenant is occupying the property. If the life tenant is not occupying and not renting the property, then the future interest holder cannot sue for unpaid taxes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
States and localities cannot require US citizenship for access to
Private employment or for government benefits
26
On the bar exam, what answer to select for fighting word statues?
The speech may not be protected and the statute must be struck down as vague and over broad.
27
What is a fixture?
A chattel that has been so affixed to land that is has ceased being personal property and has become party of realty
28
What is common ownership?
When a person owns both the land and the fixtures affixed to it.
29
What is divided ownership?
Occurs when a landlord owns the property but someone else affixes the chattel to the land
30
When do items become part of realty?
When the items become incorproated into the realty so fully that they lose their identity (similar to when removal would be considered a loss of destruction)
31
Accession - define
Is the term used to describe the intent of the annexor to make the chattels a permanent party of the real estate
32
Acting in Concert - Torts
Under joint and several liability, when two Ds act in concert and cause harm to the P, the P can recover the full amount of P's damages from either D | Ex. illegal drag race, P hurt, can sue both people
33
When con law question has answer choice for general welfare, when should you consider it?
If the question discusses taxing and spending
34
When is necessary and proper a good answer?
If it connects to another power because the clause ALONE does NOT give congress power
35
When is necessary and proper a good answer?
If it connects to another power because the clause ALONE does NOT give congress power
36
What three things trigger Article IV privileges and immunities
1. State **enacted** law 2. It was about **out of state citizens** 3. it was **commercial**
37
Can states regulate if interestate commerce is burdened?
States cannot regulate to **unduly burden** interstate commerce
38
Can president pardon for a state crime?
NO
39
When can president use pardon power?
For federal crimes and offenses
40
Is the pardon power plenary (absolute)?
NO
41
Does the pardon power extend to impeachment?
NO
42
Main issue when procedural due process
Likely hearing
43
How does due process work?
If the govt is going to take your life, liberty, or property, you are entitlted to the due process of law: you get notice and you get a hearing
44
Who does the contract clause of Article I, Section 10 apply to?
The States -- the states cannot enact laws that impact your contracts
45
What are you fundamental rights?
1. Righ tto Vote 2. Right to interstate travel 3. First amendment 4. Privacy
46
Is the right to employment a fundamental right?
No! - It is a property right, so due process but NOT substantive due process
47
What is the police power?
State's ability to regulate healthy and safety
48
Does the police power trump the contract clause?
YES
49
Who does the ministerial exception apply to?
No individuals but institutions (like a catholic school)
50
Does the ministerial exception protect against criminal liability?
NO, only civil liability
51
Can the govt provide busing to religious schools?
Yes
52
STandard for content neutral regulation?
Narrowly tailored to further a significant govt interest (IS) and leave open alternative channels of communication
52
STandard for content neutral regulation?
Narrowly tailored to further a significant govt interest (IS) and leave open alternative channels of communication
53
Standard for Content Specific regulation
Necessary to achieve a compelling gvot interest and narrowly tailored to meet that interest (SS)
54
What does Article III regulate?
It limits the jurisdiction of federal ocurts to actual cases or controversies.
55
What is the comity clause?
Article IV privileges and immunities -- prohibits states from discriminating against citizens of other states by denying them a right of state citizenship – including the right to practice a commercial trade or business
56
What is Ex Post Facto Law?
State/fed may not retroactively alter cirminal offense or punishment that puts D in worse position
57
Will Ex post facto apply to civil laws?
Likely NO b/c civil laws do not put the D in a worse position. But it will apply to criminal laws
58
Will Ex post facto apply to civil laws?
Likely NO b/c civil laws do not put the D in a worse position. But it will apply to criminal laws | Trigger: kidnapper statute -- consitutional b/c not worse off position
59
Do public employees have procedural due process rights regarding terminations?
Yes. Public employes must receive: 1. **Notice** of his/her alleged misconduct 2. A **pre-termination opportunity** to respond to that allegation and 3. A **post-termination evidentiary hearing** to determine if the termination was warranted
60
What scrutiny appleis to retroactive civil laws that impair an oridinary right?
Rational Basis
60
What scrutiny appleis to retroactive civil laws that impair an oridinary right?
Rational Basis -- challenger shows that the law's retroactive application has no rational relation to any legitimate government interest.
61
Govt can punish the right to association where:
1. are **active members **of a subversive organization 2. **know **of the organization's **illegal objectives** and 3. specifically **intend** to further those objectives.
62
Section 2 of the 14th Amendment allows what?
States **may prohibit felons**—even those unconditionally released from prison—from **voting** in elections.
63
What is the enclave clause of Article I, Section 8?
The enclave clause gives Congress plenary (i.e., exclusive) legislative power over the District of Columbia.
64
Can Congress tax exported goods?
No
65
Who has the exclusive power to recognize foreign governments?
The President
66
21st Amendment
The right for states to regulate the use of alcohol within their borders