MCN Flashcards
(342 cards)
1
Q
Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration?
A
VS1
2
Q
Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?
A
VS
3
Q
14 CFR part 1 defines VF as
A
design flap speed
4
Q
14 CFR part 1 defines VLE as
A
maximum landing gear extended speed
5
Q
14 CFR part 1 defines VY as
A
speed for best rate of climb
6
Q
If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers?
A
Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved)
7
Q
Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a ‘restricted’ category airplane?
A
No person may operate a ‘restricted’ category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire
8
Q
Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a “primary” category airplane?
A
No person may operate a “primary” category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire
9
Q
The carriage of passengers for hire by a commercial pilot is
A
not authorized in a “limited” category aircraft
10
Q
No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificate
A
when carrying persons or property for hire
11
Q
Pitch setting means
A
the propeller blade setting as determined by the blade angle measured as a specified by the propeller instruction manual
12
Q
(refer to figure) If an aircraft’s static load is 3,000 lbs, what is its dynamic load in a level 60 angle of bank turn?
A
6,000 lbs
13
Q
Question: 67 Remaining: 11
To begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR, there must be enough fuel to fly
to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruise speed, to
fly thereafter for at least
A) 20 minutes,
B) 30 minutes.
C) 45 minutes.
A
20 minutes,
14
Q
Question: 76 Remaining: 10
Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on
each helicopter if it is being flown for hire over water,
A) more than 50 statute miles from shore.
B) beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
C) in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.
A
beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
15
Q
Question: 78 Remaining: 9
Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a “restricted”
category helicopter?
A) A“restricted” category helicopter is limited to an operating radius of 25
miles from its home base.
B) A pilot of a “restricted” category helicopter is required to hold a
commercial pilot certificate.
C) No person may operate a “restricted” category helicopter carrying
passengers or property for compensation or hire.
A
No person may operate a “restricted” category helicopter carrying
passengers or property for compensation or hire.
16
Q
Question: 84 Remaining: 8
What transponder equipment is required for helicopter operations within
Class B airspace? A transponder
A) with 4096 code and Mode C capability.
B) is required for helicopter operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.
C) with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or
below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement.
A
with 4096 code and Mode C capability.
17
Q
Question: 109 Remaining: 7
Which minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a
day VFR helicopter flight in Class G airspace at 3,500 feet MSL over terrain
with an elevation of 1,900 feet MSL?
A) Visibility-3 miles; distance from clouds- 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet
above, and 1 mile horizontally.
B) Visibility-3 miles; distance from clouds-500 feet below, 1,000 feet
above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
C) Visibility-1 mile; distance from clouds-500 feet below, 1,000 feet
above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
A
isibility-1 mile; distance from clouds-500 feet below, 1,000 feet
above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
18
Q
Question: 110 Remaining: 6
Basic VFR weather minimums require at least what visibility for operating a
helicopter within Class D airspace?
A) 1 mile.
B) 2 miles.
C) 3 miles.
A
3 miles
19
Q
Question: 134 Remaining: 5
Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil helicopters require that
during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and
shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each
A) person on board.
B) flight and cabin crewmembers.
C) flight crew member only.
A
person on board
20
Q
Question: 137 Remaining: 4
Minimum safe altitude rules require that helicopter pilots
A) not fly lower than 500 feet, except when necessary for takeoff or
landing.
B) comply with routes and altitudes prescribed by the FAA.
C) not fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
A
comply with routes and altitudes prescribed by the FAA.
21
Q
Question: 138 Remaining: 3
Minimum safe altitude rules authorize helicopter pilots to
A) fly at less than 500 feet.
B) fly at less than 500 feet if they do not create a hazard to persons or
property on the surface,
C) fly closer than 500 feet to any person, vehicle, vessel, or structure on
the surface.
A
fly at less than 500 feet if they do not create a hazard to persons or
property on the surface,
22
Q
Question: 142 Remaining: 2
When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control
tower, in Class G airspace, a helicopter pilot should
A) avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft.
B) make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
C) enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.
A
avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft.
23
Q
Question: 591 Remaining: 1
(Refer to figure 54, point 1) A helicopter flight over Livermore Airport
(LVK) at 3,000 feet MSL
A) requires a transponder, but ATC communication is not necessary.
B) does not require a transponder or ATC communication.
C) cannot be accomplished without meeting all Class B airspace
requirements.
A
requires a transponder, but ATC communication is not necessary. (figure above Class D airspace)
24
Q
Question: 1074 Remaining: 0
For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be
listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather
conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather
minimums.
A) Ceiling 200 feet above the minimum for the approach to be flown and
visibility at least 1 SM.
B) Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM.
C) Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM.
A
Ceiling 200 feet above the minimum for the approach to be flown and
visibility at least 1 SM.
25
Question: 71 Remaining: 17
What is the maximum bearing error (+ or -) allowed for an operational VOR
equipment check when using an FAA-approved ground test signal?
A) 4 degrees.
B) 6 degrees.
C) 8 degrees.
4 degrees.
26
Question: 140 Remaining: 16
After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from
that clearance, unless the pilot
A) requests an amended clearance.
B) is operating VFR on top.
C) receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.
receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.
27
Question: 150 Remaining: 15
When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be
accomplished to operate under IFR? Within the preceding
A) 30 days or 30 hours of flight time.
B) 10 days or 10 hours of flight time.
C) 30 days.
30 days.
28
Question: 151 Remaining: 14
Which data must be recorded in the aircraft logbook or other record by a
pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?
A) VOR name or identification, place of operational check, amount of
bearing error, and date of check.
B) Date of check, place of operational check, bearing error, and
signature,
C) VOR name or identification, amount of bearing error, date of check, and
signature,
Date of check, place of operational check, bearing error, and
signature,
29
Question: 152 Remaining: 13
For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be
listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather
conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather
minimums.
A) Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.
B) Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision.
C) Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision.
Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision.
30
Question: 153 Remaining: 12
For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be
listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather
conditions at the time of arrival must have at least a
A) ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.
B) ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing
under basic VFR.
C) ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 NM.
ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing
under basic VFR.
31
Question: 154 Remaining: 11
Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach
unless the
A) flight visibility is at, or exceeds, the visibility prescribed in the approach
procedure being used.
B) flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceed, the minimums prescribed in
the approach being used.
C) visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distinctly
visible to the pilot.
flight visibility is at, or exceeds, the visibility prescribed in the approach
procedure being used.
32
Question: 155 Remaining: 10
On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may
not operate below, or continue the approach unless the
A) aircraft is continuously in a position from which a stabilized descent to
the intended runway can be made.
B) approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.
C) flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for
that approach.
aircraft is continuously in a position from which a stabilized descent to
the intended runway can be made.
33
Question: 156 Remaining: 9
A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to
perform a procedure turn when
A) receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.
B) maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes.
C) maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes.
receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.
34
Question: 157 Remaining: 8
The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled
airspace, not in radar contact, shall report by radio as soon as possible
when
A) passing FL 180.
B) passing each designated reporting point, to include time and altitude.
C) changing control facilities.
passing each designated reporting point, to include time and altitude.
35
Question: 158 Remaining: 7
The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled
airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when
A) climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.
B) experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or
communications equipment, occurring in flight.
C) requested to contact a new controlling facility.
experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or
| communications equipment, occurring in flight.
36
Question: 586 Remaining: 6
(Refer to figure 53, point 2) The numbers 1°6 along the San Joaquin River
indicate the maximum elevation figure (MEF) which represents the highest
elevation of
A) anon-manmade obstacle at 1,600 AGL.
B) non-manmade and manmade obstacles and vertical obstacles in the
quadrant at 1,600 AGL.
C) non-manmade and manmade obstacles and vertical obstacles in the
quadrant at 1,600 MSL.
non-manmade and manmade obstacles and vertical obstacles in the
quadrant at 1,600 MSL.
37
Question: 1079 Remaining: 5
(Refer to figure 54, point 6) Is a special VFR clearance possible for a
helicopter flight from Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK)?
A) Yes, if the helicopter is properly equipped.
B) No, special VFR is not permitted at this airport.
C) Yes, if it has been coordinated with the Administrator ahead of time.
Yes, if the helicopter is properly equipped.
38
Question: 1087 Remaining: 4
When flying at FL 190, you must
A) be operating on an IFR flight plan.
B) have bearing/DME measuring equipment.
C) comply with RVSM rules.
be operating on an IFR flight plan.
39
Question: 1102 Remaining: 3
You are traveling westbound at 6,500 feet with flight following and
tracking your path on a moving map. Ten miles ahead of you is an Alert
Area, Can the flight proceed through the Alert Area?
A) No, flight through an Alert Area is not permitted.
B) Yes, but you must obtain ATC clearance before proceeding.
C) Yes, as no ATC clearance is needed to enter an Alert Area.
Yes, as no ATC clearance is needed to enter an Alert Area.
40
Question: 1125 Remaining: 2
You are pilot-in-command of an aircraft. Prior to entering Class B
airspace, you should adjust your speed to no more than
A) 150 knots.
B) 200 knots.
C) 250 knots.
250 knots.
41
Question: 1130 Remaining: 1
(Refer to figure 54, point 6.) The symbol 'T/15' located in the Class C
airspace at Metropolitan Oakland (OAK) indicates the ceiling extends up to
A) and including the ceiling of the overlying Class B airspace.
B) but does not include the base of the overlying San Francisco Class B.
C) but does not include the base of the lowest overlying San Francisco
Class B.
but does not include the base of the overlying San Francisco Class B
42
Question: 1173 Remaining: G
(Refer to figure 53) What is indicated by the star next to the 'L’ in the
airport information box for the Madera (MAE) airport north of area 2?
A) Special VFR is prohibited.
B) There is a rotating beacon on the field.
C) Lighting limitations exist.
Lighting limitations exist.
43
Question: 1072 Remaining: 1
The National Convective Weather Forecast is a supplement to, but does
not substitute for, the report and forecast information contained in
A) a standard weather briefing.
B) Notices to Airman (NOTAMS).
C) Convective SIGMETs.
Convective SIGMETs.
44
Question: 1205 Remaining: 0
The National Convective Weather Forecast provides forecasts for
A) hazardous convective weather in the U.S. and Mexico.
B) hazardous convective weather in the U.S., Mexico, and Canada.
C) hazardous convective weather in the U.S. only.
hazardous convective weather in the U.S. only.
45
Question: 1105 Remaining: G
What is ‘static load'?
A) The standard empty weight plus optional equipment.
B) The load imposed on an aircraft structure due to the weight of the
aircraft and its contents.
C) The actual aircraft weight multiplied by load factor, or the increase in
aircraft weight due to acceleration.
The load imposed on an aircraft structure due to the weight of the
aircraft and its contents.
46
Question: 1 Remaining: 171
Notification to the NT58 is required when there has been substantial
damage
A) which requires repairs to landing gear.
B) to an engine caused by engine failure in flight.
C) which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics.
which adversely affects structural strength or flight charac
47
Question: 2 Remaining: 170
NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification as a result of which
incident?
A) Engine failure for any reason during flight.
B) Damage to the landing gear as a result of a hard landing.
C) Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties
because of illness.
Any required flignt crewmember being unable to perform flight duties
because of illness.
48
Question: 3 Remaining: 169
Immediate notification of the NTSB is required following:
A) an in-flight fire.
B) aground fire.
C) a hangar fire.
an in-flight fire.
49
Question: 4 Remaining: 168
Which airborne incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be
notified immediately?
A) Cargo compartment door malfunction or failure.
B) Cabin door opened in-flight.
C) Flight control system malfunction or failure.
Flight control system malfunction or failure.
50
Question: 5 Remaining: 167
While taxiing for takeoff, a small fire burned the insulation from a
transceiver wire, What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part
8307
A) No notification or report is required.
B) A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA
field office within 48 hours.
C) An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft
with the nearest NTSB field office.
No notification or report is required.
51
Question: 6 Remaining: 166
While taxiing on the parking ramp, the landing gear, one wheel, and two
tires are damaged by striking ground equipment. What action would be
required to comply with NTSB Part 830?
A) An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft
with the nearest NTSB field office.
B) A report must be filed with the nearest FAA field office within 7 days.
C) No notification or report is required.
No notification or report is required.
52
Question: 7 Remaining: 165
During flight a fire, which was extinguished, burned the insulation from a
transceiver wire, What action is required by regulations?
A) No notification or report is required.
B) A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA
Flight Standards District Office within 48 hours.
C) An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest
NTSB field office.
An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest
NTSB field office.
53
Question: 8 Remaining: 164
You are the PIC of an aircraft involved in an accident resulting in
substantial damage. You are required to do which of the following?
A) Notify NTSB Immediately.
B) Notify NTSB within 10 days of the accident.
C) No notification is required.
Notify NTSB Immediately.
54
Question: 9 Remaining: 163
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required
to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB
A) within 7 days.
B) within 10 days.
C) only if requested to do so.
only if requested to do so.
55
Question: 10 Remaining: 162
How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the
nearest NTSB field office?
A) 2.
B) 7.
C) 10.
10
56
Question: 12 Remaining: 161
Regulations which refer to ‘commercial operators' relate to that person
who
A) is the owner of a small scheduled airline.
B) for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air
commerce of persons or property, as an air carrier.
C) for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air
commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.
for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air
commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.
57
Question: 13 Remaining: 160
Regulations which refer to "operate" relate to that person who
A) acts as pilot in command of the aircraft.
B) is the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls.
C) causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.
causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.
58
Question: 14 Remaining: 159
Regulations which refer to the "operational control" of a flight are in relation to
A) the specific duties of any required crewmember.
B) acting as the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls.
C) exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
59
Question: 22 Remaining: 158
Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot
certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft
when
A) piloting for hire only.
B) carrying passengers only.
C) acting as pilot in command.
acting as pilot in command.
60
```
Question: 23 Remaining: 157
Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?
```
A) Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic.
B) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.
C) Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and
multiengine sea.
Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and
| multiengine sea.
61
Question: 24 Remaining: 156
Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date?
A) No, itis issued without a specific expiration date.
B) Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it
was issued.
C) No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not
satisfactorily completed each 12 months.
No, itis issued without a specific expiration date.
62
```
Question: 25 Remaining: 155
A second-class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April
```
10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following
privileges?
A) Commercial pilot privileges through April 3G, next year.
B) Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later.
C) Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year.
Commercial pilot privileges through April 3G, next year.
63
Question: 26 Remaining: 154
When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating
appropriate to the aircraft being flown?
A) All solo flights.
B) On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA Inspector.
C) On flights when carrying another person.
On flights when carrying another person.
64
Question; 27 Remaining: 153
Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a
type rating when operating any
A) aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot.
8) aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff
weight.
C) multiengine airplane having a gross weight of more than 12,000
pounds.
aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff
weight.
65
Question: 28 Remaining: 152
To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable
landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller, a person is required to
A) make at least six takeoffs and landings in such an airplane within the
preceding 6 months.
B) receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and
obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.
C) hold a multiengine airplane class rating.
receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.
66
Question: 29 Remaining: 151
When may a pilot log time as a SIC?
A) When the PIC is an appropriately qualified instructor in the same category and class of aircraft.
B) When occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot and the SIC is fully qualified.
C) When the SIC is the sole manipulator of the controls.
When occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot and the SIC is fully qualified.
67
Question: 30 Remaining: 150
What flight time must be documented and recorded by a pilot exercising
the privileges of a commercial certificate?
A) Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet
requirements for a certificate, rating or flight review.
B) All flight time flown for compensation or hire.
C) Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which
is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.
Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating or flight review.
68
Question: 31 Remaining: 149
lf a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night
flight and official sunset is 1800 CST, the latest time passengers should
be carried is
A) 1859 CST.
B) 1753 CST.
C) 1959 CST.
1859 CST.
69
Question: 32 Remaining: 148
Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have
accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in
A) any category aircraft.
B) the same category and class of aircraft to be used.
C) the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is
required).
the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is
required).
70
Question: 35 Remaining: 147
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91, a
commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or
completed a proficiency check within the preceding
A) 6 calendar months.
B) 12 calendar months.
C) 24 calendar months.
24 calendar months.
71
Question: 36 Remaining: 146
You just accepted out-of-state employment that will require you to change
your address. How long may you exercise the privileges of your pilot
certificate before notifying the FAA of your address change.
A) 30 days.
B) 45 days.
C) 60 days.
30 days.
72
Question: 37 Remaining: 145
To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, the tow pilot is
required to have
A) a logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying
receipt of ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with
techniques and procedures for safe towing of gliders.
8) at least a private pilot certificate with a category rating for powered
aircraft, and made and logged at least three flights as pilot or observer ina
glider being towed by an airplane.
C) a logbook record of having made at least three flights as sole
manipulator of the controls of a glider being towed by an airplane.
a logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying
receipt of ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with
techniques and procedures for safe towing of gliders.
73
Question: 38 Remaining: 144
To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, a pilot must have
accomplished, within the preceeding 12 months, at least
A) three actual glider tows under the supervision of a qualified tow pilot.
8B) three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified
tow pilot.
C) ten flights as pilot in command of an aircraft while towing a glider.
three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified
tow pilot.
74
Question: 44 Remaining: 143
What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial pilot -
airplane, if that person does not hald an instrument rating? The carriage of
passengers
A) for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights,
but not limited for day flights.
B) or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a
radius of 50 NM.
C) for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM, or for hire at night
is prohibited.
for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM, or for hire at night
is prohibited.
75
Question: 49 Remaining: 142
What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule
in 14 CFR part 91?
A) Upon landing, report the deviation to the nearest FAA Flight Standards
District Office.
B) Advise ATC in the area as soon as possible.
C) Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that
deviation to the Administrator.
Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that
deviation to the Administrator.
76
Question; 50 Remaining: 141
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe
flight?
A) Acertificated aircraft mechanic.
B) The pilot in command.
C) The owner or operator.
The pilot in command.
77
Question: 51 Remaining: 140
When operating a U.S.-registered civil aircraft, which document is required
by regulation to be available in the aircraft?
A) Amanufacturer's Operations Manual.
B) A current, approved Airplane Flight Manual.
C) An Owner's Manual.
A current, approved Airplane Flight Manual.
78
Question: 52 Remaining: 139
A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be
dropped from that aircraft in flight
A) if it creates a hazard to persons and property.
B) unless the PIC has permission to drop any object over private property.
C) unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury to property.
if it creates a hazard to persons and property.
79
Question: 55 Remaining: 138
In your preflight planning, a weather briefing is required for
A) any flight conducted for compensation or hire.
B) any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
C) IFR flights only.
any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
80
Question: 56 Remaining: 137
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become
familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the
pilot must
A) be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
B) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff
and landing performance at the destination airport.
C) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the
alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.
e familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the
alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.
81
Question: 57 Remaining: 136
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become
familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the
pilot must
A) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff
and landing performance at the destination airport.
B) be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
C) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather
reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight
cannot be completed.
be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather
reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight
cannot be completed.
82
Question: 58 Remaining: 135
Required flight crewmembers’ safety belts must be fastened
A) only during takeoff and landing.
B) while the crewmembers are at their stations.
C) only during takeoff and landing when passengers are aboard the
aircraft.
while the crewmembers are at their stations.
83
Question: 59 Remaining: 134
Each required flight crewmember is required to Keep his or her shoulder
harness fastened
A) during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the
aircraft.
B) while the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable
to perform required duties.
C) during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform
required duties.
during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform
required duties.
84
Question: 60 Remaining: 133
With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, the use of safety belts is required
during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings for
A) safe operating practice, but not required by regulations.
B) each person over 2 years of age on board.
C) commercial passenger operations only.
each person over 2 years of age on board.
85
Question: 63 Remaining: 132
Which is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner?
A) Approval from ATC to operate in Class E airspace.
B) A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.
C) A safety link at each end of the towline which has a breaking strength
not less than 80 percent of the aircraft's gross weight.
A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.
86
Question: 64 Remaining: 131
Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the
navigation or communication system may not be operated ona U.S.-
registered civil aircraft being flown
A) along Federal airways.
B) within the U.S.
C) in air carrier operations.
in air carrier operations.
87
Question: 65 Remaining: 130
Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the
navigation or communication system may not be operated on U.S.-
registered civil aircraft being operated
A) under IFR.
B) in passenger carrying operations.
C) along Federal airways.
under IFR.
88
Question: 68 Remaining: 129
lf weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate
airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to
arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the
alternate airport, and fly thereafter for [Helo pilots, please read the
explanation. ]
A) 30 minutes at slow cruising speed.
B) 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C) 1 hour at normal cruising speed.
45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
89
Question: 72 Remaining: 128
In accordance with14 CFR part $1, supplemental oxygen must be used by
the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while
at cabin pressure altitudes of
A) 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL.
B) 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
C) 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.
12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.
90
Question: 73 Remaining: 127
You are conducting a flight with passengers above 15,000 feet MSL.
What are the oxygen requirements?
A) The crew must use supplemental oxygen at this altitude.
B) Crew must use supplemental oxygen after being at or above this
altitude for 30 minutes.
C) Crew must use and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen
at or above this altitude.
Crew must use and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen
at or above this altitude.
91
Question: 74 Remaining: 126
Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?
A) Anticollision light system.
B) Gyroscopic direction indicator.
C) Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator.
Anticollision light system.
92
Question: 75 Remaining: 125
Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?
A) Flashlight with red lens, if the flight is for hire.
B) An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire.
C) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.
An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire.
93
Question; 77 Remaining: 124
Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on
each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water,
A) in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.
B) beyond power-off gliding distance fram shore.
C) more than 50 statute miles from shore.
beyond power-off gliding distance fram shore.
94
Question: 82 Remaining: 123
The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may
be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is
A) 30 minutes,
B) 45 minutes.
C) 60 minutes.
60 minutes.
95
Question: 83 Remaining: 122
No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry which is
subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the
FAA Aircraft Registration Branch, Technical Section, Oklahoma City, OK,
within how many hours of its execution?
A) 24,
B) 48.
C) 72.
24
96
Question: 86 Remaining: 121
Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
A) authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement
with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
B) not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM.
C) not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
97
Question: 87 Remaining: 120
Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? These
flights are
A) not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can
create a collision hazard.
B) not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained
and found competent in formation.
C) authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement
with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can
create a collision hazard.
98
Question: 88 Remaining: 119
Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are
A) not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of
each aircraft.
B) not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained
and found competent in formation.
C) authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement
with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of
each aircraft.
99
Question; 98 Remaining: 118
If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate
flight
A) at sunset.
B) 30 minutes after sunset.
C) 1 hour after sunset.
at sunset.
100
Question: 99 Remaining: 117
If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anticollision light system,
no person may operate that aircraft
A) after dark.
B) 1 hour after sunset.
C) after sunset to sunrise.
after sunset to sunrise.
101
Question: 116 Remaining: 116
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy
condition?
A) The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft.
B) Pilot in command or operator.
C) Owner or operator of the aircraft.
Owner or operator of the aircraft.
102
Question: 117 Remaining: 115
You have been hired by an owner to manage his aircraft ina 14 CFR part
91 operation. The owner has received an Airworthiness Directive in the
mail. Who holds the responsibility to ensure the aircraft is in compliance
with the AD?
A) The person that manages the aircraft.
B) Aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91 operations do not have to
comply with an AD.
C) The owner or operator of the aircraft.
The owner or operator of the aircraft.
103
Question: 118 Remaining: 114
After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been
returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made
A) on the airworthiness certificate.
B) in the aircraft maintenance records.
C) in the FAA-approved flight manual.
in the aircraft maintenance records.
104
Question: 119 Remaining: 113
A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the
aircraft receives
A) required maintenance and inspections.
B) an annual inspection.
C) an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration
dates.
required maintenance and inspections.
105
Question: 120 Remaining: 112
If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration
or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and
approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being
operated
A) under VFR or IFR rules.
B) with passengers aboard.
C) for compensation or hire.
ith passengers aboard.
106
Question: 121 Remaining: 111
Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished
by a pilot?
A) Arecord of preventive maintenance is not required.
B) A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the
maintenance records.
C) Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-
approved flight manual.
A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the
| maintenance records.
107
Question: 122 Remaining: 110
An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of
inspection every 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if
any, may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new
inspection?
A) The aircraft may be flown for any flignt as long as the time in service
has not exceeded 110 hours.
B) The aircraft may be dispatched for a flight of any duration as long as
100 hours has not been exceeded at the time it departs.
C) The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if
necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.
The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if
necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.
108
Question: 123 Remaining: 109
Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections?
A) A 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an annual inspection.
B) An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection.
C) An annual inspection is required even if a progressive inspection system
has been approved.
An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection.
109
Question: 124 Remaining: 108
An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested,
inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding
A) 30 days.
B) 12 calendar months.
C) 24 calendar months.
24 calendar months.
110
Question: 125 Remaining: 107
Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the
A) applicable airworthiness certificate.
B) life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe.
C) life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and
appliance.
life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and
appliance.
111
Question: 126 Remaining: 106
Airworthiness Directives
A) are advisory in nature and are generally not addressed immediately.
B) require compliance or the aircraft is unairworthy.
C) are the responsibility of maintenance personnel.
require compliance or the aircraft is unairworthy.
112
Question: 127 Remaining: 105
Anew maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the
manufacturer must include previous
A) operating hours of the engine.
B) annual inspections performed on the engine.
C) changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.
changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.
113
Question: 128 Remaining: 104
lf an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested,
inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period,
what is the limitation on its use?
A) Its use is not permitted.
B) It may be used when in Class G airspace.
C) It may be used for VFR flight only.
Its use is not permitted.
114
Question: 129 Remaining: 103
To act as pilot-in-command of an airplane with more than 200
horsepower, a person is required to
A) receive and log ground and flight training from a qualified pilot in such
an airplane.
B) obtain an endorsement from a qualified pilot stating that the person is
proficient to operate such an airplane.
C) receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor
in such an airplane.
receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor
in such an airplane.
115
Question: 130 Remaining: 102
To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than
one pilot crewmember, and operated under part 91, a person must
A) complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months.
B) receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized flight
instructor.
C) complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding
12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than
one pilot.
complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding
12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than
one pilot.
116
Question: 131 Remaining: 101
To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more
than one pilot crewmember, and operated under part 91, a person must
A) receive and log flight training from an authorized flight instructor in the
type of airplane for which privileges are requested.
B) hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category
rating.
C) within the last 12 months become familiar with the required
information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which
privileges are requested.
within the last 12 months become familiar with the required
information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which
privileges are requested.
117
Question: 132 Remaining: 100
What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the
operation of the airplane?
A) Certificate holder.
B) Pilot in command.
C) Airplane ownerfoperator.
Pilot in command.
118
Question: 133 Remaining: 99
Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil aircraft require that during
movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder
harness (if installed) must be properly secured about each
A) flight crewmember only.
B) person on board.
C) flight and cabin crewmembers.
person on board.
119
Question: 135 Remaining: 98
No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions
unless the
A) other control seat is occupied by at least an appropriately rated
commercial pilot.
B) pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an IFR clearance.
C) other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a
private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.
other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a
private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.
120
Question: 136 Remaining: 97
If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the
maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR part 91, the
A) operator must have a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with the
controlling agency.
B) aircraft may be operated at that speed.
C) operator must have a Letter of Agreement with ATC.
aircraft may be operated at that speed.
121
Question: 159 Remaining: 96
You just received your commercial pilot certificate and plan to act as PIC
for compensation. You may do so provided you
A) are qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and the applicable
parts.
B) completed a PIC proficiency check in the last 12 months.
C) are certified in any category/class of aircraft.
are qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and the applicable
parts.
122
Question: 160 Remaining: 95
A person with a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command
of an aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, if that
person
```
A) holds appropriate category, class ratings, and meets the recent flight
experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61.
```
B) is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable
parts that apply to the operation.
C) is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and has passed a pilot
competency check given by an authorized check pilot.
is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable
parts that apply to the operation.
123
Question: 162 Remaining: 94
You have just received your commercial certificate and have never flown a
tailwheel aircraft before. To act as PIC of a tailwheel aircraft, you must
receive
A) ground training from an authorized instructor in your type of aircraft.
B) receive ground and flight training from an authorized instructor and
receive an endorsement.
C) receive flight training from an authorized instructor and complete a
pilot proficiency check.
receive ground and flight training from an authorized instructor and
receive an endorsement.
124
Question: 766 Remaining: 93
Pilots are required to have the anti-collision light system operating
A) during all types of operations, both day and night.
B) anytime the pilot is in the cockpit.
C) anytime an engine is in operation.
during all types of operations, both day and night.
125
Question: 984 Remaining: 92
What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be
defined by the NTSB as a “serious injury"?
A) 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.
B) 48 hours, commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
C) 72 hours, commencing within 10 days after date of the injury.
48 hours, commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
126
Question: 991 Remaining: 91
If 8 hours or more have passed since last consuming alcohol, a pilot with a
blood alcohol level greater than or equal to .04 percent cannot fly until
A) aminimum of 12 hours have passed and the blood alcohol falls below
.O4 percent.
B) aminimum of 12 hours have passed and no longer under the influence
of alcohol.
C) the blood alcohol falls below .04 percent and no longer under the
influence of alcohol.
the blood alcohol falls below .04 percent and no longer under the
influence of alcohol.
127
Question: 992 Remaining: 90
A pilot-in-command may accept a ‘land and hold short’ (LAHSO) clearance
provided he or she determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop
within the
A) Available Landing Time.
B) Assigned Runway Distance.
C) Available Landing Distance.
Available Landing Distance.
128
Question: 993 Remaining: 89
You are taking a 173 nautical mile night VFR cross country flight. Which
of the following actions must the pilot in command take?
A) Perform a VOR check prior to takeoff.
B) Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.
C) File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station.
Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.
129
Question; 994 Remaining: 88
A pilot in command has the final authority to accept or decline ‘land and
hold short’ (LAHSQO) clearance
A) under any conditions.
B) under limited conditions.
C) only when operating on an IFR flight plan.
under any conditions.
130
Question: 995 Remaining: 87
AS part of their preflight planning, pilots should determine if their
destination airport has
A) ‘land and hold short’ (LAHSQ) operations.
B) lighted markers on catenary wiring.
C) Runway Aiming Point Markings
‘land and hold short’ (LAHSQ) operations.
131
Question: 996 Remaining: 86
An aircraft is on a stopover at an airport 450 miles from its home airport. A
mechanic discovers a discrepancy. Who is responsible for maintaining the
airworthiness of the aircraft by having the defect corrected?
A) The mechanic.
B) Pilot in command.
C) The owner or operator.
The owner or operator.
132
Question: 997 Remaining: 85
You are taking a 196 nautical mile VFR cross country flight in mountainous
terrain. Which of the following actions must the pilot in command take?
A) File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station.
B) Ensure all items in the baggage area are strapped down.
C) Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.
Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.
133
Question: 998 Remaining: 84
A pilot-in-command may accept a ‘land and hald short’ (LAHSQ) clearance
provided he or she determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop
A) within the Landing Runway Length.
B) within the Available Landing Distance.
C) under any conditions.
within the Available Landing Distance.
134
Question: 999 Remaining: 83
Once a pilot-in-command accepts a ‘land and hold short’ (LAHSO)
clearance, the clearance must be adhered to, just as any other ATC
clearance, unless
A) an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs.
B) Available Landing Distance decreases or density altitude increases.
C) the wind changes or Available Landing Distance decreases.
an amended clearance is obtained or an emergency occurs.
135
Question: 1000 Remaining: 82
You are taking a 123 nautical mile VFR flight from one airport to another.
Which of the following actions must the pilot in command take?
A) File a VFR flight plan with a Flight Service Station.
B) Ensure each passenger has a legible photo identification.
C) Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.
Verify the airworthiness certificate is legible to passengers.
136
Question: 1001 Remaining: 81
With a blood alcohol level at or above .04 percent, a pilot cannot fly until
A) the blood alcohol falls to .04 percent.
B) at least 12 hours after consuming alcohol, no longer under the
influence of alcohol, and the blood alcohol falls below .O2 percent.
C) at least & hours after consuming alcohol, no longer under the influence
of alcohol, and the blood alcohol falls below .G4 percent.
at least & hours after consuming alcohol, no longer under the influence
of alcohol, and the blood alcohol falls below .G4 percent.
137
Question; 1002 Remaining: 80
To conduct ‘land and hold short’ (LAHS©) operations, pilots should have,
readily available, the
A) Aeronautical Information Manual (AlM).
B) published Terminal Procedures (TERPS).
C) Chart Supplement.
Chart Supplement.
138
Question: 1003 Remaining: 79
A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is
required to provide a written report to the
A) nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) within 60 days of
the conviction.
B) FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days of the
conviction.
C) FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days of the
conviction.
FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days of the
conviction.
139
Question: 1008 Remaining: 78
What are the minimum weather conditions in which you can expect to
receive a LAHSO clearance?
A) 3 statute miles visibility and 1,000 ft ceiling.
B) 1 statute mile visibility and 500 ft ceiling.
C) 5 statute miles visibility and 3,000 ft ceiling.
3 statute miles visibility and 1,000 ft ceiling.
140
Question: 1065 Remaining: 77
Can an aircraft be operated after it is sold with an aircraft dealer's
registration?
A) Yes, but only for 30 days.
B) No, the new owner must register the aircraft before flying it.
C) Yes, but only temporarily for 120 days.
No, the new owner must register the aircraft before flying it.
141
Question: 1075 Remaining: 76
To conduct ‘land and hold short’ (LAHS©) operations, pilots should have,
readily available,
A) a current copy of the airport and taxiway markings quide as well as
LAHSO© quides.
B) the runway slope and LAHSO information for each airport of intended
landing.
C) the published air traffic control LAHSO procedures for each airport of
intended landing.
the runway slope and LAHSO information for each airport of intended
landing.
142
Question: 1096 Remaining: 75
You are on a VFR flight and your route takes you through an active
restricted area. You must
A) deconflict from military aircraft in the airspace.
B) contact ATC on frequency 121.5.
C) obtain prior approval from the controlling agency.
obtain prior approval from the controlling agency.
143
Question: 1116 Remaining: 74
In your preflight planning, you must identify an alternate airport for
A) IFR flights only.
B) any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
C) any flignt conducted for compensation or hire.
any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
144
Question: 1121 Remaining: 73
You are planning a flight over mountainous terrain and will be flying above 18,000 feet MSL. You must
A) have DME reporting equipment.
B) comply with RVSM when above 18,000 feet MSL.
C) file an IFR flight plan for any portion of the flight over 18,000 feet
MSL.
file an IFR flight plan for any portion of the flight over 18,000 feet MSL.
145
Question: 1134 Remaining: 72
The transponder in your aircraft is intermittent and a portion of your flight
plan has you traveling through Class B airspace. Can you continue as
planned?
A) No, your transponder is considered inoperative.
B) Yes, provided you inform ATC of your malfunctioning transponder.
C) Yes, as long as the transponder is properly placarded as inoperative.
No, your transponder is considered inoperative.
146
Question: 1135 Remaining: 71
To act as the pilot-in-command (PIC) of an airplane that is carrying
passengers at night, the PIC must
```
A) complete 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop in the same category
and class aircraft at night.
```
B) complete 3 takeoffs and 3 landings in any category at night.
C) designate a second-in-command if in instrument meteorological
conditions.
```
complete 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop in the same category
and class aircraft at night.
```
147
Question: 1138 Remaining: 70
Which of the following would require the PIC to receive additional training
and a logbook endorsement from an appropriately rated instructor prior to
acting as PIC?
A) When acting as PIC in an airplane with advanced avionics.
B) When acting as PIC in an airplane with more than 2G0 horsepower.
C) When acting as PIC in an airplane that was manufactured prior to
1965.
When acting as PIC in an airplane with more than 2G0 horsepower.
148
Question: 1144 Remaining: 69
(Refer to figure 58.) The winds are 170 at 10 knots. You have been
cleared to land on Runway 16, hold short Runway 06/24. How can you
determine the landing distance available?
A) Ask the controller.
B) Use rule of thumb computations.
C) Estimate.
Ask the controller.
149
Question: 1148 Remaining: 68
According to 14 CFR part 61, what is required for a person to serve as PIC
in a turbojet-powered airplane?
A) A proficiency check within the past 24 months in the same family of
aircraft.
B) A PIC proficiency check within the past 12 months.
C) A review flight within the past 24 months in the same type aircraft.
A PIC proficiency check within the past 12 months.
150
Question: 1150 Remaining: 67
(Refer to figure 52, point 8.) You are enroute to Auburn (AUN) on a night
VER flight when the ASOS is reporting 2SM visibility due to fog. What is
the required minimum visibility for entering the traffic pattern at 1,000
feet AGL?
A) 15M.
B) 5 SM.
C) 3 SM.
3 SM.
151
Question: 1155 Remaining: 66
The approach controller has informed you that LAHS®O operations are
being conducted, and the available landing distance is 3,672 feet. Your
landing calculations indicate that you will need 4,150 feet of runway to
land. Can you accept a LAHSO clearance?
A) Yes, if the aircraft is equipped with reverse thrust.
B) Yes, when you are cleared to land, the entire length of runway is
available for use.
C) No, you must be able to safely land and stop the aircraft within the
available landing distance.
No, you must be able to safely land and stop the aircraft within the
available landing distance.
152
Question: 1158 Remaining: 65
A pilot with a Commercial Pilot Certificate plans to operate an aircraft as
Pilot in Command with a maximum gross takeoff weight in excess of
12,500 pounds carrying passengers. What additional requirement needs
to be satisfied?
A) The pilot needs a type rating to operate as pilot in command.
B) A proficiency check needs to be performed before carrying
passengers.
C) No additional requirements need to be satisfied to operate the aircraft.
The pilot needs a type rating to operate as pilot in command.
153
Question: 1163 Remaining: 64
A pilot could have their airman certificates suspended or revoked for
A) multiple failures of an FAA practical test within a 12-month time
period.
B) any conviction of federal or state statutes relating to the sale or
possession of narcotic drugs.
C) failing to report to the Administrator any violation of the regulations
that they may witness.
any conviction of federal or state statutes relating to the sale or
possession of narcotic drugs.
154
Question: 1182 Remaining: 63
During your preflight inspection, you notice that the airspeed indicator is
indicating 15 knots at all times. According to 14 CFR part 91, is this
aircraft able to be flown in VFR conditions?
A) Yes, as long as there is an approved minimum equipment list for this
aircraft.
B) No, the airspeed indicator is a required instrument for VFR flight.
C) Yes, this aircraft is airworthy for flight in VFR conditions.
No, the airspeed indicator is a required instrument for VFR flight.
155
Question: 1183 Remaining: 62
During your preflight inspection, you notice that your ELT was last
inspected 13 months ago. According to 14 CFR Part 91, is this aircraft
airworthy?
A) Yes, as long as you can verify the ELT battery is charged.
B) No, this exceeds the 12 month inspection cycle requirement.
C) Yes, this meets the 24 month inspection cycle requrement.
No, this exceeds the 12 month inspection cycle requirement.
156
Question: 1184 Remaining: 61
During the preflight inspection, you discover that one of the shoulder
harnesses is inoperative.
A) The seat may not be occupied by a crewmember or passenger.
B) Allow a crewmember to use the seat as long as it does not interfere
with their duties.
C) Use the seat as long as it is for a passenger and not a crewmember.
The seat may not be occupied by a crewmember or passenger.
157
Question: 1200 Remaining: 60
You have been asked to fly over a public event. Are you allowed to drop
candy to the crowd?
A) Yes, if you determine it does not pose a hazard to persons or property.
B) No, it would violate regulations.
C) Yes, if the sponsor determines it does not pose a hazard to persons or
property.
Yes, if you determine it does not pose a hazard to persons or property.
158
Question: 1201 Remaining: 59
You are flying over water beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
You are required to
A) require the use of shoulder harnesses at all times during flight.
B) carry at least one pyrotechnic signaling device.
C) carry at least 3 operable flashlights with red beams.
carry at least one pyrotechnic signaling device.
159
Question: 1202 Remaining: 58
You are flying a VFR cross-country to an airport in Class C airspace, and
ATC informs you that your transponder appears to be inoperative. Can you
continue your flight and land at your destination?
A) No, you must land as soon as practical.
B) Yes, you may proceed to your destination airport.
C) Yes, only if the destination airport has a repair facility.
Yes, you may proceed to your destination airport.
160
Question: 1203 Remaining: 57
You discover that your transponder is inoperative on the ground. What
must you do before flying into a repair facility in Class B airspace?
A) You must contact ATC to get an approved deviation.
B) You can not fly into Class B airspace before getting your transponder
fixed.
C) You must remove the transponder, install a removal placard, and hand-
carry it to the repair facility.
You must contact ATC to get an approved deviation.
161
Question: 1204 Remaining: 56
You are the PIC conducting a preflight inspection with the aircraft owner
prior to a cross-country flignt. Who is responsible for determining that the
aircraft is airworthy?
A) Owner.
B) Operator.
C) PIC.
PIC.
162
Question: 1206 Remaining: 55
What information is required to be entered into an aircraft maintenance
record after the aircraft is returned to service following an annual
inspection?
A) Certificate number of approving facility.
B) Date and location where the aircraft was returned to service.
C) The maintainer's certification number and signature.
The maintainer's certification number and signature.
163
Question: 1207 Remaining: 54
You are planning an IFR cross-country. One of the passengers wants to
use her electronic tablet to read. Is this allowed?
A) No, itis not authorized.
B) Yes, if you determine it will not interfere with the communication and
navigation systems.
C) Only if her device has been certified for flight.
Yes, if you determine it will not interfere with the communication and
navigation systems.
164
Question: 1214 Remaining: 53
You are planning an IFR flight, and one of your passengers has a heart
pacemaker. Is this passenger allowed to fly in the aircraft?
A) No, because a heart pacemaker is a portable electronic device.
B) Yes, only in instrument meteorological conditions.
C) Yes, heart pacemakers are allowed.
Yes, heart pacemakers are allowed.
165
Question: 1215 Remaining: 52
What maintenance may a certificated pilot, who does not hold an Airframe
and Powerplant certificate, perform?
A) Only an Airframe and Powerplant certificated pilot may perform
maintenance.
B) Pilots can not perform maintenance.
C) Pilot may perform any maintenance that does not involve complex
assembly operations.
Pilot may perform any maintenance that does not involve complex
assembly operations.
166
Question: 1216 Remaining: 51
You are the PIC of a small, single engine reciprocating engine, propeller
aircraft and want to know if you can fly an instructional flight for hire. Here
is the maintenance data:
Total hours - 5,116
Time since last annual inspection - 4 months
Hours at last 100-hour inspection - 5,018
Overfly hours at last inspection - 4
A) No, it has overflown by 4 hours.
B) Yes, you have 2 hours remaining until the next 100 hour inspection.
C) No, the 100 hour inspection was due at 5,114 hours.
No, the 100 hour inspection was due at 5,114 hours.
167
Question: 1221 Remaining: 50
You are acting as PIC, and the pilot acting as SIC becomes incapacitated
due to chest pains. You should
A) immediatly notify the Civil Aeromedical Institute.
B) immediately notify the local flight standards district office.
C) immediately notify the NTSB.
immediately notify the NTSB.
168
Question: 1222 Remaining: 49
You are the PIC, and you encounter in-flight a flight control malfunction.
You should
A) report within 7 days to the NTSB.
B) report immediately to the NTSB.
C) report to the nearest FSDO.
report immediately to the NTSB.
169
Question: 1228 Remaining: 48
You are planning a VFR flight and a portion of your flight will have you
flying at 13,500 MSL for 45 minutes. Will the use of supplemental oxygen
be required?
A) Supplemental oxygen is required for any flight over 12,560 MSL.
B) Supplemental oxygen is required for any flight exceeding 30 minutes at
this altitude.
C) Supplemental oxygen is required for crew members only.
Supplemental oxygen is required for any flight exceeding 30 minutes at
this altitude.
170
Question: 1229 Remaining: 47
According to 14 CFR Part 91, what may you find in the maintenance
records?
A) The list of items that need to be replaced at the next maintenance
activity.
B) Total time on the airframe, each engine, each propeller and rotors.
C) The address of a list of suppliers of non-aircraft parts.
Total time on the airframe, each engine, each propeller and rotors.
171
Question: 1230 Remaining: 46
What is the flight visibility requirement in Class E airspace above 10,000
MSL?
A) 15M.
B) 3 NM.
C) 5 SM.
5 SM.
172
Question: 1231 Remaining: 45
You are an essential crew member on a flight. You must have your
shoulder harness on
A) when you are at the crew Station.
B) during takeoff and landing.
C) during takeoff, landing, and enroute.
during takeoff and landing.
173
Question: 1240 Remaining: 44
You are flying over water beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
You are required to carry
A) an adequate number of life rafts to carry the passengers.
B) an approved flotation device for each passenger.
C) an approved flotation device for each passenger over the age of 2.
an approved flotation device for each passenger.
174
Question: 1254 Remaining: 43
You are pilot in command of a VFR cross-country flight. As part of your
pre-flight planning, you must
A) file a flight plan if the flight is beyond 50 NM.
8B) obtain a flight weather briefing.
C) file a flight plan.
obtain a flight weather briefing.
175
Question: 1256 Remaining: 42
You have performed 15 takeoffs and landings in a single engine land
airplane in the last 60 days. This satisfies PIC recency requirements for
A) single engine land.
B) multiengine and single engine land.
C) multiengine land.
single engine land.
176
Question: 1257 Remaining: 41
You are the PIC carrying passengers back from a football game. One
appears to be intoxicated. Can you carry that passenger?
A) Yes, as long as there is another passenger to take care of him.
B) No, you may not carry an intoxicated passenger.
C) Yes, as long as he is secured in his seatbelt for the entire flight.
No, you may not carry an intoxicated passenger.
177
Question: 1261 Remaining: 40
You are about to depart on a flight when you realize the last transponder
inspection was 14 months ago. Can you fly the aircraft?
A) Yes, the inspection is good for 24 months.
B) No, the inspection is good for 6 months.
C) No, the inspection is good for 12 months.
Yes, the inspection is good for 24 months.
178
Question: 1263 Remaining: 39
You are being towed and your aircraft strikes another aircraft on the
ground. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 8307
A) Areport must be filed with the nearest FAA field office within 7 days.
B) An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft
with the nearest NTSB field office.
C) No notification or report is required.
No notification or report is required.
179
Question: 1271 Remaining: 38
You are planning a trip and one of your passengers states that he prefers
not to use his shoulder harness because itis uncomfortable. You should
A) explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the
shoulder harness during takeoff and landing.
B) allow him to use his seatbelt for the entire trip without the shoulder
harness.
C) allow him to use his seatbelt for takeoff and landing and the shoulder
harness while enroute.
A) explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the
shoulder harness during takeoff and landing.
180
Question: 1272 Remaining: 37
After an aircraft has been altered in a manner that changed its flight
characteristics, what must be accomplished before carrying passengers?
A) The person that performed the alteration must state that the aircraft is
safe for flight.
B) An operational check by an appropriately rated pilot.
C) A letter of authorization from an FAA field office that approved the
alteration must be issued.
An operational check by an appropriately rated pilot.
181
Question: 1312 Remaining: 36
To act as PIC of a complex airplane, what additional training is required?
A) Logged at least 5 hours of SIC time in a complex or turbine aircraft in
the last 12 months.
B) Receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and
obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.
C) Logged at least 5 hours of PIC time in an aircraft with greater than 200
HP in the last 12 months.
Receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and
obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.
182
Question: 1316 Remaining: 35
When flying during night VFR conditions, your aircraft must have
A) two-way radio communications.
B) approved position lights.
C) approved flashing lights with red lenses.
approved position lights.
183
Question: 1367 Remaining: 34
You are planning a VFR night cross-country carrying passengers.
According to 14 CFR part 91, how much fuel must you carry?
A) Enough fuel to reach your destination plus an additional 30 minutes.
B) Enough fuel to reach your destination plus an additional 20 minutes.
C) Enough fuel to reach your destination plus an additional 45 minutes.
Enough fuel to reach your destination plus an additional 45 minutes.
184
Question: 1368 Remaining: 33
You are the pilot in command of an aircraft flying in Day VMC conditions.
Are you required to operate the anticollision lights?
A) You are required to operate the anticollision lights in day or night.
B) You are not required to operate the anticollision lights if visibility is
greater than 5 miles.
C) You are required to operate the anticollision lights any time the visibility
is less than 3 miles.
You are required to operate the anticollision lights in day or night.
185
Question: 1382 Remaining: 32
What flight time must a commercial pilot record when exercising the
privileges of their pilot certificate?
A) Flight time gained during the qualification as PIC for compensation or
hire must be recorded,
B) Flight experience gained while acting as PIC for compensation or hire is
all that is required to be logged.
C) Only the flight time and experience that shows the pilot meets the
aeronautical experience to act as a pilot crewmember.
Only the flight time and experience that shows the pilot meets the
aeronautical experience to act as a pilot crewmember.
186
Question: 1396 Remaining: 31
In accordance with 14 CFR part 91, a minimum equipment list (MEL)
A) allows aircraft operation with any equipment inoperative.
B) is prohibited by 14 CFR part 91.
C) allows aircraft operations with selected equipment non-operational.
is prohibited by 14 CFR part 91.
187
Question: 1397 Remaining: 30
Can a pilot flying with a valid Military Medical Certificate use that in place
of an FAA-issued medical certificate?
```
A) Yes, as long as the pilot is not using it for anything more than what
requires a third-class medical certificate.
```
```
B) No, itis not valid, and the pilot must obtain an FAA medical certificate.
C) Yes, the pilot can use it in place of a first-class medical certificate.
```
```
Yes, as long as the pilot is not using it for anything more than what
requires a third-class medical certificate.
```
188
Question: 1398 Remaining: 29
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when
landing at a controlled airport?
A) Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal
from the tower.
B) Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings.
C) Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the
airport.
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal
from the tower.
189
Question: 1399 Remaining: 28
If a pilot received a first-class medical certificate 13 months ago, the pilot
may
A) not fly any flights.
B) only fly for pleasure and not for hire.
C) fly for hire.
only fly for pleasure and not for hire.
190
```
Question: 1400 Remaining: 27
A third-class medical certificate issued to a pilot is valid for at least
```
A) 12 months.
B) 24 months.
C) 36 months.
24 months.
191
Question: 1406 Remaining: 26
Any person who holds a pilot certificate or medical certificate shall
present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the
National Transportation Safety Board, or any
A) person ina position of authority.
B) authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
C) federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
192
Question: 1411 Remaining: 25
Which incident requires the immediate notification of the NTSB?
A) An aircraft is overdue and is suspected to have been in an accident.
B) In-flight communication/radio failure.
C) In-flight generator/alternator failure.
An aircraft is overdue and is suspected to have been in an accident.
193
Question: 1413 Remaining: 24
(Refer to figure 53, point 2) A correct VFR cruising altitude on V230
eastbound is
A) 6,000 feet.
B) 6,500 feet.
C) 5,500 feet.
5,500 feet. (figure is Odd plus 500)
194
Question: 1414 Remaining: 23
You are flying VFR with an inoperable transponder, and your flight path
takes you through Class D airspace. You should
A) continue the flight as planned.
B) not fly into Class D airspace.
C) ask for priority handling.
continue the flight as planned.
195
Question: 1417 Remaining: 22
A second-class medical certificate issued to a 42-year old on January 10
of this year will expire
A) January 10 of next year for private pilot privileges.
B) January 31 of next year for commercial pilot privileges.
C) January 31, 2 years later for commercial pilot privileges.
January 31 of next year for commercial pilot privileges.
196
Question: 1418 Remaining: 21
During a VFR flight, the manifold pressure gauge becomes inoperative.
The pilot lands and shuts down and sees in the flight manual that the
gauge is required for flight. If the pilot placards the instrument
inoperative, can the aircraft be flown?
A) Yes.
B) No, the instrument is required for VFR flight.
C) The gauge can be either placarded or removed, and then the aircraft
can be flown.
No, the instrument is required for VFR flight.
197
Question: 1424 Remaining: 20
You have been asked to fly someone who appears to be under the
influence of drugs. Can you carry that passenger?
A) Yes, in case of emergency, or if under proper medical care.
B) Under no circumstance can you carry that passenger.
C) Yes, as long as the passenger has no access to the cockpit or PIC.
Yes, in case of emergency, or if under proper medical care.
198
Question: 1425 Remaining: 19
When may a child be seated on a parent's lap and not have to wear a seat
belt?
A) When the child is less than 2 years old.
B) When the child weighs less than 20 pounds.
C) When the adult carrying the child is wearing a seat belt.
When the child is less than 2 years old.
199
Question: 1428 Remaining: 18
As the PIC of a flight, which is required to be part of your preflight
preparation?
A) Review of the aircraft or rotorcraft operation manual.
B) File a flight plan and other pertinent information.
C) Review runway lengths at airports of intended use.
Review runway lengths at airports of intended use.
200
Question: 1430 Remaining: 17
The organizer of a charity event asks you to drop balloons out of your
plane flying over. Are you allowed to?
A) Yes, if areasonable amount of precaution is taken to be reasonably
certain it will not cause injury or damage to persons or property.
B) Yes, if the administrator of the event authorizes it.
C) No.
Yes, if areasonable amount of precaution is taken to be reasonably
certain it will not cause injury or damage to persons or property.
201
Question: 1433 Remaining: 16
(Refer to figure 52, point 8.) What is the minimum flight visibility needed to
land at Auburn (AUN) at night under VFR?
A) 15M.
B) 5 SM.
C) 3 SM.
3 SM.
202
Question: 1435 Remaining: 15
(Refer to figure 52, point 8.) You are flying east VFR on V392 near point 8
at 11,500 feet MSL. What is your minimum visibility and cloud clearance?
A) This is a federal airway and you must remain clear of clouds.
B) 3 SM visibility; 1,600 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet
horizontal.
C) 5 SM visibility; 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile
horizontal.
5 SM visibility; 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile
horizontal.
203
Question: 1437 Remaining: 14
You are flying over mountainous terrain on a VFR flight, and your flight plan
has a leg over 18,500 feet MSL. You can continue your flight as planned if
you
A) have an ATC altimeter with ADS-B,
B) maintain VFR procedures and altitudes.
C) file an IFR flight plan for that leg.
ile an IFR flight plan for that leg.
204
ile an IFR flight plan for that leg.
You must comply with all aircraft placards.
205
Question: 1444 Remaining: 13
When can you operate an aircraft in a manner contrary to its placard?
A) You must comply with all aircraft placards.
B) When itis not included in the POH/AFM.
C) At any time, placards are advisory only.
You must comply with all aircraft placards.
206
Question: 1446 Remaining: 11
May an aircraft fly that is not in compliance with an airworthiness directive
(AD)?
A) Yes, AD's are voluntary.
B) Yes, if the flight is conducted under VFR only.
C) Yes, if allowed by the AD.
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
207
Question: 1448 Remaining: 10
Your aircraft has an Airworthiness Directive that requires maintenance
every 100 hours. You check the records and find it has been 102 hours
since the last maintenance on this AD. What is the proper course of
action?
A) You can fly up to another 10 hours.
B) You can fly as long as you adhere to the instructions in the MEL.
C) You cannot fly since the airplane is not airworthy.
You cannot fly since the airplane is not airworthy.
208
Question: 1455 Remaining: 9
A 23-year old pilot received his First Class medical on October 21st.
When will it expire?
A) October 31st, 12 months later.
B) October 31st, 36 months later.
C) October 21st, 24 months later.
October 31st, 12 months later.
209
Question: 1459 Remaining: 8
According to 14 CFR part 61, a pilot with a commercial pilot certificate
must enter which of the following in their pilot lognook?
A) Only those hours required to meet the requirements of a certificate,
rating, or flight review.
B) All hours flown must be logged.
C) No hours are required to be logged in the pilot logbook.
Only those hours required to meet the requirements of a certificate,
rating, or flight review.
210
Question: 1460 Remaining: 7
A commercial pilot received a second-class medical certificate 13 months
ago. What duties can the pilot perform?
A) Any pilot duties as the certificate is valid for 24 months.
B) No pilot duties as the certificate has expired.
C) Can exercise private pilot privileges.
Can exercise private pilot privileges.
211
Question: 1461 Remaining: 6
A third class medical certificate is issued to a 51 year old pilot with a
commercial pilot certificate on May 3rd of this year. Under what privileges
may the medical certificate be used?
A) FAA rated pilots must have a second class medical certificate.
B) Flying for personal use or pleasure.
C) May fly commercially as SIC.
Flying for personal use or pleasure.
212
Question: 1467 Remaining: 5
What is an appropriate VFR cruising altitude if established on a 270°
magnetic course?
A) 4,500 feet.
B) 5,000 feet.
C) 5,500 feet.
4,500 feet.
213
Question: 1472 Remaining: 4
Which document(s) are required to be in your possession while acting as
pilot in command of an aircraft?
A) FAA pilot certificate.
B) The appropriate pilot certificate and medical certificate.
C) FAA mechanic or pilot certificate, and FAA medical certificate.
The appropriate pilot certificate and medical certificate.
214
Question: 1475 Remaining: 3
After instructing the passengers on how to fasten their seatbelts, prior to
takeoff, the pilot must
A) notify the passengers to fasten their seatbelts.
B) cover any other safety information that may be pertinent to the flight.
C) offer cabin beverage service.
notify the passengers to fasten their seatbelts.
215
Question: 1477 Remaining: 2
According to 14 CFR Part 91, where must an aircraft's airworthiness
certificate be displayed?
A) On the title page of the POH/AFM, below the aircraft's serial number.
B) It does not have to be displayed, provided it is accessible to the flight
crew.
C) At the cockpit or cabin entrance so that it is legible to passengers or
crew.
At the cockpit or cabin entrance so that it is legible to passengers or
crew.
216
Question: 1481 Remaining: 1
You are the PIC of an aircraft, and a piece of equipment that is not on the
MEL is inoperative. You are required to
A) placard the equipment as inoperative.
B) notify the owner or operator of the inoperative equipment.
C) notify the aircraft mechanic within 24 hours.
placard the equipment as inoperative.
217
Question: 1486 Remaining: G
Which document(s) must be clearly legible to the passengers and crew?
A) The aircraft registration and placards must be visible from the cockpit
and cabin.
B) The airworthiness certificate must be clearly visible from the cockpit
and cabin.
C) The airworthiness certificate does not need to be visible, but available
upon request.
The airworthiness certificate must be clearly visible from the cockpit
and cabin.
218
Question: 11 Remaining: 124
You are landing at a Class D airport with the tower notin operation. Which
of the following airspace rules apply?
A) All Class D requirements apply to this airspace.
B) Class E surface rules apply, or a combination of Class E to 700 feet
AGL and Class G to the surface rules apply.
C) Class B rules from the surface to 2,500 feet AGL apply.
Class E surface rules apply, or a combination of Class E to 700 feet
AGL and Class G to the surface rules apply.
219
Question: 48 Remaining: 123
In the contiguous United States, the vertical limits of victor airways extend
from
A) surface to 14,500 feet MSL.
B) 1,200 feet AGL up to the bottom of the overlying controlled airspace.
C) 700 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 AGL.
1,200 feet AGL up to the bottom of the overlying controlled airspace.
220
Question: 69 Remaining: 122
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is
required for
A) Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
B) all airspace of the 48 contiquous U.S. and the District of Columbia at
and above 10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet
above the surface).
C) both [ ie. Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas as well as all
airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the District of Columbia at and
above 10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above
the surface) J.
Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
221
Question: 70 Remaining: 121
In the contiguous U.5., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet
AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode © capability is
required in all airspace above
A) 16,000 feet MSL.
B) 12,500 feet MSL.
C) 14,500 feet MSL.
16,000 feet MSL.
222
Question: 85 Remaining: 120
What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within
Class B airspace? A transponder
A) with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.
B) with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or
below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement.
C) is required for airplane operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.
with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.
223
Question: 89 Remaining: 119
While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle,
and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has
the right-of-way, and why?
A) The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane.
B) The helicopter, because helicopters have the right-of-way over
airplanes.
C) The airplane, because airplanes have the right-of-way over
helicopters.
The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane.
224
Question: 90 Remaining: 118
Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the
purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
A) at the higher altitude.
B) at the lower altitude.
C) that is more maneuverable.
at the lower altitude.
225
Question: 91 Remaining: 117
During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light
of aircraft #2. lf the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-
way? The pilot of aircraft
A) #2: aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1.
B) #2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1
C) #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.
1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.
226
Question: 92 Remaining: 116
A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane
approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?
A) The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine
airplane is to its right.
B) The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other
airplane is to the left.
C) Each pilot should alter course to the right.
The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine
airplane is to its right.
227
Question: 93 Remaining: 115
An airplane is overtaking another airplane. Which airplane has the right-of-
way?
A) The overtaking airplane has the right-of-way and should alter course to
the right to pass.
B) The airplane being overtaken has the right-of-way and should expect to
be passed on the right.
C) The airplane being overtaken has the right-of-way and should expect
to be passed on the left.
The airplane being overtaken has the right-of-way and should expect to
be passed on the right.
228
Question: 94 Remaining: 114
An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
A) Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
B) Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to the left to pass.
C) Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.
Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
229
Question: 95 Remaining: 113
What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace
underlying Class B airspace?
A) 156 knots.
B) 200 knots.
C) 230 knots.
200 knots.
230
Question: 96 Remaining: 112
One leg of your trip will be within 4 NM and 2,500 feet AGL of a Class D
airport. What should your speed be?
A) 150 knots.
B) 200 knots.
C) 250 knots.
200 knots.
231
Question: 97 Remaining: 111
What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic
flight?
A) 1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles.
B) 2,000 feet MSL and 2 miles.
C) 3,000 feet AGL and 1 mile.
1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles.
232
Question: 103 Remaining: 110
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
A) Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is
instrument rated.
B) The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in
that area.
C) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in
that area.
233
Question: 104 Remaining: 109
Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in
Class B airspace?
A) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with
an instrument rating.
B) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
C) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
234
Question: 105 Remaining: 108
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
A) The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude
reporting equipment.
B) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with
an instrument rating.
C) The pilot in command must hold at least a Commercial (unrestricted)
pilot certificate.
The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude
reporting equipment.
235
Question: 106 Remaining: 107
The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles
beginning at an altitude of
A) 14,500 feet MSL.
B) 16,0G0 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.
C) 10,000 feet MSL regardless of height above ground.
16,0G0 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.
236
Question: 108 Remaining: 106
What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements
for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace?
A) 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds.
B) 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.
C) 5 miles visibility; 1,060 feet above and 1,000 feet below.
3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.
237
Question: 111 Remaining: 105
When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within
Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds
and what visibility are required?
A) Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.
B) 560 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1
SM.
C) Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 NM.
Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM
238
Question: 112 Remaining; 104
At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not
reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are
A) not authorized.
B) authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
C) authorized only if the ground visibility is observed to be at least 3 SM.
) authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
239
Question: 113 Remaining: 103
To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace
at night, which is required?
A) The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not be
equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or
above SVFR minimums.
B) The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR
area.
C) The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be
equipped for instrument flight.
The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be
equipped for instrument flight.
240
Question: 114 Remaining: 102
VER cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying
A) at 3,000 feet or more AGL, based on true course.
B) more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.
C) at 3,000 feet or more above MSL, based on magnetic heading.
more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.
241
Question: 115 Remaining: 101
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise
authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is
A) 2,000 feet over all terrain.
B) 3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over
terrain elsewhere,
C) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous
terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous
terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
242
Question: 139 Remaining: 100
What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000
feet MSL?
A) Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.
B) 29.92" Hg.
C) Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.
29.92" Hg.
243
Question: 141 Remaining: 99
When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control
tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should
A) make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
B) fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.
C) enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.
make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
244
Question: 143 Remaining: 98
When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating
control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications
prior to
A) & NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
B) 5 NM, and up to and including 3,G00 feet AGL.
C) 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
245
Question: 144 Remaining: 97
When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D
airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to
A) 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
B) 30 SM, and be transponder equipped.
C) 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
246
Question: 145 Remaining: 96
You are operating out of a non-towered satellite airport within Class ©
airspace.
A) Prior to takeoff, you must establish communication with the ATC
controlling facility.
B) Your aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude
reporting equipment.
C) You must contact clearance delivery prior to departure if VFR.
Your aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude
reporting equipment.
247
Question: 146 Remaining: 95
Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport,
without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
A) You must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with
the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace as soon as
practical after takeoff.
B) You must file and receive clearance from ATC before departing.
C) You must obtain clearance from Class C tower before departure.
You must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with
the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace as soon as
practical after takeoff.
248
Question: 147 Remaining: 94
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
A) Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring
equipment (DME).
B) Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.
C) Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.
Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.
249
Question: 148 Remaining: 93
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?
A) Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring
equipment (DME).
B) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude
reporting equipment.
C) May conduct operations under visual flight rules.
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude
reporting equipment.
250
Question: 149 Remaining: 92
When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric
pressure exists, or will be above inches of mercury, flight operations
will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMS.
A) 31.00
B) 32.00
C) 30.50
31
251
Question: 580 Remaining: 91
Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict
airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
A) Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are
shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta.
B) Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are
shown in magenta.
C) Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace
are shown in blue.
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace
are shown in blue.
252
Question; 582 Remaining: 90
(Refer to figure 52, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of
Woodland is
A) 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.
B) 1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder.
C) both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.
C) both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.
253
```
Question: 583 Remaining: 89
(Refer to figure 52, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over
University Airport (EDU) is
```
A) the surface.
B) 700 feet AGL.
C) 1,200 feet AGL.
700 feet AGL.
254
Question: 592 Remaining: 88
(Refer to figure 52, point 9) The alert area depicted within the magenta
lines is an area in which
A) there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of
aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.
B) the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
C) the flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction.
there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of
aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft.
255
Question: 594 Remaining: 87
When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional
aeronautical chart, it will depict the boundary of
A) Special VFR airspace.
B) Class B airspace
C) Class D airspace.
Class D airspace.
256
Question: 598 Remaining: 86
(Refer to figure 52, point 4) The highest obstruction within 10 NM of
Lincoln Regional Airport (LHM) is how high above the ground?
A) 1,245 feet.
B) 662 feet.
C) 229 feet.
662 feet.
257
Question: 605 Remaining: 85
(Refer to figure 53, point 3) You are approaching Madera (MAE) airport
from the northwest at 1,000 feet MSL, and flight visibility is 1 SM. Should
you remain in Class E airspace until entering the traffic pattern?
A) Yes, as long as you do not go above 1,000 feet MSL and remain in
Class E airspace.
B) No, you would have to descend and remain clear of Class E airspace.
C) No, the airspace surrounding MAE would be closed with 1 SM visibility.
No, you would have to descend and remain clear of Class E airspace.
258
Question: 674 Remaining: 84
(Refer to figure 51.) When exiting a runway, you are clear of the active
runway when you pass
A) is on the dashed-line side of sign 'G'
B) passes the red sign 'D'.
C) is past the solid-line side of sign 'G'
is past the solid-line side of sign 'G'
259
Question: 675 Remaining: 83
(Refer to figure 51.) The red sign ‘D' would most likely be found
A) upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control.
8B) at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.
C) near the approach end of ILS runways.
) at an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway
260
Question: 6/6 Remaining: 82
(Refer to figure 51.) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely
clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign?
A) 'D'
B) 'H’.
C) 'G‘
H
261
Question: 684 Remaining: 81
What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a
night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead
and at your altitude? The other aircraft is
A) headed away from you.
B) crossing to your left.
C) approaching you head-on.
headed away from you.
262
Question: 983 Remaining: 80
The "taxiway ending" marker
A) Provides general taxiing direction to taxiway.
B) Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
C) Indicates taxiway does not continue.
Indicates taxiway does not continue.
263
Question: 985 Remaining: 79
When exiting the runway, the "runway exit" sign indicates the
A) direction to turn to exit the runway onto the named taxiway.
B) direction to the takeoff runway.
C) designation and direction of the taxiway leading out of an intersection.
direction to turn to exit the runway onto the named taxiway.
264
Question: 986 Remaining: 78
The 'ILS critical area boundary sign’ identifies
A) the edge of the ILS critical area.
B) the exit boundary for the runway protected area.
C) an area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.
the edge of the ILS critical area.
265
Question: 987 Remaining: 77
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the ‘taxiway directional
sign’ indicates the
A) direction to the take-off runway.
B) designation and direction of the taxiway(s) leading out of an
intersection.
C) designation and direction of the exit taxiway from the runway.
designation and direction of the taxiway(s) leading out of an
intersection.
266
Question: 988 Remaining: 76
(Refer to figure 60.) You are taxiing and see sign 2 on the left side of the
intersection you are approaching. You see sign 1 in front of you across the
intersection. Does taxiway A continue through the intersection?
A) Yes.
B) No.
C) Need more information.
No, .
267
Question: 989 Remaining: 75
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is
required for
1) Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
2) all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and District of Columbia at and
above 10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above
the surface).
A) 1.
B) Both 1 and 2.
C) 2.
Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
268
Question: 990 Remaining: 74
The 'taxiway location’ sign serves to
A) provide general taxiing direction to named runway.
B) identify taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
C) denote entrance to runway from a taxiway.
identify taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
269
Question: 1004 Remaining: 73
(Refer to figure 64.) You see this sign when holding short of the runway.
You receive clearance to back taxi on the runway for a full-length runway 8
departure. Which way should you turn when first taxiing on to the runway
for takeoff?
A) Left.
B) Right.
C) Need more information.
Right.
270
Question: 1005 Remaining: 72
Within aircraft movement areas, destination signs identify the
A) runway on which an aircraft is located.
B) direction to take-off runways.
C) entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
direction to take-off runways.
271
Question: 1015 Remaining: 71
After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, what action is a first
priority?
A) Maintain positive control.
B) Maneuver to a lighted highway.
C) Turn off all electrical equipment.
Maintain positive control.
272
Question: 1020 Remaining: 70
What is the purpose of a Runway Threshold Bar?
A) Indicates the maximum length of runway that may be used for taxi after
landing.
B) Indicates a runway that is approved for instrument approaches.
C) Indicates the beginning of a runway with a displaced threshold.
Indicates the beginning of a runway with a displaced threshold.
273
Question: 1024 Remaining: 69
(Refer to figure 64.) You see this sign when holding short of the runway.
You receive clearance for departure on runway 26. Which way should you
turn on to the runway for takeoff?
A) Left.
B) Right.
C) Need more information.
Right.
274
Question: 1027 Remaining: 68
The term Airport means an area of land or water that is
A) scheduled for use as an airport.
B) used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and
includes taxiways and other ground movement areas.
C) used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and
includes its buildings and facilities, if any.
used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and
includes its buildings and facilities, if any.
275
Question: 1041 Remaining: 67
(Refer to figure 61.) According to this sign, you are on taxiway
A) E.
B) T.
C) A.
E
276
```
Question: 1081 Remaining: 66
(Refer to figure 53, point 3) The floor of the controlled airspace over
Firebaugh Airport (F34) is
```
A) 700 feet AGL.
B) 1,200 feet AGL.
C) 1,600 feet AGL.
700 feet AGL.
277
Question: 1094 Remaining: 65
Why is a fatigued pilot a hazard?
A) A pilot of copilot may not realize they are too tired to fly until serious
errors are made.
8) Fatigue errors are usually gross errors of aeronautical knowledge.
C) Pilots exceed the limitations of aircraft in one other way.
A pilot of copilot may not realize they are too tired to fly until serious
errors are made.
278
Question: 1095 Remaining: 64
(Refer to figure 53, point 1) You are planning to depart on a day VFR flight
from Madera (MAE) airport. The floor of controlled airspace over the
airport is
A) 700 feet AGL.
B) 1200 feet AGL.
C) 1506 feet AGL.
700 feet AGL.
279
Question: 1097 Remaining: 63
To avoid landing at the wrong airport or on the wrong runway, a pilot
should
A) contact Unicom to get the latest field information.
B) follow the instrument approach chart for the appropriate runway.
C) contact tower for verification.
follow the instrument approach chart for the appropriate runway.
280
Question: 1098 Remaining: 62
(Refer to figure 902.) This sign confirms your position on
A) runway 22.
B) routing to runway 22.
C) taxiway to runway 22.
runway 22.
281
Question: 1099 Remaining: 61
(Refer to figure 64.) You see this sign when holding short of the runway.
If you turn left at the intersection, you will be
A) preparing for a runway 26 intersection takeoff.
B) preparing for a taxiway intersection takeoff.
C) preparing for a runway & intersection takeoff.
preparing for a runway & intersection takeoff.
282
Question: 1108 Remaining: 60
Your route of flight at 8,500 feet MSL will take you through Class B
airspace. Before entering the airspace, you need
A) an ATC clearance.
B) an instrument rating.
C) a student endorsement from ATC.
an ATC clearance.
283
Question: 1117 Remaining: 59
If the tower is not in operation, the associated airspace reverts to
A) Class B.
B) Class C.
C) Class E,
Class E,
284
Question: 1119 Remaining: 58
(Refer to figure 52, point 6.) When departing from Rancho Murieta (RIU) on
a VFR flight to Sacramento International (SMF), you contact Sacramento
approach. Your flight takes you through Sacramento Mather (MHR)
airspace. Are you cleared to enter MHR airspace?
A) Yes, because MHR is uncontrolled airspace.
B) Yes, because contacting Sacramento approach will clear you through
the airspace.
C) No, a clearance is required to enter MHR airspace.
No, a clearance is required to enter MHR airspace.
285
Question: 1120 Remaining: 57
(Refer to figure 54, point 1.) You are departing Livermore airport (LVK) VFR
enroute to San Francisco (SFO). You must have
A) an endorsement in your logbook for SFO.
B) an instrument rating.
C) an ATC clearance.
an ATC clearance.
286
```
Question: 1124 Remaining: 56
(Refer to figure 53, point 4.) What is the required flight visibility if you are
VFR northeast bound on ¥230-585 at 4,500 feet MSL passing north of
the Johnston (MSO) airport?
```
A) 15M.
B) 3 SM.
C) 5 SM.
3 SM.
287
Question: 1139 Remaining: 55
(Refer to figure 903.) While taxiing for takeoff, the controller gives you
instructions to hold short of the runway 15 approach area. Following this
instruction will ensure protection for approaches to
A) Runway 15.
B) Runway 15 and Runway 33 approaches.
C) Runway 15 and Runway 33 departures.
Runway 15 and Runway 33 departures.
288
Question: 1140 Remaining: 54
(Refer to figure 54, point 3.) Penetrating the airspace R-25311 is
A) allowed, but there may be hazards in the area.
B) not allowed.
C) not allowed, unless on a VFR flight plan.
allowed, but there may be hazards in the area.
289
Question: 1147 Remaining: 53
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class 6 airspace, your
maximum indicated airspeed should be
A) 250 knots.
B) 200 knots.
C) 180 knots.
200 knots.
290
Question: 1154 Remaining: 52
(Refer to figure 57.) What is the significance of the dot between the 10
and 21?
A) Follow the arrow to get to either RWY 10 of RWY 21,
B) Follow the arrow to get to RWY 21, and look for further taxi routing for
RWY 10.
C) Follow the arrow to get to RWY 10, and look for further taxi routing for
RWY 21.
Follow the arrow to get to either RWY 10 of RWY 21,
291
Question: 1157 Remaining: 51
(Refer to figure 904.) You are landing on RWY O3. During the ground roll,
yOu notice this sign. You know that you have
A) 300 meters of runway available.
B) consumed 3,000 feet of runway.
C) 3,000 feet of runway remaining.
3,000 feet of runway remaining.
292
Question: 1159 Remaining: 50
One segment of your flight path takes you within 4 NM and 2,500 feet AGL
of a primary airport in Class C airspace. Your maximum indicated airspeed
should be
A) 200 knots.
B) 250 knots.
C) 150 knots.
200 knots.
293
```
Question: 1162 Remaining: 49
(Refer to figure 52, area 7.) What is the length of the longest runway at
Sacramento International (SMF) airport?
```
A) 2,700 feet.
B) Not enough information to determine.
C) 8,600 feet.
8,600 feet.
294
Question: 1195 Remaining: 48
(Refer to figure 60.) You have just landed and cleared the runway. Ground
control gives you the following instructions. “Cessna 12AB, taxi to the
ramp via taxiway A, right turn on taxiway E". You proceed down taxiway A
and encounter sign #1. What has occurred?
A) You have missed the intersection.
B) You should continue on taxiway A until seeing taxiway E.
C) You are on taxiway E and have missed taxiway A.
You have missed the intersection.
295
Question: 1196 Remaining: 47
(Refer to figure 64.) You have received clearance to land on runway 18 and
hold short of runway 26-8. After you land, you rollout past this sign. This
indicates that
A) you did not comply with the clearance and have passed runway 26-8.
B) you complied with the clearance and should stop at runway 26-8.
C) you should continue taxiing past runway 26-8.
you did not comply with the clearance and have passed runway 26-8.
296
Question: 1220 Remaining: 46
While flight planning using a sectional chart, you realize your planned
route takes you through a shaded blue area labeled P-40. What action
must be taken?
A) Contact ATC before entering the area.
B) Remain clear of the area.
C) Obtain clearance prior to takeoff.
Remain clear of the area.
297
Question: 1225 Remaining: 45
Under what conditions would a pilot make right turns in a traffic pattern at
an airport in Class G airspace without an operating control tower?
A) All turns in a traffic pattern are made to the left at a non-towered
controlled airport.
B) The airport has visual markings indicating that turns should be made to
the right.
C) Turns in a traffic pattern are made to the right at a non-towered
controlled airport in an airplane with other aircraft in the area.
The airport has visual markings indicating that turns should be made to
the right.
298
Question: 1226 Remaining: 44
You are in a traffic pattern and realize you are in imminent danger of
colliding with another aircraft. What is the first thing you should do?
A) Call ATC and report the aircraft.
B) Determine if the aircraft is taking evasive action.
C) Take immediate evasive action.
Take immediate evasive action.
299
Question: 1227 Remaining: 43
You are planning a VFR flight. If you are experiencing pilot fatique, you
will minimize the risk by
A) rethinking your plans and perhaps postponing the flight.
B) completing an abbreviated preflight inspection so you can depart
sooner.
C) knowing your experience will help you to overcome signs of fatigue.
rethinking your plans and perhaps postponing the flight.
300
Question: 1239 Remaining: 42
(Refer to figure 58.) You are ready to taxi from the west ramp. ATC gives
the following instructions, 'CESSNA 123BC, TAXI TO RUNWAY 06 VIA
ALPHA, BRAVO, AND HOLD SHORT RUNWAY 06°. Where would you stop
your taxiing to comply with the clearance?
A) Position 9.
B) Position 7.
C) Position 10.
Position 9.
301
Question: 1249 Remaining: 41
You are south of the airfield, and ATC tells you to enter a left downwind for
runway 24. What will your magnetic heading be (no wind) when you are
established on your downwind leg?
A) 060°
B) 240°
C) 030°.
060°
302
Question: 1251 Remaining: 40
You find out that the aircraft you fly at the local flying club has a new
airworthiness directive (AD). Where do you look to confirm the aircraft is
in compliance?
A) Verbal confirmation from the person who completed the maintenance.
B) The aircraft status sheet.
C) In the appropriate aircraft records.
In the appropriate aircraft records.
303
Question: 1255 Remaining: 39
(Refer to figure 61.) You received an ATC clearance, "Cessna 123AB, taxi
to runway 17 via taxiway alpha, tango.
A) You are on taxiway E. You must take a 90 degree right turn onto
taxiway A for taxiway T.
B) You are on taxiway A. You must take a 45 degree right turn for taxiway
T.
C) You must request further taxi instructions.
You are on taxiway A. You must take a 45 degree right turn for taxiway
T.
304
Question: 1273 Remaining: 38
(Refer to figure 51.) You are taxiing to an active runway and you see sign
'H'’, This sign means that
A) you are approaching a runway protected area.
B) you are approaching an ILS critical area.
C) you are approaching a runway safety area.
you are approaching an ILS critical area.
305
Question: 1282 Remaining: 37
(Refer to figure 54, point 3) What is signified by the NOTICE in Area 3 of
the sectional chart?
A) There is a restricted area in the vicinity.
B) All pilots must enter the Class B airspace above 800 feet AGL.
C) All pilots must remain above 800 feet AGL in the area represented by
the magenta circle.
All pilots must remain above 800 feet AGL in the area represented by
the magenta circle.
306
Question: 1287 Remaining: 36
While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle,
and the airplane is located to the right of the helicopter. Which aircraft has
the right-of-way, and why?
A) The airplane, because it is to the right of the helicopter.
B) The helicopter, because helicopters have the right-of-way over
airplanes.
C) The airplane, because airplanes have the right-of-way over
helicopters.
The airplane, because it is to the right of the helicopter.
307
Question: 1292 Remaining: 35
When may a pilot use BasicMed when flying with their commercial
privileges?
A) Pilots may not use BasicMed to fly with their commercial privileges.
B) Only when PIC of an aircraft requiring an SIC.
C) When operating as SIC.
Pilots may not use BasicMed to fly with their commercial privileges.
308
Question: 1304 Remaining: 34
You are on a VFR flight plan at 6,500 MSL in Class D airspace. What is the
required minimum in-flight visibility?
A) 15M.
B) 3 SM.
C) 5 SM.
3 SM.
309
Question: 1313 Remaining: 33
(Refer to figure 65.) This sign indicates
A) you can not enter the parking ramp thru this entrance.
8B) the taxiway does not continue beyond the intersection.
C) the edge of the VOR/ILS/NDB test area.
the taxiway does not continue beyond the intersection.
310
Question: 1322 Remaining: 32
You are on approach to an airport at night near an active military airfield.
ATC states "N123AB, advise when you have the airport in sight". In the
distance you see a rotating beacon with two quick white flashes and one
green flash. This is
A) your destination airport.
B) a heliport.
C) a military airfield.
a military airfield.
311
Question: 1395 Remaining: 31
You are on final, and the tower informs you that you are “cleared for the
option". This means
A) you must land and hold short.
B) you must go around.
C) you can either go around or land.
you can either go around or land.
312
Question: 1401 Remaining: 30
(Refer to figure 52, point 3.) Approaching Sacramento International (SMF)
from the northeast, what VHF frequency should you contact NORCAL
approach on?
A) 125.4,
B) 134.8.
C) 127.4.
125.4,
313
Question: 1402 Remaining: 29
(Refer to Figure 54, attached as figure 905.) Which runway (18/36 and
09/27) and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in
the segmented circle?
A) Right-hand traffic on Rwy 18.
B) Right-hand traffic on Rwy 09.
C) Left-hand traffic on Rwy 36.
Left-hand traffic on Rwy 36.
314
Question: 1403 Remaining: 28
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
A) 45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.
B) to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern
altitude.
C) to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the
downwind leg.
to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern
altitude.
315
Question: 1405 Remaining: 27
(Refer to figure 54, point 6) What is the length of the longest runway at
Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK)?
A) 9,000 feet.
B) Not enough information to determine.
C) 8,500 feet.
8,500 feet.
316
Question: 1407 Remaining: 26
ATC informs you radar services are terminated departing Class C airspace.
You should set the transponder to
A) OGGO.
B) 1200.
C) 4096.
1200
317
Question: 1408 Remaining: 25
Lighting at a field is on medium intensity. How many clicks would change
it to high intensity?
A) 3clicks in four seconds.
B) 5 clicks in five seconds.
C) 7 clicks in five seconds.
7 clicks in five seconds.
318
Question: 1409 Remaining: 24
A VER flight plan is closed when landing at an airport with an operating
control tower when
A) contacting the tower to land.
B) exiting off the runway to the taxiway.
C) the PIC contacts FSS upon flight completion.
the PIC contacts FSS upon flight completion.
319
Question: 1412 Remaining: 23
An airport rotating beacon operating during daytime indicates
A) the control tower is closed.
B) the Class D airspace is reporting weather below basic VFR minimums.
C) obstructions are present on the surface.
the Class D airspace is reporting weather below basic VFR minimums
320
Question: 1415 Remaining: 22
When operating at a non-towered UNICOM airport, what radio call should
you make?
A) Engine start.
B) Prior to taxi and prior to entering the active runway.
C) Pre-flight inspection.
Prior to taxi and prior to entering the active runway.
321
Question: 1420 Remaining: 21
If you are taking off at an airfield co-located with a military field hosting an
airshow, where could you get the most up-to-date information for that
field?
A) NOTAMs.
B) Graphical forecast.
C) Chart supplement.
NOTAMs
322
Question: 1421 Remaining: 20
How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?
A) Yellow beacon light.
B) The landing area outlined in blue lights.
C) Green, yellow, and white beacon light.
Green, yellow, and white beacon light.
323
Question: 1422 Remaining: 19
What beacon will identify a civilian airport at night?
A) Alternating yellow and white flashes.
B) Alternating yellow and green flashes.
C) Alternating white and green flashes.
Alternating white and green flashes.
324
Question: 1423 Remaining: 18
(Refer to figure 906.) While taxiing your aircraft, you look anead and see
this sign. You are currently
A) on the taxiway approaching a runway.
B) on the runway approaching a taxiway.
C) approaching a non-movement area.
on the taxiway approaching a runway.
325
Question: 1427 Remaining: 17
You receive the clearance, 'N123CB, clear to land runway 26, hold shart
taxiway bravo for crossing traffic. How do you comply?
A) Acknowledge and look for traffic.
B) Land and stop before taxiway bravo.
C) Land and hold short on the runway until cleared otherwise.
Land and stop before taxiway bravo.
326
Question: 1429 Remaining: 16
Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs are issued by the National Flight Data
Center and contain regulatory information such as
A) temporary flight restrictions.
B) airport signs and markings.
C) standard communication procedures used at non-towered airports.
temporary flight restrictions.
327
Question: 1432 Remaining: 15
(Refer to figure 58.) You are on final, and ATC gives you the clearance,
'NT53F, clear to land runway 24, hold short runway 34, After you land,
yOu realize that you have the time to exit onto taxiway Charlie. Whatis ATC
expecting you to da?
A) Land and hold short and pull up to runway 34.
B) Exit taxiway Charlie and contact ground control.
C) Stop on runway 24 in as short a distance as possible and contact
ground control.
Exit taxiway Charlie and contact ground control.
328
Question: 1434 Remaining: 14
May an aircraft's POH/AFM that is serial number specific be used for any
similar make and model aircraft?
A) Yes, serial numbers are for that series of aircraft.
B) No, serial numbers are aircraft specific.
C) Yes, the differences may be listed in the POH/AFM.
No, serial numbers are aircraft specific.
329
Question: 1440 Remaining: 13
Information on parachute jumping sites may be found in the
A) NOTAMs.
B) Chart Supplement.
C) Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.
Chart Supplement.
330
Question: 1442 Remaining: 12
If a piece of equipment is placarded as inoperative by the minimum
equipment list, can the pilot remove the placarded equipment?
A) Yes, the pilot may conduct the required maintenance.
B) Yes, the pilot may conduct this maintenance only if he notes it in the
aircraft maintenance records.
C) No, the pilot cannot conduct this maintenance.
No, the pilot cannot conduct this maintenance.
331
Question: 1443 Remaining: 11
Which ATC facility would you contact to obtain a special VFR departure
clearance in Class D airspace?
A) Tower.
B) Flight Service Station.
C) Approach Control.
Tower
332
Question: 1447 Remaining: 10
To turn high intensity runway lights to medium intensity, click 7 times in 5
seconds, and then
A) 1clickin 5 seconds.
B) 3 clicks in 5 seconds.
C) 5 clicks in 5 seconds.
5 clicks in 5 seconds.
333
Question: 1450 Remaining: 9
Which document is required to change the type design that does not
require recertification?
A) An approved Minimum Equipment List.
B) An Operations Specification approved by the Administrator.
C) A Special Certification.
An approved Minimum Equipment List.
334
Question: 1451 Remaining: 8
Where is compliance with Airworthiness Directives documented?
A) The aircraft registration certificate.
B) In the aircraft maintenance records.
C) In the aircraft flignt manual.
In the aircraft maintenance records.
335
Question: 1453 Remaining: 7
What is required to enter Class C airspace?
A) Two-way communications.
B) Transponder and DME.
C) Two-way communications and transponder.
Two-way communications and transponder
336
Question: 1456 Remaining: 6
Where can a pilot find amplified emergency procedures?
A) They will be printed on a conspicuous placard.
B) They can be found in the aircraft's POH/AFM.
C) They will be included in the abbreviated checklists.
They can be found in the aircraft's POH/AFM.
337
Question: 1464 Remaining: 5
To operate an aircraft with certain equipment inoperative under the
provisions of the minimum equipment list, what document authorizing it
must be issued to the certificate holder?
A) Letter of Authorization from the Regional Airworthiness office.
B) Letter of Authorization from the FAA District office.
C) Operations Specifications from FAA District office.
Operations Specifications from FAA District office.
338
Question: 1466 Remaining: 4
(Refer to figure 56, illustration #2.) What type of sign is shown?
A) Runway holding position sign.
B) ILS critical area holding sign.
C) Taxiway destination sign.
Runway holding position sign.
339
Question: 1468 Remaining: 3
A military airfield can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
A) two quick white flashes between green flashes.
B) alternating yellow and green flashes.
C) alternating white and green flashes.
two quick white flashes between green flashes.
340
Question: 1471 Remaining: 2
To avoid landing at the wrong airport, of on the wrong runway, the pilot
should
A) look up the appropriate information in the Aeronautical Information
Manual (AIM).
B) review airport diagrams/layouts in the Chart Supplement.
C) make a call on UNICOM to determine airport/runway conditions.
review airport diagrams/layouts in the Chart Supplement.
341
Question: 1473 Remaining: 1
You are at a non-towered satellite airport within a Class D airspace. Which
controlling agency are you required to maintain communication with?
A) The nearest FSS.
B) The UNICOM.
C) The tower of the primary Class D airport.
The tower of the primary Class D airport.
342
Question: 1485 Remaining: 0
Who provides a certificate to return an aircraft to an airworthy condition?
A) Local Airworthiness Office.
B) Regional FSDO.
C) Local Flight Safety Review Office.
Regional FSDO.
