MCQ

Question 1

Which of the following types of receptors elicit the quickest response?
A.	Ligand gated ion channels
B.	G-protein coupled receptors
C.	Tyrosine kinase receptors
D.	Nuclear receptors
E.	None of the above

Answer 1

A. Ligand gated ion channels

Question 2

Which of following terms describes a drug that binds to a receptor but does not elicit a response?
A.	Agonist
B.	Antagonist
C.	A competitive inhibitor
D.	A non-competitive inhibitor
E.	Partial agonist

Answer 2

B. Antagonist

Question 3

Which of the following types of receptors describes the insulin receptor and ligand binding to its receptor initiates a phosphorylation cascade?
A.	A ligand-gated ion channel
B.	A G-protein-coupled receptor
C.	A Tyrosine kinase receptors
D.	A nuclear receptor
E.	A G-protein system

Answer 3

C. A Tyrosine kinase receptors

Question 4

Which part of the membrane-bound receptors is hydrophobic?
A.	Extracellular N-terminus
B.	Intracellular C-terminus
C.	Transmembrane domain
D.	Ligand binding domain
E.	All the above are hydrophobic

Answer 4

C. Transmembrane domain

Question 5

Which of the following statements is not true about ligand gated ion channels?
A. Each receptor consists of 4-5 membrane spanning domains
B. Excitatory neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine, and glutamate induce opening of cation channels
C. Include both a binding site for a neurotransmitter and an ion-conducting pore
D. The five M2 helices that form the pore are sharply kinked inward halfway through the membrane forming a constriction
E. Inhibitory neurotransmitters such as GABA induce opening of anion channels

Answer 5

A. Each receptor consists of 4-5 membrane spanning domains

Question 6

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about G-protein coupled receptors?
A. Are called 7-transmembrane receptors
B. The long third cytoplasmic loop is responsible for coupling to G protein system
C. Are made of α-β-ϒ subunits
D. Activation of these receptors results in activation/inhibition of adenylate cyclase/cAMP second messenger pathway
E. Activation of these receptors sometimes results in increase in intracellular Ca2+ levels

Answer 6

C. Are made of α-β-ϒ subunits

Question 7

The G-protein system :
A. Is located on the outside of the plasma membrane
B. Is called G-protein because of its interaction with cAMP
C. Is made up of alpha-beta subunits only
D. Exists as a trimer in the resting state
E. Is made up of 7 transmembrane domains

Answer 7

D. Exists as a trimer in the resting state

Question 8

With respect to G-proteins decide which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. A GTP molecule is bound to G-protein in the resting state
B. The G-protein is activated by binding of GDP
C. The GTP molecule binds to the alpha subunit
D. Binding of the GDP activates the G-protein
E. The GDP molecule binds to the B-ƴ subunits

Answer 8

C. The GTP molecule binds to the alpha subunit

Question 9

In regards to the adenylate cyclase/ cAMP system which of the following statements is true?
A. Adenylate cyclases are intrinsic proteins of the plasma membrane activated by Gs-coupled receptors
B. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) is a nucleotide synthesised within the cell from ATP by adenylate cyclase
C. cAMP is inactivated by hydrolysis to 5’-AMP by the action of a family of enzymes known as phosphodiesterases (PDEs).
D. cAMP activates other proteins within the cell such as protein kinases
E. All of the above are true

Answer 9

E. All of the above are true

Question 10

Activation of phospholipase C/inositol system results in?
A. Activation of protein kinases through cAMP
B. Generation of PIP2 through activation of adenylate cyclase
C. Increase in intracellular Ca+2 levels
D. Binding of DAG to ligand-gated ion channels expressed on endoplasmic reticulum
E. None of the above

Answer 10

C. Increase in intracellular Ca+2 levels

Question 11

A drug with a pKa value of 3.5 can:
A. Get trapped in the alkaline urine
B. Get trapped in the acidic gastric juice
C. be eliminated by acidifying the urine
D. be eliminated by neutralizing urine’s pH
E. Be distributed equally between the plamsa, gastric juice and alkaline urine.

Answer 11

A. Get trapped in the alkaline urine

Question 12

Using the concentration/time curve for drug x which has been administered intravenously, which letter represents the time of onset of action for the drug?

Answer 12

A. A

Question 13

Which statement about intravenous administration of anaesthetics is accurate?
A. Allows the administration of fluids indirectly into the bloodstream.
B. By-passes the ‘first-pass’ effect of liver and digestive enzymes.
C. Allows slow release of drugs into the bloodstream.
D. The peak concentration reaching the tissue depending on the angle and site of injection.
E. The response to intravenous administration depends on the amount of food in the stomach.

Answer 13

B. By-passes the ‘first-pass’ effect of liver and digestive enzymes.

Question 14

Which of the following factors affect the absorption of a drug from the GI tract?
A.	Gastrointestinal motility
B.	Splanchic blood flow
C.	Particle size and formulation
D.	Physiochemical factors
E.	All the above

Answer 14

E. All the above
A.	Gastrointestinal motility
B.	Splanchic blood flow
C.	Particle size and formulation
D.	Physiochemical factors

Question 15

Drug A has a volume of distribution (Vd) of around 5 litres and an drug B has a Vd of around 100 litres, which of the following statements about the distribution of these two drugs in the body is CORRECT?
A. Drug A is tightly bound to plasma proteins and drug B is tightly bound to tissue components.
B. Drug A is tightly bound to tissue components and drug B is tightly bound to plasma proteins.
C. Both drugs are tightly bound to tissue proteins.
D. Both drugs are tightly bound to tissue components
E. Drug distribution cannot be determined using their Vd values.

Answer 15

A. Drug A is tightly bound to plasma proteins and drug B is tightly bound to tissue components.

Question 16

Which of the following statements about renal excretion of drugs is CORRECT?
A. Total excretion= glomerular filtration+ reabsorption-tubular secretion
B. Glomerular secretion is important for removal of protein bound drugs
C. The pH partition between plasma and urine determine the rate of tubular secretion
D. Tubular secretion the most effective mechanism of renal drug elimination
E. All the above are correct

Answer 16

D. Tubular secretion the most effective mechanism of renal drug elimination

Question 17

Activation of which receptor results in the quickest response?
A. Nicotinic receptor
B. Insulin-like growth factor receptor
C. Muscarinic M3 receptor
D. Oestrogen receptor
E. All the above have a similar response time.

Answer 17

A. Nicotinic receptor

Question 18

Which of the following group of drugs uses synthetic oligonucleotides to target mRNA?
A.	DNA intercalators
B.	Alkylating agents
C.	Chain cutters
D.	Antisense drugs
E.	None of the above

Answer 18

D. Antisense drugs

Question 19

If the alpha subunit of a G-protein system is Gαi, activation of the receptor associated with this system results in:
A. increase in intracellular Ca+2 levels.
B. decrease in intracellular Ca+2 levels.
C. increase in intracellular cAMP levels.
D. decrease in intracellular cAMP levels.
E. activation of potassium channels.

Answer 19

D. decrease in intracellular cAMP levels.

Question 20

Drugs administered via the parenteral route are absorbed relatively rapidly. Which of the following is the correct order of drug absorption for medicines administered via this route?
A.	IV > SC > IM
B.	SC > IV > IM
C.	IV > IM > SC
D.	IM > IV > SC
E.	IM > SC > IV

Answer 20

C. IV > IM > SC

Question 21

Which of the following is NOT a parental route of drug administration?
A.	Intravenous
B.	Intramembranous
C.	Intramuscular
D.	Intradermal
E.	Subcutaneous

Answer 21

B. Intramembranous

Question 22

"The time taken for the concentration of a drug to fall by half its original value" relates to:
A.	Bioavailability
B.	EC50
C.	Half life
D.	Potency
E.	TC50

Answer 22

C. Half-life

Question 23

The study of the way in which drugs interact with receptors in the body is termed..
A. receptors.
B. pharmacodynamics.
C. pharmacology.
D. biochemistry.
E. pharmacogenetics.

Answer 23

B. pharmacodynamics.

Question 24

Which of the following is not a consideration for a Phase 2 clinical trial?
A.	Multicentre 
B.	Healthy volunteers
C.	Multi-arm
D.	Blinded test
E.	Large sample (hundreds)

Answer 24

B. Healthy volunteers

Question 25

When designing and developing a new drug, which of the following is not a desirable feature: A. Exhibits a similar effect to current medicine; B. Is specific to its target; C. Shows few side effects; D. Is readily metabolised by the body; E. Crosses biological membranes easily

Answer 25

A. Exhibits a similar effect to current medicine;

Question 26

Which of the following is not an accurate statement about adverse drug reactions: Reported via the yellow card system; B. Part of Clinical trials phase 4; C. Only monitored in animal models; D. May result in a drug being withdrawn from market; E. Can be reported by patients or clinicians.

Answer 26

C. Only monitored in animal models;

Question 27

Put the following in the order they take place within the drug research and development process? 1. Assay generation 2. Lead optimisation 3. Target identification 4. Development 5. Lead finding

Answer 27

3,1,5,2,4

Question 28

``` Which of the following need to be studied and understood during the lead optimisation phase? 1. Significant side-effects 2. Limited patient population 3. Efficacy matching currently available drugs 4. Cost of manufacture A. Both 1 and 3 B. Both 1 and 2 C. Both 2 and 4 D. 1,2 and 3 E. All reasons ```

Answer 28

E. All properties listed

Question 29

``` Which of the following is a typical feature of a phase 3 clinical trial? A. Multi-centre B. Double-blind C. Cross-over D. Both A and B E. A,B and C ```

Answer 29

E. A,B and C

Question 30

``` Which of the following might result in a drug not being granted approval for market? 1. Significant side-effects 2. Limited patient population 3. Efficacy matching currently available drugs 4. Cost of manufacture A. Both 1 and 3 B. Both 1 and 2 C. Both 2 and 4 D. 1,2 and 3 E. All reasons ```

Answer 30

A. Both 1 and 3

Question 31

``` Which of the following might result in a pharmaceutical company deciding not to develop a drug for market? 1. Significant side-effects 2. Limited patient population 3. Efficacy matching currently available drugs 4. Cost of manufacture A. Both 1 and 3 B. Both 1 and 2 C. Both 2 and 4 D. 1,2 and 3 E. All reasons ```

Answer 31

E. All reasons

Question 32

``` The antifungal, Amphotericin B, targets A. glucan synthesis. B. protein synthesis C. ergosterol. D. chitin synthesis. E. DNA synthesis. ```

Answer 32

C. ergosterol

Question 33

``` The azole antifungals act on A. DNA synthesis. B. ergosterol synthesis. C. the fungal cell wall. D. only superficial fungal infections. E. glucan synthesis. ```

Answer 33

B. ergosterol synthesis.

Question 34

``` For which of the following diseases is a penicillin NOT likely to be considered as a treatment option? A. Meningococcal meningitis B. Strep throat C. Scalded skin syndrome D. Otitis media E. Wound infected with MRSA ```

Answer 34

E. Wound infected with MRSA

Question 35

``` Which of the following is NOT a member of the beta-lactam family? A. Vancomycin B. Amoxicillin C. Ampicillin D. Methicillin E. Augmentin ```

Answer 35

E. Augmentin

Question 36

``` Which of the following would not be considered to be an emerging viral infection? A. SARS B. West Nile Virus C. Ebola D. Avian influenza E. Multidrug resistant TB ```

Answer 36

E. Multidrug resistant TB

Question 37

``` Gerhard Domagk is credited with discovering A. Penicillin B. Azole drugs C. Aminoglycosides D. Resistance mechanisms in bacteria E. Sulphonamides ```

Answer 37

E. Sulphonamides

Question 38

``` The organism known as MRSA is usually resistant to A. Ampicillin B. Amoxicillin C. Penicillin D. All of the above antibiotics E. None of the above antibiotics ```

Answer 38

D. All of the above antibiotics A. Ampicillin B. Amoxicillin C. Penicillin

Question 39

``` According to the WHO, which of the following infectious diseases is one of the top 10 causes of death, globally? A. Tuberculosis B. Malaria C. HIV D. Influenza E. Ebola ```

Answer 39

A. Tuberculosis

Question 40

The incidence of invasive candida infections (candidaemia) in the UK tends to be highest in: A. children between the ages of 5 and 10. B. males over the age of 75. C. females over the age of 75. D. middle-aged females. E. children below the age of 1.

Answer 40

D. middle-aged females.

Question 41

``` The fluoroquinolone antimicrobials target A. Viral RNA synthesis B. Bacterial DNA synthesis C. Bacterial protein synthesis D. Fungal wall synthesis E. Viral assembly ```

Answer 41

B. Bacterial DNA synthesis

Question 42

``` Alexander Fleming is credited with the discovery of.. A. Streptomycin B. Ampicillin C. Sulphonamides D. Penicillin E. Amphotericin B ```

Answer 42

D. Penicillin

Question 43

``` Erythromycin is an example of a/an A. Macrolide B. Aminoglycoside C. Fluoroquinolone D. Oxazolidinone E. Tetracycline. ```

Answer 43

A. Macrolide

Question 44

``` Which of the following is not used to directly treat HIV infection? A. AZT B. Efavirenz C. Ciprofloxacin D. Ritonavir E. Enfuvirtide ```

Answer 44

C. Ciprofloxacin

Question 45

``` Chloramphenicol is an example of an antibiotic that inhibits A. DNA synthesis B. Protein synthesis C. Cell wall synthesis D. Cell membrane functions E. Bacterial metabolism ```

Answer 45

B. Protein synthesis

Question 46

Epitestosterone, dextran and furosemide are all included on the World Anti-Doping Agency’s list of prohibited substances, but in which class? A. Anabolic agents B. Stimulants C. Diuretics and masking agents D. Peptide hormones, growth factors, related substances, and mimetics E. Beta-2 agonists

Answer 46

A. Anabolic agents

Question 47

``` If an athlete is taking a combination of ephedrine, caffeine and aspirin, what are they MOST LIKELY doing it for? A. To lose weight B. To reduce fatigue C. To increase alertness D. To increase muscle mass E. To increase power output ```

Answer 47

A. To lose weight

Question 48

The shape of which part of a transmembrane receptor is important for drug design? A. The hydrophobic transmembrane domain B. The hydrophilic ligand binding/ extracellular domain C. The hydrophilic intracellular/ signal transduction domain D. The hydrophilic transmembrane domain E. The hydrophobic ligand binding/ extracellular domain

Answer 48

B. The hydrophilic ligand binding/ extracellular domain

Question 49

Which of the following statements about voltage-gated sodium channels (NaV) is INCORRECT? A. Activation of these channels by ligand binding results in generation of action potential. B. NaV s from brain and striated muscle are hetero-oligomeric composed of α- & β-subunits. C. The voltage sensing element is found in the alpha subunit. D. Natural toxins such as tetrodotoxin and saxitoxin block Nav s. E. The alpha subunit is a single polypeptide chain made up of 24 transmembrane segments.

Answer 49

E. The alpha subunit is a single polypeptide chain made up of 24 transmembrane segments.

Question 50

Which of the following statements about androgenic anabolic steroids is INCORRECT? A. They can increase the size of skeletal muscle through an increase in protein, fat and water content. B. Chronic use can result in liver and kidney tumours developing. C. They are all derivatives of testosterone. D. They can cause gynaecomastia in males. E. Derivatives like oxandrolone and stanozolol have only anabolic effects.

Answer 50

C. They are all derivatives of testosterone.

Question 51

Which of the following is NOT a good reason for modifying the Fc region of an antibody A. Reducing immune responses to the antibody B. Avoiding complement fixation C. Ensuring complement fixation D. Reducing the size of the molecule E. Generating sites for attachment of drugs

Answer 51

D. Reducing the size of the molecule

Question 52

``` Which of the following is NOT a potential source of Dendritic cells for therapy? A. Bone marrow stem cells B. Peripheral Blood monocytes C. Cord Blood D. Tumour-infiltrating lymphocytes E. Circulating CD34+ stem cells ```

Answer 52

D. Tumour-infiltrating lymphocytes

Question 53

Choose an answer which is INCORRECT from the following. Peptide vaccines are an improvement on conventional vaccines because….. A. they do not need an adjuvant. B. they are generally more stable. C. immune responses to peptide are easy to measure. D. new peptide vaccines can easily be introduced to deal with mutations. E. they are safer.

Answer 53

A. they do not need an adjuvant.

Question 54

``` Which of the following is not a mechanism by which Gram-positive bacteria could resist the action of an antibiotic? A. Efflux pump expression B. Target modification C. Outer membrane modification D. Enzymatic inactivation of the drug E. Overproduction of target ```

Answer 54

E. Overproduction of target

Question 55

Which one of the following statements correctly explains the term ‘potency’ of a drug? A. Within a series of agonists having the same Emax, the agonist which achieves this at the highest dose is the most potent; B. Within a series of agonists the agonist which produces the greatest maximum effect, Emax, is the most potent; C. Within a series of agonists having the same Emax, the agonist which achieves this at the lowest dose is the most potent; D. Within a series of agonists, the agonist which produces the smallest maximum effect, Emax, is the most potent; E. Within a series of agonists, the agonist that is unaffected by the addition of an antagonist, is the most potent.

Answer 55

C. Within a series of agonists having the same Emax, the agonist which achieves this at the lowest dose is the most potent;

Question 56

Which one of the following statements correctly explains the term ‘efficacy’ of a drug? A. Within a series of agonists having the same Emax, the agonist which achieves this at the highest dose is the most efficacious. B. Within a series of agonists the agonist which produces the greatest maximum effect, Emax, is the most efficacious. C. Within a series of agonists having the same Emax, the agonist which achieves this at the lowest dose is the most efficacious. D. Within a series of agonists, the agonist which produces the smallest maximum effect, Emax, is the most efficacious. E. Within a series of agonists, the agonist that is unaffected by the addition of an antagonist.

Answer 56

B. Within a series of agonists the agonist which produces the greatest maximum effect, Emax, is the most efficacious.

Question 57

``` Which of the following is NOT a topical route of drug administration? A. Otic B. Oral C. Vaginal D. Buccal E. Rectal ```

Answer 57

B. Oral

Question 58

Which statement about phase II pharmacokinetic reactions is INCORRECT? A. They are primarily conjugate reactions. B. They involve the synthesis of a covalent bond between the drug or its phase I metabolite or endogenous substrate. C. Conjugates are pharmacologically active and lipid soluble. D. Functional groups like glycyl, sulphate and methyl are often involved. E. All statements are incorrect.

Answer 58

C. Conjugates are pharmacologically active and lipid soluble.

Question 59

``` In which organ is the P450 monooxygenase enzyme system likely to be used for phase I drug metabolism? A. Gall bladder. B. GI tract. C. Kidneys. D. Liver. E. Lungs. ```

Answer 59

D. Liver.

Question 60

Which statement about the hydrolysis and hydration reactions of phase I drug metabolism is INCORRECT? A. A number of enzymes present in many tissues are able to hydrolyse ester and amide bonds in drugs. B. Hydration reactions are important in the metabolism and toxicity of a number of aromatic compounds. C. Hydrolysis involves the removal of water. D. In hydration reactions, the water molecule is retained in the drug metabolite. E. The drug molecule is split by the addition of water.

Answer 60

C. Hydrolysis involves the removal of water.

Question 61

``` Intracellular receptors exert their effect in: A. The plasma membrane B. The cytoplasm C. The mitochondria D. The nucleus E. None of the above ```

Answer 61

D. The nucleus

Question 62

``` Using the concentration/time curve for drug x (Figure 1), which has been administered orally, which letter represents the duration of action for this drug? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E ```

Answer 62

A. A

Question 63

Which of the statements about ligand-gated ion channels (ionotropic receptors) is INCORRECT? A. They have structural features in common with other ion channels. B. Excitatory neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine and glutamate induce closing of cation channels. C. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is a good example of a ligand-gated channel. D. Inhibitory neurotransmitters like GABA and glycine induce opening of anion channels. E. Binding of a ligand to its ion channels causes a conformational change to open it.

Answer 63

B. Excitatory neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine and glutamate induce closing of cation channels.

Question 64

A drug with a pKa value of 8.5 can: A. get trapped in the alkaline urine. B. get trapped in the acidic gastric juice. C. be eliminated by alkalising the urine. D. be eliminated by neutralizing urine’s pH E. be distributed equally between the plasma, gastric juice and alkaline urine.

Answer 64

B. get trapped in the acidic gastric juice.