MCQ Practice Exam 3 Flashcards
(150 cards)
1
Q
The abdomen can be separated into four quadrants. Which of the following is within the left lower quadrant (LLQ)?
A
Sigmoid colon, left ovary, left uterine tube and left spermatic cord
2
Q
A massage therapist ask the client to lie supine with his test leg over the edge of the table. Next, the RMT ask the client to bring both knees towards his chest and then slowly lower the test leg into extension over the edge of the table. Which orthopedic test does this process describe?
A
Gaenslen’s test
3
Q
Which of the following conditions will require the application of techniques for intracapsular adhesions?
A
Frozen shoulder
4
Q
Using the knuckles of your index finger and the proximal phalanges of the other fingers, slide your knuckle to engage the fascia. Then, pull and make a quick snapping rotation through the tissue at the end of the stroke. Which technique does this describe?
A
J Stroke
5
Q
A client with ulnar neuralgia feels pain at the following two landmarks:
A
Cubital tunnel, tunnel of Guyon
6
Q
Which of the following symptoms are typical of subdeltoid bursitis in the subacute stage?
A
Constant pain, decreased mobility
7
Q
Which of the following statements describes rheumatoid arthritis?
A
Systemic autoimmune disorder
8
Q
What does a positive sign for noble compression test indicate?
A
ITB friction syndrome
9
Q
Which of the following muscles will effectively stretch the greatest from passive hip flexion and hip adduction?
A
Gluteus maximus
10
Q
A 63-year-old male diagnosed with primary osteoarthritis is referred to massage therapy treatment. The associated articular changes are most likely attributed to:
A
Age-related changes
11
Q
Which of the following tissue manifestations are indicated to treat the affected side of hemiplegia?
A
Spasticity, flexion contractures
12
Q
A 20-year-old female who suffered an oblique fracture tibia from downhill skiing 2 months ago will be getting her cast removed. Which of the following should a therapist complete immediately after cast removal?
A
Increase circulation, stimulate muscle tissue
13
Q
Which of the following statements is an example of treatment risk?
A
This treatment may initiate tremors, associated with your Parkinsons
14
Q
Which PNF technique utilizes alternating isometric contractions of first agonists, then antagonists against resistance while no motion is allowed?
A
Rhythmic stabilization
15
Q
Which of the following conditions on health history form constitutes a primary complaint within the Scope of Practice?
A
Loss of neck mobility
16
Q
By asking your client to perform active resisted lateral rotation of the shoulder, you are strengthening her:
A
Infraspinatus
17
Q
To maximally stretch your client’s triceps brachii muscle, bring her arm into passive forced:
A
Elbow flexion and GH flexion
18
Q
Which of the following systems is directly affected by multiple sclerosis?
A
Nervous system
19
Q
A health history interview determines the following information:
A
General health status
20
Q
A client is placing his ankle into passive forced dorsiflexion and his toes into passive forced extension. By doing this, he is stretching his:
A
Plantar foot muscles
21
Q
Vibrations performed with continuous contact with the tissue and no gliding over the skin are known as:
A
Static vibrations
22
Q
To stretch the sternocleidomastoid (SCM), which position should the client’s head and neck be placed in?
A
Rotated away from the side being stretched with the chin tilted upwards
23
Q
Which of the following is not an effective use of effleurage during massage treatment?
A
To eliminate trigger points
24
Q
Which of the following statements is an example of relieving factor?
A
It gets better when I sit down
25
Functional excursion refers to:
The full range of a muscle
26
What does a positive sign for Thompson's test indicate?
Achilles tendon rupture
27
Which of the following areas benefits from fascial release techniques on a client with hyperlordosis?
Thoracolumbar fascia
28
How should a massage therapist proceed if a client refuses to fill out a health history form?
Verbalize all the information
29
Which of the following conditions can be a contraindication to massage therapy if it was revealed during health history interview?
Rheumatoid arthritis during a flare up
30
This posture is characterized by an increase in the lumbosacral angle, an increased lumbar lordosis, an increased anterior tilting of the pelvis, and hip flexion.
Lordotic posture
31
Hyperemia is a reflexive effect of what type of treatment technique?
Linear or circular friction
32
Which of the following is an active range of motion exercise?
All of the options (Turn your head to look over your shoulder. Tilt your chin down and try to touch it to your shoulder. Do not raise your shoulder to your chin. Face forward again, Raise your foot slightly off the floor. Roll your ankle in circles. Then roll your ankle in circles in the other direction and Place your arm at your side with the palm facing up. Bend and straighten the arm)
33
Which of the following techniques are indicated to treat rib subluxation in the chronic stage?
Rib raking, passive stretching
34
Your client has tension in the posterior neck based on your discovery of trigger points in the splenius capitis muscle. What is the most appropriate remedial exercise to be performed here?
Forward flexion
35
Which of the following forearm muscles length is unaffected by wrist movements?
Brachioradialis
36
What myotomal pattern of weakness could be experienced in a client with an S5 nerve root lesion?
No myotomal pattern of weakness
37
Which of the following techniques are indicated to apply with meniscus injury in the acute stage?
Low grade oscillation, effleurage
38
Which one of the following statements describes adhesive capsulitis?
Capsular tightness and intracapsular adhesions
39
Which test would you perform if you suspected that your client had an upper motor neuron lesion?
Valsalva maneuver
40
Increased muscle tone in the forearm flexors and sensory loss over the lateral forearm are indicative of the following condition:
Erb's palsy
41
To stretch your client's forearm extensors, place his arm into elbow ________, forearm _________, and wrist __________.
extension, pronation, flexion
42
Passive flexion of your client's torso and cervical spine will stretch which muscle group?
Erector spinae
43
What does a positive sign for Romberg orthopedic test indicate?
Upper motor neuron lesion
44
During a paraffin wax application, your client's clean hand should be dipped into the wax ____ times
Six to twelve
45
Gel filled cloth packs placed in temperature controlled water are known as:
Hydrocollators
46
Which one of the following position considerations applies to a client with congestive heart failure?
Left side of the chest should be kept in an elevated position
47
With the fingertips and the tip of the thumb all bunched together, apply a focused alternating contact using just the tips of the fingers and the thumb. This tapotement technique is known as:
Point hacking
48
Patellar tendinitis can cause inflammation of this bursa:
infrapatellar
49
Which of the quadriceps muscles will get an increased stretch by extending the hip?
Rectus femoris
50
What is the positive sign for the Roos test?
Tingling, ischemic pain or extreme fatigue
51
Poliomyelitis is an acute viral infection affecting the motor neurons in the spinal cord and brainstem. Which of the following is this describing?
Condition of the CNS
52
________ is a bending movement that decreases the angle of the elbow joint.
Flexion
53
When the sole of the foot is turned inwards, the ankle is considered to be:
Inverted
54
What acronym is used for the signs of inflammation?
SHARP
55
During a massage session, a client tells their RMT that they often feel persistent tightness and discomfort in their upper trapezius throughout the day. They mention that stretching provides only temporary relief, and the area feels fatigued despite not working out. Why might over-contraction of the upper trapezius be causing this client’s discomfort?
It reduces blood flow, leading to ischemia and tension buildup
56
The body region of the back of the knee is called the ________ region.
popliteal
57
What is true about Type 2 diabetes?
The body does not respond to insulin
58
If you suspect your patient has a fracture, you should:
Recommend to your client to go to the hospital
59
The trigger points in the _____________ muscles refer pain specifically to the dorsal surface of the corresponding finger.
extensor digitorum
60
A movement of the forearm where the thumbs are facing inwards is called:
Pronation
61
Which of the following water temperature is ideal for using in acute conditions when a cold temperature is contraindicated?
Cool
62
An acute and chronic inflammation of the paranasal sinuses due to infection is known as:
Sinusitis
63
What stage is a bruise when it changes its colour to yellow?
Final stage of healing
64
A massage therapist places their hands at the internal and external side of the client's limb while they are pulling tissues apart and some circulatory movements are produced. Which of the following types of petrissage does this describe?
Wringing
65
A male client complains of pain on the right side of his ribs whenever he rotates to the left. The client has well defined abdominal muscles and shows a moderate posterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following muscles would be shortened?
Right biceps femoris
66
What is the main goal of the pre-event massage?
Stimulate the client before exercises
67
What is the number one symptom indicating an insulin reaction?
Dizziness
68
A movement of the limbs away from the midline is called:
abduction
69
Which of the following muscles is probably the most commonly overlooked, but most frequent source of myogenic back pain?
Quadratus lumborum
70
Which of the following major body cavity consists of a thoracic and an abdominopelvic portion?
Ventral cavity
71
The effleurage techniques is generally applied towards the:
Heart
72
A baseball pitcher recently had a rotator cuff injury. Which muscle is most affected?
Supraspinatus
73
Which of the following is a characteristic of somatic hormones?
Act on specific body organs or cells
74
Which of the following is a humoral trigger of endocrine gland secretion?
Decreased calcium blood levels
75
Which of the following is a possible title for a quantitative research study?
Emotional Stress and Incidence of Migraine Headaches
76
In the proliferative phase of an inflammatory response, the clot is eventually lysed and replaced with:
Granulation tissue
77
What type of resistance exercises would you use at the late subacute stage?
Plank
78
This technique involves your hand in continuous contact with the client’s body without sliding over the client’s skin:
Vibration
79
This test for assessing the dislocation of the lunate bone:
Murphy's sign
80
The term Care Coordination is:
Planned organization of patient care activities between multiple practitioners
81
Which fibre is primarily active when sprinting?
Fast-twitch, type 2 B
82
Which of the following heart conditions is characterized by four congenital defects?
Tetralogy of Fallot
83
Which of the following medical techniques does not employ radiation and is especially useful for scanning the spinal cord and other soft tissues?
Magnetic resonance imaging
84
A client who test positive for the Thomas test usually has:
A client who test positive for the Thomas test usually has:
85
The absorption of iron through the small intestines takes place by way of:
Active transport
86
Which of the following statements regarding healing by first intention is true?
Results in tissue regeneration with no loss of function
87
A female client requires a stretch for her tight flexor carpi radialis muscle. Which of the following techniques should be applied?
Wrist and elbow extension
88
Which of the following is not a common attribute of all hormones?
All are amino acid derivatives
89
Mechanoreceptors in the Gl tract are responsible for the short stretch reflexes that are initiated as a result of:
Food
90
The ability to locate and evaluate research findings and assess their applicability to practice describes which of the following terms?
Research literacy
91
Which of the following minerals is required for normal growth, wound healing and taste/smell perception?
Zinc
92
An excess of potassium in the blood (hyperkalemia) is a result of which improperly functioning organ?
Kidney
93
Muscles remodelling usually results in alterations in all of the following, except:
Nerve supply to the muscles
94
Which muscle is the “un-locker” of the knee joint?
Popliteus
95
Which of the following is an effect of growth hormone on the body's metabolism?
Promoting fatty acid mobilization
96
Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood?
Maintaining osmotic pressure
97
Which of the following statements about the vagus nerve is true?
Carries parasympathetic signals to the heart and other core organs
98
The trigone is located in this structure:
Bladder
99
The stretch position for the ______________ is simple flexion, most effectively performed with the client seated with the legs spread widely apart and feet on the floor.
longissimus
100
Smooth, cardiac, and skeletal are all specialized types of which of the following four types of tissues?
Muscle tissue
101
Which of the following is not an example of a dual relationship with the client?
A client referred by your friend
102
Which of the following is most important step that should be taken by a massage therapist before a record can be released?
Obtaining the written consent of the client
103
Low intensity aerobic exercises is best for which type of disorder?
Arterial
104
What articulates the Council's opinion on specific issues relating to the practice of massage therapy?
Policy statements
105
A member is required to undergo a peer assessment if the following criteria is met:
They have not been assessed for more than 5 years
106
Hands washing must be performed at these times:
Before and after each treatment
107
A self-assessment program encourages individual members to plan the following:
His/Her own self development program
108
What is the stated purpose of the Health Care Consent Act?
To enhance the autonomy of the client
109
When should the results of the assessment/reassessment be recorded in the client’s health records?
Within 24 hours after assessment
110
A member of the public who wishes to file a complaint regarding a massage therapist must submit it within:
6 months
111
The nutrients needed in the haversian system are supplied by blood vessels found in the ______________?
Periosteum
112
Hard “or cracking” clicks of the temporomandibular joint usually indicate:
Joint pathology or joint surface defects
113
When a client views the massage therapist as someone other than a health care provider, it is referred to as:
Transference
114
Lateral epicondylitis is also known as:
Tennis elbow
115
How often is it necessary for a massage therapist to wash their hands?
Before and after each assessment
116
Which of the following techniques starts from the muscle opposite the range limiting and is most appropriate for early sub-acute stage?
Agonist contracts
117
The discipline committee hears the following:
Specified allegations of misconduct
118
A treatment plan must be consistent with the following document:
Standards of Practice
119
A controlled act can be performed by the following person:
A member of a regulated health profession if the act is authorized
120
Which of the following techniques is not recommended for an RMT to use when treating a client with temporomandibular joint (TMJ) disorders?
High-velocity, low-amplitude (HVLA) techniques
121
How many times may a candidate apply for the CMTO examination?
Three times
122
A grade 4 tendonitis is:
Pain with activity of daily living and pain increases
123
The Complaints committee refers complaints to the following committees:
Discipline and Executive
124
Which of the following techniques can be applied through client's covering?
Stroking
125
A member may practise the profession only if they practise for the minimum of:
500 hours in 3 years
126
Who can initiate the discipline process?
The complaint and executive committee
127
This test is the best to indicate minimal effusion of the knee joint:
Brush stroke (Bulge) test
128
What is the appropriate timing to present an ongoing treatment plan?
After the first treatment
129
Which of the following activities does not constitute direct client care?
Completing medico legal reports
130
The primary purpose of laws regarding massage therapy is to:
Protect the public
131
Which ligament(s) refers pain to central posterior thigh, central posterior calf, beneath the heel?
Sacrospinous and sacrotuberous
132
Which head of the quadriceps femoris muscle is the most frequently strained?
Rectus femoris
133
What is a limit that is adhered to in order to separate and protect the integrity of all parties involved?
Boundaries
134
A massage therapist applies effleurage to the hamstrings, then to the calves, and then back to the hamstrings. Which of the following sequence is the RMT performing?
Proximal to distal, then distal to proximal
135
The Consent Board may appoint a guardian if the following criterion is met:
The incapable person does not object to the appointment
136
Your patient is positioned so that the patellae face forward; the medial aspects of the knees and medial malleolus of both limbs are as close together as possible. If the knees touch in this position but the ankles do not, the patient has:
Genu valgum
137
Which of the following techniques is generally applied towards the heart?
Effleurage
138
Depression and headaches are a frequent occurrence for your client. Massage calms the symptoms for a short time. Your client is willing to try anything to prolong the relief after treatments. Which modality would you introduce to your client to help regulate emotions and relieve headaches?
Aromatherapy
139
Which of the following usually develops due to infection, trauma and sometimes pathologies like gout or OA, or with any trauma that causes inflammation?
Bursitis
140
Which of the following occurs when therapist allow unresolved feelings and behaviour to influence their work with their clients?
Countertransference
141
Your client's medication (Rx) or pathology side-effects or symptoms include indigestion, gas, and heartburn. What can you do to help reduce discomfort and relieve pain during treatment?
Alter the position of the client for gastric distress
142
Who cannot serve as a substitute decision maker (SDM) for consent?
The massage therapist
143
When a car hits someone from behind, the person's head and neck accelerates forward while the torso starts to slow down. Which phase is this?
Phase 3 (160 milliseconds)
144
What is a defense mechanism in which a person unconsciously rejects his or her own unacceptable attributes, thoughts, or feelings by ascribing them to objects or other people?
Projection
145
Which of the following assessment techniques will be positive on a client with carpal tunnel syndrome?
Tinel's, Phalen's
146
What is the maximum fine for a member who fails a mandatory reporting obligation?
Up to $25,000
147
If a member's registration is suspended due to professional misconduct, he or she must file for reinstatement with the following body:
Panel of the discipline committee
148
What bony landmark is closest to the pain location of a person with golfer's elbow?
Medial epicondyle
149
Which of the following syndromes causes a stroke and loss of pain/temperature sensation from one side of the face and the other side of the body?
Wallenberg
150
What is the minimum number of hours for the practical part of the Refresher Course?
10 hours
