MDS/MPN Syndromes Flashcards

1
Q

What are the basic diagnostic criteria

of CMML ?

A
  • persistent absolute monocytosis
    • > 1 x 10^9/L or >1,000/uL
  • marrow dysplasia
    • usually dysgranulopoiesis
    • must be in > 10% of cells
  • < 20% blasts including promonocytes
  • absence of Philadelphia chromosome
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2
Q

What is the morphology of the

monocytes in CMML ?

A
  • can be normal to atypical
  • may have a concomitant reactive Blastic Plasmacytoid Dendritic Cell Infiltrate
    • Positive: CD2, CD4, CD5, CD14, CD56, CD68, CD123
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3
Q

What genetic alterations must be excluded if

there is significant eosinophilia seen in a

case of CMML ?

A
  • eosinophilia: > 1.5 x 10^9/L
  • Must exclude rearrangements of:
    • PDGRFB
    • FGFR1
    • PCM-JAK2 (mutations)
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4
Q

What are common genes that are mutated

in CMML ?

A
  • TET2
  • SRSF2
  • SETBP1
  • ASXL1
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5
Q

What is the definition of atypical CMML ?

A
  • Leukocytosis > 13 x 10^9/L
    • composed of a spectrum of mature neutrophils, metamyelocytes, myelocytes and promyelocytes
    • marrow dysplasia
    • <20% of blasts
    • no Philadelphia chromosome
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6
Q

What genes are often mutated in

atypical CMML ?

A
  • SETBP1
  • ETNK1
  • note: some may have JAK2 mutations
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7
Q

What is the definition of Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia ?

A
  • affects children
  • presents with a monocytosis ( >1 x 10^9/L) and/or granulocytosis
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • constitutional symptoms
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8
Q

What are other findings often seen in JMML ?

A
  • anemia, thrombocytopenia
  • increased HbF
  • clonal chromosomal abnormalities:
    • monosomy 7 in 25%
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9
Q

What is the test used to diagnose JMML ?

A
  • In vitro spontaneous formation of granulocyte-macrophage colonies
    • hypersensitive to GM-CSF
    • confirmatory
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10
Q

What genetic alterations can be seen

in JMML ?

A
  • 10% of patients have NF-1
    • can have elevated HgF
  • Recurrent mutations in:
    • PTPN11
    • KRAS
    • NRAS
    • CBL
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11
Q

What is the definition of Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)?

A
  • defined by presence of Philadelphia chromosome
    • t(9;22) , produces a BCR-ABL fusion gene
    • translocation occurs: in major breakpoint cluster (M-BCR)
      • produces p210 fusion protein
    • rare cases translocation occurs in different region
      • produces p230 fusion protein
      • associated with marked thrombocytosis, neutrophil maturation
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12
Q

What is the third known breakpoint of CML

and when would you expect to have it ?

A
  • M-BCR breakpoint
    • p190 fusion protein
  • associated with monocytosis
  • also the breakpoint of Ph+ ALL
    • B-ALL in kids with this translocation is poor prognosis
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13
Q

What can be seen at presentation of CML?

A
  • splenomegaly can be seen
  • platelet aggregation defects
    • impaired aggregation in response to epinephrine
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14
Q

How is the chronic phase of CML defined ?

A
  • leukocytosis due to increased neutrophils in all stages of maturation
  • proportion of myelocytes exceeds that of the other mature forms
    • Myelocyte bulge
  • Basophilia, eosinophilia, thrombocytosis
  • Absolute monocytosis in most cases
  • Blasts usually <1%
  • low LAP score
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15
Q

What are the bone marrow findings in

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia ?

A
  • Hypercellular
  • Increased M:E ratio and myelocyte bulge
    • similar to that seen in the blood
  • Increased megakaryocytes
    • often small, hypolobated (Dwarf megas)
  • Immature myeloids are away from the trabeculae
    • thickening of trabecular cuff of immature cells
  • Increased histiocytes
    • gray-green crystal containing, Gaucher like, sea-blue histiocytes
    • indicative of increased cell turnover
  • Dyspoiesis is UNUSUAL in CML
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16
Q

What characterizes the accelerated phase

of CML?

A

Marked by the emergence of 1 or more of the following:

  • progressive basophilia ( >20%)
  • thrombocytopenia ( <100 x10^9/L)
  • thrombocytosis (>1000 x10^9) or leukocytosis
  • clonal cytogenetic progression
    • Philadelphia chromosome with +8, i(17q), +19 or another Ph chromosome
  • increasing blasts >10%
    • but less than 20%
  • clusters of abnormal megakaryocytes
  • LAP score tends to rise
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17
Q

What characterizes the blast phase of

CML ?

A
  • >20% blasts in the marrow or blood or infiltrate into the tissue (chloroma) OR
    • prominent focal accumulation of blasts in the marrow biopsy (fills an intertrabecular space)
  • in blast phase:
    • 70% are AML type
    • 30% are ALL type (often coexpression of myeloid antigens)
  • additional cytogenetic abnormalities
    • most common: duplication of Ph chromosome
    • +8, i(17q)
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18
Q

What is the treatment for CML ?

A
  • Imatinib
    • tyrosine kinase inhibitor
    • second line: nilotinib, desatinib
  • result in prolonged survival
19
Q

What is the most key prognostic factor in CML?

A
  • response to the tyrosine kinase inhibitor
  • measured by quantitative reverse transcriptase real time PCR (RT-PCR)
  • 3 log reduction in first 8-12 months is good response

Note: Imatinib functions through competitive inhibition of the ATP binding site of BCR-ABL

20
Q

What are the modes of development of resistance

to Imatinib ?

A
  • Imatinib also functions against: PDGFR and c-KIT
  • Resistance is present initially in 5% of cases
    • result of distinct mutations in the BCR-ABL gene
    • esp. TK domain: P loop (T315I) - KNOW
  • early treatment with Imatinib lessens the chances of development of resistance

IMP: accelerated or blast phase are more likely to develop resistance to Imatinib

21
Q

What are secondary/other mechanisms of

resistance development in CML ?

A
  • P-glycoprotein (MDR) overexpression
  • Amplification of BCR-ABL leading to bcr-abl kinase
  • acquisition of additional non-Bcr-Abl genetic anomolies (clonal evolution)
22
Q

What is the definition of

minimal residual disease in CML?

A
  • Clinical remission: ~10^9-10^10 leukemic cells (about 2-3 log reduction)
  • MRD generally refers to leukemic cells < 10^9-10^10
  • Complete cytogenetic response:
    • undetectable Philadelphia chromosome in 20 metaphased by conventional cytogenetics
    • generally achieved when the number of leukemic cells is <10^9
      • or a log of 3 reduction
23
Q

In CML, what predicts 0% chance of disease progression

over the course of 2 years?

A
  • a true log of 3 reduction at 12 months
  • confirmed by quantitative PCR for the BCR-ABL transcript
  • BCR-ABL quantitative PCR is used to establish baseline for future MRD monitoring at diagnosis
  • Quantitative PCR (RT-PCR) considered the method of chose for MRD detection
    • esp in patients who have achieved complete cytogenetic remission
24
Q

What is the presentation of patient’s with

polycythemia vera?

A
  • hypertension, thrombosis, pruritis, plethora, erythromelalgia, and or headache
  • spleen is typically enlarged at presentation
  • Budd-Chiari in 10% of cases
  • Most common cause of death:
    • thrombosis (31%)
    • acute leukemia (19%)
25
What are the diagnostic criteria for Polycythemia Vera?
IMP: must differentiate PV from relative polycythemia, secondary polycythemia and CML Must have 2 major and 1 minor criteria as the minimum: * Major: * Hgb \> 16.5 (men) \>16 (women), or Hct: \>25% * JAK2 V617F or JAK2 exon12 mutation * Minor: * subnormal serum erythropoitin (EPO)
26
What are causes of relative and secondary polycythemia ?
* Relative: * stress or dehydration * called Gaisboch syndrome * Secondary: * Low PaO2 states (smoking, living at high altitudes) * high oxygen affinity hemoglobin variants * Neoplasms * RCC, Cerebellar hemangioblastoma * produce excess EPO
27
What is characteristic of the Proliferative Phase of Polycythemia Vera?
* erythrocytosis, neutrophilia * sometimes basophilia and or thrombocytosis * marrow is hypercellular with a low M:E ratio * megakaryocyte hyperplasia is often prominent * stainable iron is usually decreased or absent
28
What is characteristic of the spent phase of PV ?
* post polycythemic myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia * peripheral myelopthisic pattern (marrow replacement) * marrow reticulin fibrosis * extramedullary hematopoiesis
29
What is endogenous colony formation used to assess?
* used to evaluate Polycythemia vera * use a culture of the patient's marrow * PV * spontaneous formation of erythroid colonies * without addition of EPO * in other conditions, colony formation requires the addition of EPO
30
What is the characteristic JAK2 mutation identified in many MPNs ?
* JAK2 V617F * present in \>90% of PV * 50% of ET and 50% of PMF * the second most common activating mutation is within JAK2 exon 12, which is seen in a small proportion of PV cases
31
In what MPNs would you see mutations in MPL ?
* small subset of PMF and ET * MPL W515L or W515K * IMP: these are not seen in PV
32
When would you expect to see a CALR mutation in an MPN?
* Calreticulin exon 9 mutations * seen in JAK2 negative PMF (25-35%) * ET (15-24%) * CALR type 1 mutation results from a 52 bp deletion * type 2 mutations result from a 5 bp insertion
33
What are the diagnostic criteria of Essential Thrombocythemia ?
Need all major or first 3 major and minor criteria * Major: * sustained thrombocytosis \>450 x10^9/L * bone marrow megakaryocytic hyperplasia, no panmyelosis * no significant increase in granulocytic/erythroid precursors * fails to meet criteria for PV, PMF, CML and MDS * JAK2 V617F, MPL or CALR mutation * Minor: * presence of clonal marker or absence of reactive thrombocytosis
34
What is the clinical presentation of ET?
* bimodal age distribution: peaks at age 30 and 60 * female predominance, esp for JAK2 mutations * men tend to have more of the CALR * presents as isolated thrombocytosis * some patients can present with thrombosis or mucosal hemorrhages
35
What are the histological findings of Essential Thrombocythemia?
* increase in mature appearing, large, hyperlobated megakaryocytes (stag-horn like) * paratrabecular in distribution * may have emperipolesis * unlike PV and PMF megakaryocyte topography is not altered * no significant megakaryocyte clumping * stainable iron is present * helps rule out iron deficiency * significant reticulin fibrosis is not present
36
What conditions must be ruled out before making a diagnosis of ET?
* Reactive thrombocytopenia * seen in iron deficiency * chronic inflammation * asplenia * other hematolymphoid malignancies * CML
37
What is the morphology of the cellular or prefibrotic phase of PMF ?
Presentation: anemia, mild leukocytosis, and thrombocytosis * marrow is hypercellular with increased granulocytic precursors and increased megakaryocytes * erythroid precursors * relatively diminished with maturation arrest * helps differentiate it from Panmyelosis * granulocytes have normal distribution and lack a myelocyte bulge (different than CML)
38
What is the morphology of PMF megakaryocytes ?
* morphologically abnormal * aberrantly lobulated with clumped, hyperchromatic chromatin/ink like * clusters are prominent * found adjacent to sinuses and trabeculae
39
What is characteristic of the fibrotic phase of PMF ?
* Leukoerythroblastic pattern in the peripheral blood * dacrocytosis and anisocytosis * bone marrow cant be aspirated * Key findings: * reticulin/collagen fibrosis * intrasinusoidal hematopoiesis * morphologically abnormal clusters of megakaryocytes
40
What is the clinical presentation of Chronic Eosinophilic Leukemia (CEL) ?
* predominantly a disease of men 9:1 ratio * peripheral blood eosinophilia * \>1.5 x 10^9/L * often with evidence of tissue infiltration and damage * Common sites involved: * heart, GI tract, lung and CNS * endomyocardial fibrosis can be seen in the heart * Eosinophil Morphology * hypogranular with cytoplasmic vacuolization * if no clonality seen blasts must be \>2% in PB and \>5% in BM but \<20% overall
41
What must be excluded in order to diagnose Chronic Eosinophilic Leukemia ?
* No identifiable cause of secondary eosinophilia * No evidence of a defined syndrome associated with eosinophilia: PDGFRA, PDGFRB and FGFR1 * If there is evidence of clonality by cytogenetics or increased blasts (must be \<20%) * can make the diagnosis of CEL * IF these are lacking you call it hypereosinophilic syndrome
42
What are common causes of Hypereosinophilia ?
* allergic reactions * parasitic infections * collagen vascular diseases * mastocytosis * other hematolymphoid neoplasms
43
What are the 3 myeloid neoplasms with associated eosinophilia ?
* PDGFRa rearrangment * PDGFRb rearrangment * FGFR1 rearrangment Note: endomyocardial fibrosis can occur with any of these conditions. PDGFRa and PDGFRb rearrangements are responsive to Imatinib and other Tyrosine Kinase inhibitors
44
What is known about the PDGFRa neoplasm?
* presents like Chronic eosinophilic leukemia * also can be AML with eos and T-ALL with eos * epidemiology: * M:F 17:1 (median 40 years) * No abnormal karyotype * Usual gene rearrangements: * NFIP1L1/PDGFRa * cryptic del(4q12)