MCAT Psychology and Sociology Flashcards

1
Q

What are effects do opiates have on withdrawl symptoms?

A

Understanding that opiates decrease withdrawl symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does operationalization mean in the context of designing an experiment?

A

Operationalization is the process of making a variable measurable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some possible purposes of a positive control group?

A

Positive control groups can provide a basis for comparing outcomes of an experimental treatment and validate the experimental procedure by ruling out that any negative results were the result of technical errors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a case-control study?

A

A case-control study, is a study in which people with an outcome of interest (cases) are compared to those without that outcome (controls).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some prerequisites that are needed in order to gain a study approval?

A

-Ensure a favorable risk/benefit ratio, have informed consent, show respect to participating parties, have scientific validity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of study does publication bias effect the most?

A

Publication bias effects all studies, regardless of the design.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe a single blinded study.

A

A single blided study is when the observer is blinded, but the participant is not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe a retrospective study.

A

A study that looks back to analyze previously compiled medical records, “backward-looking” design.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is construct validity?

A

This refers to the degree of which items measure what the researchers intended for them to measure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of study is considered to be the source for the strongest scientific evidence?

A

The meta-analyses, because they can synthesize results from multiple randomized controlled trials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What functions would be affected if damage was to be sustianed to the midbrian?

A

Visual and auditory processing. The midbrain contains the superior and inferior colliculi. The superior colliculus is involved in visual processing, while the inferior colliculus is involved in the auditory relay.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the name of the reflex that occurs in infants in response to a suddent noise in which a abby extends their arms and legs, pulls them back in, throws back their head and cries?

A

The Moro reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What effect does an inhibitory neurotransmitter have on other neurons?

A

Hyperpolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Proprioreceptors detect what?

A

Proprioceptors are responsible for detecting the position of the body in three dimensions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a moderating variable?

A

It modifies the strenght of a pre-existing relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of the semi-circular canals?

A

The semicircular canals are filled with endolymph, and the movement of this fluid against hair cells detects angular acceleration. Pouring cold water into one ear will generate opposite convective currents, leading to reduced ability to interpret angular acceleration, which is initiated when turning the head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is “feature detection”?

A

Feature detection is a phenomenon in which external visual stimuli are filtered and processed by relevance. The stimulus is detected first depends largely on the context of the situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is physiological zero?

A

Physiological zero is the temperature that we perceive as neither hot nor col It roughly corresponds to the temperature of the skin at our peripheries, which is 29°C-32°C or 85°F-90°F – that is, slightly cooler than core body temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are magnocellular cells?

A

Magnocellular cells have low spatial resolution but high temporal resolution, allowing them to form a basis for our detection of objects in motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is top-down processing?

A

Top-down processing is driven by previous experiences. It is used to recognize something familiar without needing to look at it in detail.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is proprioception?

A

Proprioception is our sense of where our own body parts are in space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is top-down processing?

A

Top-down processing refers to perception that is driven by cognition. Your brain applies what it knows and what it expects to perceive and fills in the blanks, so to speak.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is psychophysics?

A

Psychophysics is the scientific study of the relationship between stimuli (quantified in physical terms) and the sensations and perceptions evoked by these stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

During what stage of sleep does a person experience cataplexy, or the partial of total loss of muscle control?

A

REM sleep is characterized by paralysis, swift eye movements, and dreaming. Patients with narcolepsy enter directly into REM sleep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sleep spindles are seen on an EEG reading in a person who is in what stage of sleep?

A

Sleep spindles, or high-frequency oscillations, would be found on the EEG of a patient in stage 2 sleep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Drug addiction is reinforced by _________(hormone/neurotransmitter) release in the mesolimbic pathway, which includes the nucleus accumbens.

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What class of chemical/substances are most likely to cause short-term memory loss?

A

Depressants, which includes opiates, alcohol, barbituates, and benziodiazpines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What term is used to describe that unattended-to information is attenuated, or reduced in intensity. But, it is not discarded entirely. For example, when infomation like out name appearing in a background conversation, might jump out to us from our current conversation.

A

This is called Treisman’s attenuation model. When you overhear your name in a background conversation, this is called the cocktail party effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are dyssomnias? Give three examples.

A

Dyssomnias are sleep-wake disorders. Ex: insomnia, narcolepsy, sleep apnea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are Gardner’s 7 intelligences?

A
  1. Musical intelligence 2. Bodily-kinesthetic 3. Interpersonal 4. Intrapersonal 5. Visual-spatial 6. Logical-mathematical 7. Linguistic intelligence.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the theory developed by Noam Chomsky, which states that language is innate to all human beings?

A

The Nativist Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Wernicke’s area, which is located in the temporal lobe, is responsible for what?

A

Wernicke’s area is responsible for language comprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In Noam Chomsky’s Nativist Theory, what does the term language acquisition device mean?

A

The term is used in theory’s explanation for the fact that nearly all typical humans learn language at a young age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the gestalt principle?

A

It is the concept that the human mind sees patterns in incomplete representations of objects or concepts and is able to deduct the nature of the whole from these patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is amodal perception?

A

Amodal perception refers to humans tending to view objects that are partly occluded as whole objects,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If someone had severe damage to their left parietal lobe, what impact would this have on their cognitive abilities?

A

Someone with left parietal lobe damage would have difficulty recreating details, such as exact lines of overlap or intersection in a drawing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is reification?

A

Reification is when we percieve more information that is actually there, our brain fills in the blanks of an image.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is are more sensitive in low light, rods or cones?

A

In low light, rods are more sensitive. This leads to images being percieved as more washed out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is theory is described by the following: argues that humans are pre-programmed with the innate ability to develop language, utilizing what is known as the language acquisition device in their brain?

A

The innatist or also known as the nativist theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What emotion response theory postulates that emotional state and physiological response develope independently of eachother?

A

These findings suggest that subjective emotional state and physiological response to a stimulus develop independently of one another. This is consistent with the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
Which of the following hormones would most likely NOT be present in elevated concentrations in the serum of chronically stressed animals?
A. Cortisol
B. Epinephrine
C. Growth hormone
D. Glucagon
A

C is correct. Stress induces the release of corticosteroids and catecholamines. Stress also induces the release of glucagon, which facilitates the elevation of blood glucose to provide readily available energy. Secretion of growth hormone is not a component of the stress response. In fact, chronically stressed children exhibit reduced growth hormone secretion and smaller stature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A

Negative reinforcement occurs when an unpleasant or aversive stimulus is removed if the subject performs the desired behavior. Example: the electrified floor is deactivated if the mouse pulls the lever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

Operant conditioning involves the pairing of reinforcement with a learned behavior. Example, the reinforcement is praise and the behavior is speaking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is opponent-process theory?

A

The opponent-process theory of motivation states that at least some processes (actions) promote opposite physiological responses. For example, a drug user may consume a stimulant, which speeds up his heart rate and keeps him awake. In response, his body will attempt to slow down his heart rate and promote sedative processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In Erikson’s stages of development, what stage (or age range) is associated with the conflict of initiative vs. guilt?

A

Age range 3 to 6, with a central question of: Is it acceptatble for me to take initiative? Resolution: Purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The Freudian defense mechanism of displacement involves what?

A

In Freudian psychology, displacement refers to taking stress out on someone else.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What disease is the result of inadequate production of CNS dopamine? Some symptoms of the disease are: bradykinesia, tremors, and unsteady gait.

A

Parkinson’s disease is a movement disorder resulting from inadequate production of CNS dopamine, resulting in bradykinesia, tremors, and an unsteady gait. This disease is caused by the death of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What cognitive disease involves the abnormal activation of dopaminergic pathways?

A

Schizophrenia is thought to involve the abnormal activation of dopaminergic pathways. Newer antipsychotic medications have largely replaced chlorpromazine, but many of them still function as inhibitors of dopaminergic activity. Some antipsychotics have the side effect of causing Parkinsonian movements by antagonizing dopaminergic pathways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Is bipolar disorder considered a mood disorder or a personality disorder?

A

Bipolar disorder is considered a mood disorder, rather than a personality disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What type of psychological disorder is characterized by physical symptoms that cause significant stress to a patient, but have no clear physical cause?

A

These are called somatic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is described as immutable convictions held by people despite clear evidence that disproves these convictions?

A

These are delusions. Religious or cultural beliefs are an exception to this definition and are not considered delusions. Example fo delusion: a person believes his thoughts are being read and his mind controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Participants in a study were queried a month later about some of the names they were tested on. This type of recall from memory primarily involves what part of the brain?

A

The area of the brain primarliry assocaited with memory retrieval and encoding is the hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the term used to describe the brain’s ability to form multiple synaptic connections about some information?

A

This refers to neuroplasticity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A person tends to prefer a dispositional atribution for one’s good outcomes, but a situational attribution for poor outcomes, this describes what social psychological term?

A

The self-serving bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the different kinds of motivations that are postited by the instinct theory of motivation?

A

The instinct theory of motivation views biological programming as the cause of motivation. The following are the differing types of motivation: unlearned, uniform in expression, universal in the species, unmodifiable, irresistible, automatic, and do not require training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does the term valence mean in terms of psychology?

A

Valence refers to the value that a person sets on the reinforcements or rewards. These values are usually based on an individual’s values, needs, goals, and intrinsic or extrinsic sources of motivation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What type of study design is conducted when past records are examined?

A

Retrospective study design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What type of variable explains the relationship between two other variables?

A

Mediating variable. Example: Consider the relation between social status and frequency of testicular self-exams. Education might be a mediator variable in that it explains why there is a relation between self-exam and social status. This would mean when we remove the effect of education, the relation between the two variables disappears.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Opoids which mimic the efect of endorphins inhibit pain. Where are these hormones produced?

A

Endorphins are produced in the anterior pituitary gland. (LH, FSH, and GH are all produced here as well)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A drive-reduction and cognitive theorist suggest that depression stems from a reduction of what ?

A

A deficiency in arousal can cause depression and lead to a decline in sustaining behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Abnormal functioning of which brain region(s) plays a role in the development of depression?
I. Frontal lobe
II. Limbic system structures
III. Hypothalamus

A

All three could produce symptoms similar to depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the difference between incidence and prevelance?

A

Incidence descrinbes the number of new cases of a disease. Prevelance rates note how common a disease may be.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does the term attrition bias refer to?

A

Attrition bias occurs when participants drop out of a long term experiment or study.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is eustress?

A

Eustress is a positive type of stress that happens when you perceive a situation as challenging, but motivating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is group polarization?

A

Group polarization refers to the tendency to adopt extreme views when in a group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the three core components of emotion?

A
  1. Physiological arousal - your body reacting to emotions 2. Expressive display - you expressing emotion 3. Subjective experiences - you interpreting your emotions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does the Schachter-Singer theory state?

A

The Schachter-Singer theory states that emotion processing has 3 distinct steps: 1. Physiological arousal 2. Cognitive interpretation 3. Experience of the emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the difference between vriable-ratio and variable-interval reinforcement schedules?

A

Variable-ratio: behavior is reinforced after an average, but unpredictible, number of responses. (Ex: Casinos) Variable-interval: behavior is reinforced after an average, but unpredictible, amount of time has passed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the Stroop Effect?

A

The Stroop effect describes why it is harder to reconcile different pieces of information relating to colors than to reconcile pieces of information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is criterion validity?

A

Criterion validity refers to whether a variable is able to predict a certain outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is conflict theory?

A

Conflict theory refers to conflcit within a social class.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is symbolic interactionism?

A

Symbolic interactionism is the view that an individual’s experience influences his or her perceptions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is ethocentrism?

A

Ethocentrism is the tendency to view one’s group and it’s cultural expectations and norms as right, proper, and superior to others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A

Negative reinforcement is reinforcing behavior by removing a negative stimulus, like chores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is compliance?

A

Compliance is superficial, a public change in behavior in response to group pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is cognitive dissonance theory?

A

Cognitive dissonance theory states that people desire consistencey in their life and seeks to explain the justifications used for actions that do not align with their values and evoke cognitive dissonance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is double approach-avoidant conflict?

A

Double approach-avoidant conflict consists of two options with both appealing and negative characteristics. Ex: Jury dilemma could be punishing a criminal (approach) or punishing an innocent (avoidant).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Participants in a study were queried a month later about some of the names they were tested on. This type of recall from memory primarily involves what part of the brain?

A

The area of the brain primarliry assocaited with memory retrieval and encoding is the hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the term used to describe the brain’s ability to form multiple synaptic connections about some information?

A

This refers to neuroplasticity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

A person tends to prefer a dispositional atribution for one’s good outcomes, but a situational attribution for poor outcomes, this describes what social psychological term?

A

The self-serving bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the different kinds of motivations that are postited by the instinct theory of motivation?

A

The instinct theory of motivation views biological programming as the cause of motivation. The following are the differing types of motivation: unlearned, uniform in expression, universal in the species, unmodifiable, irresistible, automatic, and do not require training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What does the term valence mean in terms of psychology?

A

Valence refers to the value that a person sets on the reinforcements or rewards. These values are usually based on an individual’s values, needs, goals, and intrinsic or extrinsic sources of motivation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What type of study design is conducted when past records are examined?

A

Retrospective study design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What type of variable explains the relationship between two other variables?

A

Mediating variable. Example: Consider the relation between social status and frequency of testicular self-exams. Education might be a mediator variable in that it explains why there is a relation between self-exam and social status. This would mean when we remove the effect of education, the relation between the two variables disappears.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Opoids which mimic the efect of endorphins inhibit pain. Where are these hormones produced?

A

Endorphins are produced in the anterior pituitary gland. (LH, FSH, and GH are all produced here as well)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

A drive-reduction and cognitive theorist suggest that depression stems from a reduction of what ?

A

A deficiency in arousal can cause depression and lead to a decline in sustaining behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Abnormal functioning of which brain region(s) plays a role in the development of depression?
I. Frontal lobe
II. Limbic system structures
III. Hypothalamus

A

All three could produce symptoms similar to depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the difference between incidence and prevelance?

A

Incidence descrinbes the number of new cases of a disease. Prevelance rates note how common a disease may be.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What does the term attrition bias refer to?

A

Attrition bias occurs when participants drop out of a long term experiment or study.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is eustress?

A

Eustress is a positive type of stress that happens when you perceive a situation as challenging, but motivating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is group polarization?

A

Group polarization refers to the tendency to adopt extreme views when in a group

92
Q

What are the three core components of emotion?

A
  1. Physiological arousal - your body reacting to emotions 2. Expressive display - you expressing emotion 3. Subjective experiences - you interpreting your emotions
93
Q

What does the Schachter-Singer theory state?

A

The Schachter-Singer theory states that emotion processing has 3 distinct steps: 1. Physiological arousal 2. Cognitive interpretation 3. Experience of the emotion

94
Q

What is the difference between vriable-ratio and variable-interval reinforcement schedules?

A

Variable-ratio: behavior is reinforced after an average, but unpredictible, number of responses. (Ex: Casinos) Variable-interval: behavior is reinforced after an average, but unpredictible, amount of time has passed.

95
Q

What is the Stroop Effect?

A

The Stroop effect describes why it is harder to reconcile different pieces of information relating to colors than to reconcile pieces of information.

96
Q

What is criterion validity?

A

Criterion validity refers to whether a variable is able to predict a certain outcome.

97
Q

What is conflict theory?

A

Conflict theory refers to conflcit within a social class.

98
Q

What is symbolic interactionism?

A

Symbolic interactionism is the view that an individual’s experience influences his or her perceptions.

99
Q

What is ethocentrism?

A

Ethocentrism is the tendency to view one’s group and it’s cultural expectations and norms as right, proper, and superior to others.

100
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A

Negative reinforcement is reinforcing behavior by removing a negative stimulus, like chores.

101
Q

What is compliance?

A

Compliance is superficial, a public change in behavior in response to group pressure.

102
Q

What is cognitive dissonance theory?

A

Cognitive dissonance theory states that people desire consistencey in their life and seeks to explain the justifications used for actions that do not align with their values and evoke cognitive dissonance.

103
Q

What is double approach-avoidant conflict?

A

Double approach-avoidant conflict consists of two options with both appealing and negative characteristics. Ex: Jury dilemma could be punishing a criminal (approach) or punishing an innocent (avoidant).

104
Q

What would a small Ki value indicate about the affinity for a substance?

A

The smaller the Ki, the greater the binding affinity and smaller amount of medication needed IOT inhibit activity.

105
Q

A lack of remorse, empathy, and regard for others are the definitional features of what personality disorder?

A

Antisocial personality disorder (ASPD)

106
Q

What stage in Kohlberg’s moral development model is described by: in this stage an individual is motivated to comply with social order solely by a punishment for not comlplying.

A

The obedience and punishment stage of Kohlberg’s moral development model.

107
Q

What term is used to describe the idea that dominates the consciousness of exploited groups and classes which, at the same time justifies and continues their exploitation?

A

Fals consciousness. Ex: workers in an electronics factory are told by their manages to work harder for low wages with the hopes that they will get promoted. Their managers are then seen as allies and not the opposition that exploits them.

108
Q

What does Schachter-Singer theory state?

A

Event -> Arousal -> Reasoning -> Emotion

109
Q

What is the difference between moderating and mediating variables?

A

A moderating variable influences the strength of the relationship between IV and DV. A mediating variable is used to explain the relationship between IV and DV.

110
Q

What does it mean if there is a spatial inequality between two areas of a city?

A

Spatial inequality refers to the uneven distribution of resources between particular areas. (Ex. one area may have more accessibility to stores, clean water, medical facilities)

111
Q

What does the Massey and Denton concentration index denote?

A

The Massy and Denton concentraion index denotes the proportion of physical space that a minority group occupies in a city.

112
Q

What is a caste system?

A

A caste system is a closed social system. It values ascribed status (features or qualities born into) vs achieved status (status earned).

113
Q

What does the term emigrate describe?

A

To emigrate is the act of leaving a familiar country.

114
Q

What does a mediating variable describe?

A

A mediating variable explains the relationship between the independent variable and the dependent variable.

115
Q

What is a confounding variable?

A

Confounding variables can be thought of as factors that stem from the failure to properly control an experiment. (A researcher always strives to decrease these variables)

116
Q

According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, at what age range and what stage are conservation tasks mastered?

A

Conservation tasks are mastered during the concrete operations stage, which goes from 7 - 11 or 12.

117
Q

Interoceptive awareness is regulated by what system?

A

Interoceptive awareness is described as increased sensativity to internal bodily sensations (heartbeat and blood pressure), which are regulated by the autonomic nervous system.

118
Q

What theory states the following: optimal performance requires optimal arousal and that arousal levels that are too high or too low will impede performance.

A

The optimal arousal theory

119
Q

What would a high measurement of electrical conductivity of the skin be used to indacate?

A

A high level of electrical conductivity of the skin is a physiological indication of increased sympathetic arousal, associated with anxiety.

120
Q

What does Selye’s general adapation syndrome state about peoples responses to stressors?

A

Selye’s general adaptation syndrome staes that people’s responses to various stressors is similar.

121
Q

Damage to what structure in the nervous system would cause problems in a person’s ability to persom synchronous behaviors?

A

Damage to the cerebellum, which is most likely to be involved in the execution of coordianted motor tasks.

122
Q

If given the median value for a set of numbers, what information does this provide?

A

The median splits the sample distribution of values in half. Half the sample is higher and half the sample is lower.

123
Q

What is gentrification?

A

Gentrification is the reinvestment in lower income neighborhoods in urban areas, which results from the influx of more affluent groups.

124
Q

What is group-polarization?

A

This refers to the fact that people’s attitudes toward some attitude / object become more extreme after interacting with like-minded individuals.

125
Q

How would you describe some that is a “valid measure”?

A

A valid measure is something that actually measures what it is intended to assess.

126
Q

According to Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, who would likely deal with the challenges of generativity versus stagnation?

A

In Erikson’s theory, the generativity versus self-absorption crisis occurs in mid-adulthood. Thus, the “adults” experience this stage.

127
Q

What is the capacity of working memory?

A

Research with adults led to the belief that the capacity of working memory was between 5 and 9 items. The so-called “magic number 7 ± 2” was the name George Miller gave to this estimate.

128
Q

What is role strain?

A

Role strain is the tension that results from competing demands within the context of a single role.

129
Q

What is role conflict?

A

Role conflict is the tension between different roles that a single individual may hold.

130
Q

What is more stable socially, a dyad or a triad?

A

The triad (3 person group) is more stable than the dyad (2 person group) because there are additional social ties.

131
Q

What is a mixed methods study?

A

The bringing together of quantitative methods and qualitative methods is referred to as mixed methods in sociology.

132
Q

What is conflict theory?

A

Conflict theory emphasizes the competition between groups over the allocation of societal resources. It assumes that power and authority are unequally distributed across society and that groups try to maintain their advantages.

133
Q

What is proactive interference?

A

Proactive interference involves the interference of information from long term memory with new information.

134
Q

What is social stratification?

A

The objective hierarchy in a society, and often more specifically addresses the class-based hierarchy.

135
Q

What is social reproduction?

A

This refers to the perpetuation of inequality through social institutions.

136
Q

What term describes: learning without an explicit change in behavior?

A

Latent learning describes process.

137
Q

What does Kohlberg’s preconventional stage of moral development describe?

A

In this stage, morality is determined by what punished or rewarded.

138
Q

What is a periphery nation?

A

Periphery nations are described as less economically developed with weak governments and institutions.

139
Q

According to Mead, what do the “I” and the “Me” mean in terms of our unified self ?

A

The “I” is the spontaneous and autonomous part of the self, and the “Me” is the part of the self that is formed in interaction with others and with the general social environment.

140
Q

What type of response is described: a response to an event that is naturally fear-arousing.

A

This describes an unconditioned response.

141
Q

What type of memory will be engaged when being presented with target words while repeating a sentence ?

A

The phonological loop of working memory will be engaged.

142
Q

What is ethocentrism?

A

Ethocentrism is the tendency to look at other cultures through one’s own culture. Bias and prejudice can be related to this term.

143
Q

Using one’s social networks for gain is an example of what?

A

This is an example of social capital .

144
Q

According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, at what age range and what stage are conservation tasks mastered?

A

Conservation tasks are mastered during the concrete operations stage, which goes from 7 - 11 or 12.

145
Q

Interoceptive awareness is regulated by what system?

A

Interoceptive awareness is described as increased sensativity to internal bodily sensations (heartbeat and blood pressure), which are regulated by the autonomic nervous system.

146
Q

What theory states the following: optimal performance requires optimal arousal and that arousal levels that are too high or too low will impede performance.

A

The optimal arousal theory

147
Q

What would a high measurement of electrical conductivity of the skin be used to indacate?

A

A high level of electrical conductivity of the skin is a physiological indication of increased sympathetic arousal, associated with anxiety.

148
Q

What does Selye’s general adapation syndrome state about peoples responses to stressors?

A

Selye’s general adaptation syndrome staes that people’s responses to various stressors is similar.

149
Q

Damage to what structure in the nervous system would cause problems in a person’s ability to persom synchronous behaviors?

A

Damage to the cerebellum, which is most likely to be involved in the execution of coordianted motor tasks.

150
Q

If given the median value for a set of numbers, what information does this provide?

A

The median splits the sample distribution of values in half. Half the sample is higher and half the sample is lower.

151
Q

What is gentrification?

A

Gentrification is the reinvestment in lower income neighborhoods in urban areas, which results from the influx of more affluent groups.

152
Q

What is group-polarization?

A

This refers to the fact that people’s attitudes toward some attitude / object become more extreme after interacting with like-minded individuals.

153
Q

How would you describe some that is a “valid measure”?

A

A valid measure is something that actually measures what it is intended to assess.

154
Q

According to Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, who would likely deal with the challenges of generativity versus stagnation?

A

In Erikson’s theory, the generativity versus self-absorption crisis occurs in mid-adulthood. Thus, the “adults” experience this stage.

155
Q

What is the capacity of working memory?

A

Research with adults led to the belief that the capacity of working memory was between 5 and 9 items. The so-called “magic number 7 ± 2” was the name George Miller gave to this estimate.

156
Q

What is role strain?

A

Role strain is the tension that results from competing demands within the context of a single role.

157
Q

What is role conflict?

A

Role conflict is the tension between different roles that a single individual may hold.

158
Q

What is more stable socially, a dyad or a triad?

A

The triad (3 person group) is more stable than the dyad (2 person group) because there are additional social ties.

159
Q

What is a mixed methods study?

A

The bringing together of quantitative methods and qualitative methods is referred to as mixed methods in sociology.

160
Q

What is conflict theory?

A

Conflict theory emphasizes the competition between groups over the allocation of societal resources. It assumes that power and authority are unequally distributed across society and that groups try to maintain their advantages.

161
Q

What is proactive interference?

A

Proactive interference involves the interference of information from long term memory with new information.

162
Q

What is social stratification?

A

The objective hierarchy in a society, and often more specifically addresses the class-based hierarchy.

163
Q

What is social reproduction?

A

This refers to the perpetuation of inequality through social institutions.

164
Q

What term describes: learning without an explicit change in behavior?

A

Latent learning describes process.

165
Q

What does Kohlberg’s preconventional stage of moral development describe?

A

In this stage, morality is determined by what punished or rewarded.

166
Q

What is a periphery nation?

A

Periphery nations are described as less economically developed with weak governments and institutions.

167
Q

According to Mead, what do the “I” and the “Me” mean in terms of our unified self ?

A

The “I” is the spontaneous and autonomous part of the self, and the “Me” is the part of the self that is formed in interaction with others and with the general social environment.

168
Q

What type of response is described: a response to an event that is naturally fear-arousing.

A

This describes an unconditioned response.

169
Q

What type of memory will be engaged when being presented with target words while repeating a sentence ?

A

The phonological loop of working memory will be engaged.

170
Q

What is ethocentrism?

A

Ethocentrism is the tendency to look at other cultures through one’s own culture. Bias and prejudice can be related to this term.

171
Q

Using one’s social networks for gain is an example of what?

A

This is an example of social capital .

172
Q

What does Cannon-Bard theory state?

A

Event -> Arousal and Emotion

173
Q

What does James-Lang theory state?

A

Event -> Arousal -> Interpretation -> Emotion

174
Q

What anatomical structure of the eye is involved in color perception?

A

The foea is directly involved in color sensation. Its distribution of receptors varies across different species.

175
Q

What are source monitoring errors?

A

A type of memory error where the source of a memory is incorrectly attributed to some specific recollected experience.

176
Q

What is a dissociative disorder?

A

Selectively forgetting distracting elements of his/her life.

177
Q

What is the fundamental attribution error?

A

The fundamental attribution error refers to stressing the importance of dispositional (i.e., personality) factors in one’s explanations of other people’s behavior and underemphasizing situational factors.

178
Q

If a description identifies beliefs and ideas, what part of the attitude is this ?

A

Beliefs and ideas are part of the cognitive component.

179
Q

What is social desirability?

A

Social desirability is the tendency of some respondents to report an answer in a way they deem to be more socially acceptable than would be their “true” answer. It can take the form of over-reporting positive things or under-reporting negative things about themselves.

180
Q

What type of psychoactive drug has the lowest risk of dependence?

A

Hallucinogens have low risk of dependence.

181
Q

What is social stratification?

A

Social stratification refers to a society’s categorization of people into groups based on socioeconomic factors like wealth, income, race, education, gender, occupation, social status, or derived power (social and political).

182
Q

What is the result of a dopamine agonist?

A

A dopamine agonist enhances the functioning of dopamine in the nervous system.

183
Q

What is social loafing?

A

This refers to the fact that people are more likely to be productive alone than in a group.

184
Q

When does Freud’s oral stage occur?

A

According to Freud, the oral stage occurs from birth to 12–18 months and is characteristic of interest in oral gratification from sucking, eating, and biting.

185
Q

What functions tend to be lateralized to the left side of the brain?

A

Vocabulary skills tend to be lateralized to the left hemisphere,

186
Q

What functions tend to be lateralized to the right side of the brain?

A

Visuospatial skills, music perception, and emotion processing tend to be lateralized to the right hemisphere.

187
Q

Describe interfence and how it is affects learning.

A

When people study new material, any new information introduced between the initial learning (i.e., encoding) and retrieval, such as viewing a movie, will interfere with memory consolidation.

188
Q

What does latent mean when referring to types of functionalism?

A

Latent = unintended functions

189
Q

What are some characteristics of stage 2 sleep?

A

Stage 2 sleep is characterized by diminished theta wave activity. Stage 2 marks the appearance of K-complexes. These occur rarely, but with larger amplitudes than any other form of activity in this stage. K-complexes are followed by sleep spindles: sporadic clumps of high-frequency, medium-amplitude waves.

190
Q

What is an EOG?

A

EOG or electrooculograms measure eye movement.

191
Q

Which part of the brain is likely overstimulated in sleep-deprived individuals?

A

An increase in cortisol observed in the sleep-deprived patients could result from anterior pituitary, adrenal gland, or even hypothalamic excitation.

192
Q

If a study participant was placed in a dark room for several days, what hormone would be released less?

A

Light triggers the release of corticotropin-releasing factor (CRH) from the hypothalamus, which then stimulates ACTH to be released by the anterior pituitary gland.

193
Q

What is Treisman’s attenuation model?

A

The theory states that we “turn down,” or attenuate, the intensity of less important stimuli to focus on other tasks. It states that even after the intensity of a perceived stimulus has been attenuated, it can increase and claim more of our attention if it continues.

194
Q

Describe controlled processing.

A

Controlled processing requires conscious devotion and effort.

195
Q

The stimulus registered by the sensory receptors (e.g. the pattern of light fallin on the retina.) is what type of stimulus?

A

This is called the proximal stimulus

196
Q

What is the term used to describe how people claim to remember detail of what they were doing when they received news about an emotionally arousing event?

A

This is called flash bulb memory.

197
Q

What term describes a point in early development that can have a significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life.

A

The sensitive period (also referred to as a critical period)

198
Q

What theory of motivation calls attention to how factors outside of individuals, including community values and other aspects of culture, can motivate behavior?

A

The incentive theory of motivation

199
Q

What term is used to describe the knowledge, skills, education, and similar characteristics that are used to make social distinctions and that are associated with differences in social status?

A

Culteral capital describes this definition

200
Q

What term calls attention to how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification. (Ex: an individual’s position within a social hierarchy is determined not only by his or her social class, but also by his or her race/ethnicity.)

A

The term intersectionality fufills this definition.

201
Q

What term describes the examination of small scale (or micro level) social interactions, focusing attention on how shared meaning is established among individuals or small groups.

A

Symbolic interactionism describes this definition

202
Q

What is the looking-glass self?

A

The looking glass self suggests that the self-concept is influenced by how we perceive that others are viewing us.

203
Q

What is demographic transition theory?

A

Demographic transition theory addresses changes in the birth rate and the death rate that are associated with economic development. Pattern: begins with drop in death rate, leading to population growth, followed by drop in birth rate, leading to population stabilization.

204
Q

If a person is woken up everytime they begin to exhibit REM in one night, what pattern of REM sleep will they experience the following night if uninterrupted?

A

After being REM-deprived the night before, the person is going to exhibit “REM rebound” and will have more REM sleep than usual.

205
Q

In response to stress, what part of the brain initiates signals to the endocrine system?

A

The hypothalamus is the brain structure that controls the pituitary gland, initiating the stress response.

206
Q

What is the self-fulfilling prophecy?

A

It is an observer’s expectations either directly or indirectly lead to the expected attributes or behavior.

207
Q

When does fundamental attribution error occur?

A

This occurs when a person’s explanation of someone else’s behavior emphasizes personality or dispositional traits, minimizing the possible influence of situational contingencies.

208
Q

What does the standard version of dichotic listening involve?

A

It involves presenting two different auditory messges, one to each ear.

209
Q

What imaging technique is best suited for localizing brain areas?

A

Positron emission tomography (PET) scans show brain processes by using the sugar glucose in the brain to illustrate where neurons are firing.

210
Q

What is self-verification?

A

This refers to the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with one’s self-concept.

211
Q

What is the five-factor model?

A

This is a model of an individual’s personality that is divided into five traits. The traits that constitute the five-factor model are extraversion, neuroticism, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness.

212
Q

What is role-strain?

A

Role-strain refers to stress from different expectations associated with a single role.

213
Q

What is social capital?

A

Social capital refers to the benefits provided by social networks.

214
Q
Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT a catecholamine?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Acetylcholine
A

Acetylcholine is neither a monoamine nor a catecholamine

215
Q

How does cortisol traverse cell membranes?

A

Cortisol is a steroid hormone (specifically a glucocorticoid) due to streoid’s nonpolar structure they can traverse cell membranes w/o channel or carrier.

216
Q

What are the main functional differences between the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex?

A

Adrenal medulla secretes 2 catecholamines (epi and norepi) which act to promote fight-or-flight. — Cortex releases steroid hormones, like aldosterone and cortisol.

217
Q

What is the consequence of gene expression when there is increased methylation of a particular gene?

A

By methylating DNA, our cells reduce the frequency of transcription of that region, which leads to “silencing” it.

218
Q

What does a p value < 0.05 indicate?

A

A p value < 0.05 denotes a statistically significant relationship between variables.

219
Q

Which term is used to describe the lack conscious memories from prior to the time when they were approximately 3.5 years old?

A

This phenomenon is known as infantile amnesia.

220
Q

In Freud’s psychoanalytic theory the ____ is the “moral” component of human personality. It typically drives individuals to avoid behaviors that are morally wrong while striving to fulfill realistic goals.

A

superego

221
Q

In Freud’s psychoanalytic theory the ____ (the pleasure-driven, simplistic portion of personality) dominates behavior in very young children

A

id

222
Q

In Freud’s psychoanalytic theory the ____ is largely conscious, as it must balance input from the other two components to guide the person’s day-to-day actions. The other two components are more unconscious in nature.

A

ego

223
Q

What are Goldberg’s 5 dimensions?

A

O - openness to experience C - conscientiousness E - extraversion A - agreeableness N - neuroticism

224
Q

What theory of persuasion theorizes that a message may be processed either peripherally (shallowly) or centrally (in a more thorough manner)?

A

The elaboration liklihood model. Central processing tends to have a more long-lasting effect than peripheral processing, although both can alter attitude at least temporarily.

225
Q

Take into account entire question, with specific details, when selecting answer

A

Take into account entire question, with specific details, when selecting answer