MCQ

Question 1

What is the main purpose of static magnetic field in an MRI scanner?

a) to receive signals.
b) to distinguish location of the activated brain area
c) to provide homogeneity magnetic field
d) to ensure participants safety

Answer 1

c) to provide homogeneity magnetic field

Question 2

What statement is correct?
a) The brain does not store energy and relies on the energies in blood supply to sustain neuronal activities
b) The brain consumes glucose directly
c) The brain stores a lot of energy because the brain activities consume most energy
d) The brain stores energies in glucose formate and needs oxygen from blood supply to convert to ATP

Answer 2

a) The brain does not store energy and relies on the energies in blood supply to sustain neuronal activities

Question 3

Sensitisation in learning is?

a) the process of getting used to a new stimulus
b) an increased response to the habituated stimuli when it is paired with an aversive stimulus
c) an artificial concept to help categorise behaviour
d) a treatment of online gaming addiction

Answer 3

b) An increased response to the habituated stimuli when it is paired with an aversive stimulus

Question 4

What statement about gradient coils is correct?
a) The gradient coils are there to receive spatial information.
b) The gradient coils enable resonance to happen.
c) The gradient coils can only be on when the static magnet is off.
d) There are 3 sets of gradient coils.

Answer 4

d) There are 3 sets of gradient coils

Question 5

Which statement below is incorrect?
a) Studies have shown neuro-technology yield more than chance results for lie detection success rate.
b) Brain based lie detection has not been approved.
c) fMRI provides the perfect lie detection technique.
d) Reliability of brain-based lie detection still needs further investigation.

Answer 5

c) fMRI provides the perfect lie detection technique

Question 6

Which of the following statements about the fMRI is correct?
a) fMRI measures neuronal activities directly.
b) fMRI measures post-synaptic potentials.
c) fMRI measures action potentials.
d) fMRI does not measure brain activities directly.

Answer 6

d) fMRI does not measure brain activities directly

Question 7

Which one of the following about habituation is correct?

a) Habituation only happens in peripheral nervous system.
b) Habituation is a reduced response to the same repeated stimuli.
c) Habituation only happens in reptiles.
d) Habituation is due to synaptic transmission being enhanced.

Answer 7

b) Habituation is a reduced response to the same repeated stimuli.

Question 8

Which of the following is correct?

a) It is possible to make prediction based on brain activity patterns.
b) ADHD can be diagnosed by evaluating EEG waves alone.
c) It has been ethically approved to apply neurotech to predict criminal acts re-occurring probabilities.
d) It is impossible to measure neuronal signal associate with implicit bias.

Answer 8

a) It is possible to make prediction based on brain activity patterns.

Question 9

Which of the following about BOLD fMRI is correct?

a) fMRI measures oxygen level in the blood.
b) fMRI can only be applied to scan the human brain.
c) fMRI is sensitive to deoxygenated haemoglobin changes.
d) fMRI takes a high-resolution picture of the brain, with the same mechanism like digital camera.

Answer 9

c) fMRI is sensitive to deoxygenated haemoglobin changes.

Question 10

Which of the following about EEG is correct?

a) EEG measurements for the brain only started in the 1990s.
b) EEG can only be used to measure event-related potentials.
c) EEG measures brain activities from structures deep in the brain.
d) EEG will not be able to tell us which gyrus or sulcus in the brain the measured activities are from.

Answer 10

d) EEG will not be able to tell us which gyrus or sulcus in the brain the measured activities are from.

Question 11

Engram of memory is referring to?

a) Secret DNA code that hasn’t been uncovered yet.
b) Physical & biological changes underlying memory storage in the brain.
c) It is a part of brain region that’s key to memory.
d) It’s a memory puzzle game for dementia patients.

Answer 11

b) Physical & biological changes underlying memory storage in the brain.

Question 12

EEG measures:

a) Resting potential
b) Action potential
c) Post-synaptic potential
d) Only excitative post-synaptic potential

Answer 12

c) Post-synaptic potential

Question 13

Which of the following statement of EEG is correct?

a) Main EEG signal source is from pyramidal cells.
b) EEG is invasive.
c) To collect EEG signal, we need to insert multiple electrodes into participants scalp.
d) EEG signal will not be impacted by electrical equipments nearby, e.g., lights.

Answer 13

a) Main EEG signal source is from pyramidal cells.

Question 14

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) ERP has a better temporal resolution than fMRI.
b) EEG is a more direct measurement of neuronal activities than the fMRI.
c) EEG can distinguish brain activities from subcortical areas.
d) Different number of electrodes can be used in EEG studies.

Answer 14

c) EEG can distinguish brain activities from subcortical areas.

Question 15

Long term depression (LTD)

a) Enhances neighbouring long-term potentiation.
b) Only last for 50-70 seconds.
c) Always increases the release of excitatory neurotransmitters.
d) Always decrease the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters.

Answer 15

a) Enhances neighbouring long-term potentiation.

Question 16

Which of the statement below is correct?

a) Long term potentiation can be induced by low frequency stimulation, as long as the duration is long enough.
b) Long term potentiation can be induced by high frequency train of stimulation.
c) Long term potentiation decreases neurotransmitter release.
d) Long term potentiation can only occur when an electrode is inserted in a neuron.

Answer 16

b) Long term potentiation can be induced by high frequency train of stimulation.

Question 17

Which of the following statement about TMS is correct?
a) TMS relies on the magnetic pulse to generate electric current to impact the targeted brain.
b) TMS sends electrical current to the brain.
c) TMS can only be used for treatment purpose.
d) You need to be a medical doctor to use TMS.

Answer 17

a) TMS relies on the magnetic pulse to generate electric current to impact the targeted brain.

Question 18

Which of the following statement is correct about TMS?

a) Circular coil has the best spatial resolution.
b) Figure of eight coil has better spatial resolution than circular coil.
c) TMS can be used to target sub-cortical regions of the brain.
d) TMS can’t be used with EEG together.

Answer 18

b) Figure of eight coil has better spatial resolution than circular coil.

Question 19

Which is the correct way to find out at what TMS intensity level we should apply to participants?

a) The threshold is set based on participants motor threshold, by measuring finger twitching induced by TMS.
b) It depends on different studies; one value will be set for all participants within the same study.
c) Self-report by participants, if they feel painful or not.
d) It sets at default setting 80% of the time.

Answer 19

a) The threshold is set based on participants motor threshold, by measuring finger twitching induced by TMS.

Question 20

How to localise TMS target?

a) One can only use anatomical localisation.
b) One should only use functional localisation.
c) One can use both functional and anatomical localisation.
d) Self-report by participants.

Answer 20

c) One can use both functional and anatomical localisation.

Question 21

Which of the following statement about TMS pulses is correct?

a) Only excitatory TMS pulses have been found to be useful.
b) TMS pulses can be either inhibitory or excitatory.
c) There is only one type of TMS pulse has been approved for research usage, repeating at 1Hz.
d) 3 Hz TMS is regarded as high frequency pulses.

Answer 21

b) TMS pulses can be either inhibitory or excitatory.

Question 22

Which of the following about TMS is correct?

a) The intensity has no impact on the experimental effect.
b) The pulse intensity depends on the experimental effect.
c) Within the same experiment, the TMS effect lasts the same duration for all participants.
d) TMS spatial resolution has been found to be 0.5-1cm in primary visual and primary motor cortex.

Answer 22

d) TMS spatial resolution has been found to be 0.5-1cm in primary visual and primary motor cortex.

Question 23

Which of the following about tDCS is incorrect?

a) tDCS sends electrical current directly to the brain.
b) tDCS has better spatial resolution than TMS.
c) tDCS has worse spatial resolution than TMS.
d) tDCS is more affordable than TMS.

Answer 23

b) tDCS has better spatial resolution than TMS.

Question 24

The term ‘transhumanists’ refers to?

a) Philosophical position supporting human to mitigate to Mars.
b) Philosophical position supporting human to be the most capable species.
c) Philosophical position supporting human should use technology to modify and enhance human to expand beyond current biological constraints.
d) Philosophical position supporting human must modify and enhance, in order to survive a potential war with AI.

Answer 24

c) Philosophical position supporting human should use technology to modify and enhance human to expand beyond current biological constraints.

Question 25

Which of the following statement is the most accurate? a) Bioconservatives’ primary interest is national fossil fuel preservation. b) Bioconservatives supporting only consume food that’s sourced from nature, rather than farmed. c) Bioconservatives argues we should reject uses of biotechnologies that enhance natural human capacities. d) Bioconservatives suggest that we should use biotechnologies to enhance human, but cautiously.

Answer 25

c) Bioconservatives argues we should reject uses of biotechnologies that enhance natural human capacities.

Question 26

Which of the following statement is correct? a) Utilitarian arguments mainly consider the morality aspects. b) The neuro-technoloogies are advanced enough for us to evaluate and mitigate all risks. c) Hubris support cognitive enhancement because it helps elevating human lives. d) Deontological arguments for cognitive enhancement because of the potential to levelling playing field.

Answer 26

d) Deontological arguments for cognitive enhancement because of the potential to levelling playing field.

Question 27

Which following statement is correct? a) Human speech is completely controlled by vocal tract muscles rather than the brain. b) Dorsal laryngeal motor cortex is part of temporal cortex. c) Dorsal laryngeal motor cortex only controls speech, not singing. d) Dorsal laryngeal motor cortex controls pitch and voicing.

Answer 27

d) Dorsal laryngeal motor cortex controls pitch and voicing.

Question 28

Which of the following is correct? a) Language utilise a wide range of cognitive processes. b) Language only involves in reading. c) Language only involves in speaking. d) Language only involves in interpretation.

Answer 28

a) Language utilise a wide range of cognitive processes.

Question 29

Which following statement about the McGurk effect is correct? a) Our perception of spoken language won’t be impacted by the visual input. b) Both visual and auditory input influence our auditory perception. c) Our visual input will override auditory input completely. d) The brain region underlying McGurk effect is primary vision cortex.

Answer 29

b) Both visual and auditory input influence our auditory perception.

Question 30

Which of the following is correct? a) Context only matters for spoken language. b) Context only matters for reading a story. c) Context influences the perception phase of language. d) None of the above is correct.

Answer 30

c) Context influences the perception phase of language.

Question 31

Which of the following statement is correct about the transpose letter effect? a) It is not possible to retrieve meaningful information if letters are transposed. b) It is harder to comprehend when transposed letters are internal (in the middle of words). c) The same level of effort requires regardless of where in the words the transposed letter happens. d) It is easier to comprehend when transposed letters are internal (in the middle of words).

Answer 31

d) It is easier to comprehend when transposed letters are internal (in the middle of words).

Question 32

Which of the following is correct? a) Wernicke’s aphasia shows more deficits in language production. b) Broca’s brain shows more deficits in language production. c) Dejerine’s aphasia shows more deficits in language production. d) Non of the above is correct.

Answer 32

b) Broca’s brain shows more deficits in language production.

Question 33

Which part of lesion shows deficits in language comprehension? a) Broca’s area b) Dejerine’s area c) Wenicke’s area d) Primary visual cortex

Answer 33

c) Wenicke’s area

Question 34

Which following statement about the arcuate fasciculus is correct? a) arcuate fasciculus doesn’t contribute in supporting language functionality. b) arcuate fasciculus is a group of white matter tract that connects all key areas of brain areas involves in language together. c) Lesion to arcuate fasciculus will not result in any language deficits. d) arcuate fasciculus is the white matter tract that connects all key brain areas involves in the emotion together.

Answer 34

b) arcuate fasciculus is a group of white matter tract that connects all key areas of brain areas involves in language together.

Question 35

Which of the following is most accurate about critical period? a) It’s impossible to learn another language once critical period phase is passed. b) We should ignore the critical period concept when designing curriculum, because it is more restrictive rather than helpful. c) Critical period does not have scientific evidence. d) It is easier to learn another language within the critical period, but one can still learn afterwards.

Answer 35

d) It is easier to learn another language within the critical period, but one can still learn afterwards.

Question 36

Which of the following activity does not require executive function? a) Solving math problems. b) Choosing which book to buy. c) Looking at the sea. d) Deciding whether to keep looking at the sea.

Answer 36

c) Looking at the sea.

Question 37

Which of the following statement is correct? a) Frontal lobe in human is the largest in volume. b) Human frontal lobe is similar to Orang-utan in volume. c) Frontal love doesn’t involve in executive function. d) Only frontal lobe involves in executive function.

Answer 37

a) Frontal lobe in human is the largest in volume.

Question 38

Which of the following is correct? a) Precentral gyrus is not part of frontal lobe. b) Frontal lobe ends at the central sulcus. c) Inferior frontal gyrus is not part of frontal lobe. d) The whole frontal lobe contributes to executive function in the same way.

Answer 38

b) Frontal lobe ends at the central sulcus.

Question 39

Which of the following about contention scheduling is correct? a) Contention scheduling is impulsive. b) Contention scheduling requires a lot of top-down input from the frontal lobe. c) Contention scheduling only happens for auditory command. d) Contention scheduling is an automate process that has been learned over time, in the form of schemas that promote efficiency.

Answer 39

d) Contention scheduling is an automate process that has been learned over time, in the form of schemas that promote efficiency.

Question 40

Which of the following is not correct? a) Supervisory attentional system needs top-down control. b) Supervisory attentional system requires effort. c) Supervisory attentional system engages more when facing easier questions. d) Supervisory attentional system doesn’t engage in overriding planned response tendencies.

Answer 40

c) Supervisory attentional system engages more when facing easier questions.

Question 41

Which of the following requires supervisory attentional system? a) Stop eating when you are full. b) Putting jumper on when you are cold. c) Going to sleep when you are sleepy. d) Run across the road when it is red light for pedestrian.

Answer 41

d) Run across the road when it is red light for pedestrian.

Question 42

Which of the following indicate impairment of inhibitory control? a) Calming and slow character. b) Environmental dependency syndrome. c) High accuracy on Oddball task. d) Fast to learn the rules in the Wisconsin card sorting test.

Answer 42

b) Environmental dependency syndrome.

Question 43

Environmental dependency syndrome refers to?: a) patients behaviours triggered by stimuli in environment, even when it is irrational. b) healthy adults rely on environment to make decision. c) patient with cerebellum lesion must rely on things in the environment to move around. d) healthy children need to rely on adults to cook for them.

Answer 43

a) patients behaviours triggered by stimuli in environment, even when it is irrational.

Question 44

Perseveration in executive function domain refers to? a) keep repeating the same thing when it’s no-longer compatible. b) Keep trying different ways to solve a difficult problem. c) being able to keep track of rule changes. d) being able to follow instructions.

Answer 44

a) keep repeating the same thing when it’s no-longer compatible.

Question 45

Which of the following about odd-ball paradigm is most accurate? a) The length of repetition doesn’t impact the oddball effect. b) The oddball effect only works for single item repetition, e.g. AAAAAB. c) The oddball effect has been the least consistent paradigm in psychological research. d) The length of repetition has an impact on the oddball effect.

Answer 45

d) The length of repetition has an impact on the oddball effect.

Question 46

Which of the following is correct? a) Goal-centred processing only reflect how computing works. b) Goal-centred processing refers to theory using executive function to plan how to score goal during football match. c) Goal-centred processing suggests executive function as a hierarchical structure, with goal, subgoals. d) Goal-centred processing suggests a flat structure for executive function to search the goal more efficiently.

Answer 46

c) Goal-centred processing suggests executive function as a hierarchical structure, with goal, subgoals.

Question 47

Multiple Demand System: a) Suggests a domain general role of executive processing. b) Suggests a domain specific role of executive processing. c) Suggests only frontal lobe involves in the executive function. d) Suggests only parietal lobe involves in executive function.

Answer 47

a) Suggests a domain general role of executive processing.

Question 48

Which of the following is correct? a) Context doesn’t matter because every path leads to a result. b) Context is irrelevant in executive function. c) Context in executive function is important. d) Context only matters at the beginning, not influence the end result.

Answer 48

c) Context in executive function is important.

Question 49

Multifactor models suggest: a) Executive function has 1 general factor and 2 specific factors. b) Working memory is a general factor. c) Task switching is a general factor. d) Working memory belongs to memory domain and doesn’t involve in executive function at all.

Answer 49

a) Executive function has 1 general factor and 2 specific factors.

Question 50

What is Long-Term Potentiation (LTP)? a) A decrease in synaptic strength over time in response to low-frequency stimulation. b) The process by which neural connections are permanently weakened in the brain. c) An increase in synaptic strength following high-frequency stimulation of neurons d) The ability to forget information after repeated exposure.

Answer 50

c) An increase in synaptic strength following high-frequency stimulation of neurons

Question 51

NMDA and AMPA receptors respond to? a) GABA b) Dopamine c) Glutamate d) Endorphins

Answer 51

c) Glutamate

Question 52

Donald Hebb stated that “cells that fire together, _____ together. Cells that fire out of _____, fail to link a) wire, sync b) tire, sync c) wire, time d) tire, time

Answer 52

a) wire, sync

Question 53

In the case study, HM had surgery on the: a) Frontal Lobe b) Temporal Lobe c) Parietal lobe d) Occipital lobe

Answer 53

b) Temporal Lobe

Question 54

___________ is the inability to establish new memories following injury or trauma a) Retrograde amnesia b) Wernickes amnesia c) Anterograde amnesia d) Korsakoff’s amnesia

Answer 54

c) Anterograde amnesia

Question 55

Compared to control group or London bus drivers, London taxi drivers have: a) Smaller posterior hippocampi & larger anterior hippocampi b) Larger posterior hippocampi & smaller anterior hippocampi c) Larger posterior hippocampi & larger anterior hippocampi d) Smaller posterior hippocampi & smaller anterior hippocampi

Answer 55

b) Larger posterior hippocampi & smaller anterior hippocampi

Question 56

What role does replay play in memory processing? a) Replay enhances the ability to generate new neurons in the hippocampus. b) Replay refers to the reactivation of neurons in a specific temporal sequence during sleep, facilitating the consolidation of memories c) Replay is for storing information about visual stimuli for short-term memory use only. d) Replay is a feature that allows you to rewind and edit your past memories

Answer 56

b) Replay refers to the reactivation of neurons in a specific temporal sequence during sleep, facilitating the consolidation of memories

Question 57

Which of the following best describes procedural memory? a) The memory of specific events, including times and places. b) The type of memory involved in remembering facts and general knowledge. c) The memory responsible for knowing how to perform tasks, such as riding a bike or typing. d) The memory of personal experiences and episodes from one's life.

Answer 57

c) The memory responsible for knowing how to perform tasks, such as riding a bike or typing.

Question 58

What is the primacy effect in memory? a) The tendency to remember information presented in the middle of a list. b) The ability to recall information presented at the beginning of a list more easily than later items. c) The ability to retain only the last items in a list. d) The process of transferring information from short-term to long-term memory.

Answer 58

b) The ability to recall information presented at the beginning of a list more easily than later items.

Question 59

Which stage of memory involves transforming sensory input into a form that can be stored? a) Retrieval b) Consolidation c) Encoding d) Storage

Answer 59

c) Encoding

Question 60

Declarative memory includes: a) Semantic memory b) Episodic memory c) Autobiographical memory d) All of the above

Answer 60

d) All of the above

Question 61

Which of the following statements accurately describes the primary role of NMDA receptors compared to AMPA receptors in memory formation and synaptic plasticity? a) NMDA receptors primarily facilitate the influx of sodium ions into the cell, while AMPA receptors are responsible for the influx of calcium ions, triggering downstream signaling pathways crucial for memory consolidation. b) NMDA receptors allow a massive influx of calcium ions into the cell upon activation, while AMPA receptors facilitate the influx of sodium ions, contributing to synaptic transmission but not directly involved in memory consolidation. c) NMDA receptors facilitate the influx of calcium ions, contributing to memory formation and synaptic plasticity, while AMPA receptors are primarily involved in maintaining the resting membrane potential of neurons. d) NMDA receptors are responsible for the induction of long-term potentiation (LTP), leading to synaptic strengthening, while AMPA receptors primarily mediate long-term depression (LTD), resulting in synaptic weakening.

Answer 61

b) NMDA receptors allow a massive influx of calcium ions into the cell upon activation, while AMPA receptors facilitate the influx of sodium ions, contributing to synaptic transmission but not directly involved in memory consolidation.