Med review

Question 1

What is the antidote for heparin overdose

Answer 1

Protamine SUlfate- strong based protein that binds to heparin and neutralize its coagulant effects

Question 2

Clopidogrel is used to prevent which of the following- Hypotension, PLT aggregation, Fungal infection or bronchospasm

Answer 2

PLT Aggresion

Question 3

Before an iron infusion, you should assess the patient for a history of anaphylactic reaction

Answer 3

Yes for flushing, chest tightness, hypotension and nausea

Question 4

What is the first line of treatment approach for DIC

Answer 4

Administer PLT and clotting factors

Question 5

Which of the following is an important toxicity to monitor with aminoglycoside antibiotics.
Hepatoxicity
Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Bone marrow suppresion
Hypertension

Answer 5

Nephrotociity and otoxtoxicity

Question 6

Fluroquinolones are approved for the treatment of which bioterrosim-related infection
Small pox
Anthrax
Ebola
TB

Answer 6

Anthrax

Question 7

what is the drug of choice for treatming cryptococcal meningitis

Answer 7

Fluoconazole or amphotericin B

Question 8

Metronidazole is effective against what type of organism
Virus
Anaerobic bacteria and protozoa
fungi
Gram negative bacteria

Answer 8

Anaerobic bacteria and protozoa- disrupt DNA synethesis -cell death

Question 9

Pyrimethamine is primiarly used to treat infection cause by which parasite
Giardia
Toxoplasma Gondii
Malaria
Tapeworm

Answer 9

Toxoplasma gondii

Question 10

Which class of drug are typically prescribed first in treating hypertension

Answer 10

ACE inhibitors - reduce vasoconstriction
Thiazide direutics

Question 11

what toxicity should you clsoely monitor with dogoxin therapy

Answer 11

CV symptoms: bradycardia, arrtyhymia, heart blocks. GI symptoms
sucha as N/V , anorexia, diarrhea

Question 12

Spironolactone is classified as direutics
Loop
Thiazide
Potassium sparing
Osmotic

Answer 12

Potassim sparing - blocks aldesterone (hold on to water and salt) therefore gets ride of water and salt and keeps the potassium

Question 13

Milrinone is a
calcium channel blocker
Phosphodiesterase 3 inhibitors
ACE inhibitors
Beta blocker

Answer 13

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor works by blocked enzyme PPE3 therefore increasing cAMP in heart muscle helps pump more effectively and cause vasodilation therefore decreased BP

Question 14

Quinidine is primarily used to treat
hypertension
cardiac arrthymia
Fungal infections
Bronchospasm

Answer 14

cardiac arrthymia such as afib or aflutter and ventricular arrthmia

Question 15

Propranolol is a
Calcium channel blocker
NOn selective beta blcoker
ACE inhibitors
Potassium channel blocker

Answer 15

Blocks both B1(heart) B2( lungs, blood vessel) receptors

Question 16

True or false
Amiodarone can cause seroious pulm,onary toxicity as side ffect

Answer 16

Yes symptoms is dry cough, chest pain, fever, fatigue

Question 17

which beta blocker is cardio selective
Nadolol
Propranolol
Metoprolol
Sotalol

Answer 17

Metoprolol- refers to B1 receptor in the heart and only affects the heart .

Question 18

Bile acid sequestrant primarily lower
Blood pressure
LDL cholesterol -bad cholesterol
Herat rate
Glucose

Answer 18

LDL cholesterol- binding the bile acid in the intestine by binding to acid and it prevents reabsorption = decreaed LDL

Question 19

What important teaching should you give a patient starting ezetimbe

Answer 19

If used with a statin - monitor liver and muscle pain

Question 20

OTC cold meds and descongestant should be used cautiously in patients with

Answer 20

Hypertension

Question 21

Clemastine is classified as
Beta agonist
Antihistamine
Antifungal
Decongestant

Answer 21

Antihistamine

Question 22

Cromolyn is used to
treat active ashtma attacks
Stabilized mast cells to prevent ashtma
Stimulate RBC formation
Act as bronchodilator

Answer 22

Cromolyn sodium is a mast cell stabilizer.

It prevents the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators from mast cells.

It is used as a preventive treatment for asthma, not for active asthma attacks, because it has no bronchodilator effect.

Question 23

Ipatropium and tiotropium are short acting beta agonist

Answer 23

no
Ipratropium: Short-acting anticholinergic (SAMA)

Tiotropium: Long-acting anticholinergic (LAMA)

Question 24

Montelukast has drug interaction with which enzyme system

Answer 24

Montelukast is metabolized in the liver, primarily by the CYP3A4, CYP2C8, and CYP2C9 enzymes.

Drugs that induce or inhibit these enzymes can affect montelukast’s blood levels:

CYP inducers (like rifampin, phenytoin) may reduce montelukast levels, decreasing its effectiveness.

CYP inhibitors (like fluconazole, erythromycin) may increase levels, potentially raising the risk of side effects (though montelukast is generally well tolerated).

Question 25

Zemaria is used for which deficiency disorder

Answer 25

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency (AATD). Zemaira is a human alpha₁-proteinase inhibitor. It is given by intravenous (IV) infusion. It helps replace the missing or deficient alpha-1 antitrypsin protein in people with AATD.

Question 26

What consideration is most important with adrenergic bronchodilator

Answer 26

Stimulate adrenergic receptor in the lungs causing bronchodilation in treatment of asthma, COPD. overuse will cause tachycardia

Question 27

Warfarin works by interfering with what vitamin

Answer 27

Vitamin K

Question 28

Name a drug that stimulate RBC production

Answer 28

Epotin alfa or Darbepotein alfa- produce in kidney stimualte the bone marrow to produce RBC

Question 29

How do anti-infective genrally works They strengthen the immune system They kill or ihbits the growth of pathogen They neutralize toxin only They only prevent viral replication

Answer 29

They kill or inhibit the growth of pathogen such as bacteria, viruses and parasites

Question 30

Which antibiotic is often used for community acquire respiratory infection and has a long hald life Gentamycin Azithromycin Rifampin Metronidazole

Answer 30

Azithromycin - 68 hours of hald life

Question 31

Isoniazid is primiarly used to treat HIV TB Malaria Anthrax

Answer 31

TB

Question 32

Treatment of cytomegalovirus infection typically involves which antiviral Ganciclovir Acyclovir Oseltamivir Zidovudine

Answer 32

Ganciclovir- Severe infection- given IV

Question 33

True or false- common side effects of antifungal include liver toxicity and skin rashes

Answer 33

Yes elevated liver enzymes

Question 34

Tinidazole is effective against Fungal infection Protozoa infection Bacterial pnuemonia viral hematitis

Answer 34

Protozoa infection such as giardia lambia

Question 35

Econoazole is mainly used to treat which conditions Systemic fungal inection Superficial fungal infection Viral warts Bacteria pneumonia

Answer 35

Econazole- local superficial infection such as tinea infection

Question 36

Pentamidine is used for prophylasix and treatment of whcih infection Malaria Pneumocytisis jirivecii penumonia (PCP) MRSA CDiff colitis

Answer 36

PCP as fungus causing severe form of penumonia in immunocomprised people

Question 37

Mebedazole is treat viral infection Helminth infection (worm infestation) Fungal meningitis anthrax

Answer 37

Hemiinth infection such as worm infestation

Question 38

important consideratoin when prescribing benazepril Monitor for hypokalemia Monitor for hyperkaemia Watch for neutorpenia Caution with concurrent antacis

Answer 38

MOnitor for hyperkalemia

Question 39

True or false- digoxin toxicity can present with visual distrubances like seeing yellow halos

Answer 39

yes

Question 40

what is the mechanism of action of milirionone

Answer 40

Phosphodiesterase 3 inhibitors used to treat HT, acute decompensated . increasing lvel of cAMP making heart contract more strongly and relax blood vessel

Question 41

Dofetilde is an antiarrhythemic used mainly for what condition Afib heart failure pulmonary hypertension COPDE

Answer 41

AFib - help restore and maintain normal sinus rthymn by blocking certain ion channel such as potassium which helps regulate heart electical activity and control abnormal rthyms

Question 42

Contraindication to antiarrthmic therapy can often include Severe liver disease Renal failuire second or thrid degree heart block without a pace maker

Answer 42

all of the above

Question 43

Nitroglycerin works by increasing BP causing vasodilation Stimulate the heart Thickening vessel walls

Answer 43

casuing vasodilation

Question 44

Colestipol belong to what drug group statins Bile acid sequestrtants Beta blockers Calcium channel blocker

Answer 44

Colestipol binds bile acids in the intestine, preventing their reabsorption. This forces the liver to use more cholesterol to make new bile acids, which lowers LDL ("bad") cholesterol levels in the blood.

Question 45

patient teaching for HMG-CoA inhibitors (statin) should include report muscle pain immediately Avoid all exercise take with grapefruit juice increase dietary sodium

Answer 45

report muscle pain immediately Statins can sometimes cause muscle pain or weakness (known as myopathy or rhabdomyolysis in severe cases), which can be a sign of serious side effects. Therefore, patients should be instructed to report muscle pain, tenderness, or weakness immediately.

Question 46

Simvastatin should not be taken with what juice

Answer 46

grapefuit juice

Question 47

True or false- OTC cold-decongestant medication can increase blood pressure

Answer 47

OTC cold and decongestant medications, particularly those containing pseudoephedrine or phenylephrine, can increase blood pressure. These medications are sympathomimetic and work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages to reduce congestion. However, this vasoconstriction can also lead to elevated blood pressure and increased heart rate, which is a concern for individuals with high blood pressure or heart disease.

Question 48

Acetylcysteine is used as antidote for overdose of Warfarin Acetamininophen Digoxin Iron

Answer 48

Acetaminiphoen

Question 49

Dornase alfa is used to help manage Hypertension Mucus in cystic fibrosis Diabetic neuropathy Chronic heart failure

Answer 49

Dornase alfa is an enzyme that helps break down DNA in the thick, sticky mucus that builds up in the lungs of people with cystic fibrosis. By breaking down the DNA in mucus, it thins the mucus, making it easier to clear from the airways and improving lung function

Question 50

Theophylline has therapeutic range Wide Narrow Moderate Unimportant

Answer 50

It has a narrow therapeutic window, meaning the difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose is small.

Question 51

True or false Albuterol is used for immediate relief of bronchospasm

Answer 51

True

Question 52

Epinephrine can be used to treat HTN ANaphylaxis Bradycardia Fungal infection

Answer 52

Anaphlaxis

Question 53

Treatment of broncospasm include all the following exzcept Beta agonist Corticosterioid Beta blockers ANticholingeric

Answer 53

Beta blockers Beta blockers, however, are not typically used in the treatment of bronchospasm. In fact, they can be dangerous in patients with asthma or reactive airway diseases because they can potentially exacerbate bronchospasm by constricting the airways. Therefore, beta blockers would be the exception in this list.

Question 54

Salmeterol is short acting beta agonist Long acting beta agonist Anticholingeric Mast cell stabilizer

Answer 54

Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist (LABA). It is used to help control asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) by relaxing the muscles in the airways, making it easier to breathe. Salmeterol has a long duration of action, typically lasting around 12 hours, which is why it's classified as a LABA.

Question 55

name a treatment for heparin induced thrombocytopenia

Answer 55

A common treatment for Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) is the use of direct thrombin inhibitors or factor Xa inhibitors. Some of the key medications used include: Argatroban – A direct thrombin inhibitor.

Question 56

Treatment of DIC usually involves Antifungal Clotting factor replacement antihypertensive Direutics

Answer 56

Clottiing factor replacement

Question 57

Rh antibodies in pregnancy are managed with what injection

Answer 57

In pregnancy, Rh antibodies (specifically Rh-negative mothers exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood) are typically managed with an injection of Rh immunoglobulin (RhIg), commonly known as RhoGAM. RhoGAM works by preventing the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells. This is particularly important during pregnancy because if a Rh-negative mother is exposed to Rh-positive blood (such as during delivery, miscarriage, or certain procedures), her body could produce antibodies that may harm future pregnancies

Question 58

Rifampin can cause what side effects hair loss red orange discoloration of body fluids seizures urinary retention

Answer 58

Rifampin is an antibiotic commonly used to treat tuberculosis and certain other bacterial infections. Some known side effects of rifampin include: Red-orange discoloration of body fluids (such as urine, sweat, tears, and saliva): This is a common and harmless side effect caused by the drug’s coloring properties.

Question 59

Gentamycin toxicity affects mainly Kidney and ears Liver and heart Lungs and skin Pancreas and brain

Answer 59

Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic, and its toxicity primarily affects the kidneys (nephrotoxicity) and the ears (ototoxicity). Nephrotoxicity: Gentamicin can cause damage to the kidneys, leading to acute kidney injury (AKI). Ototoxicity: It can also cause damage to the inner ear, leading to hearing loss or balance problems, which can be either temporary or permanent.

Question 60

Docosanol is used to treat Athletes foot Herpes labialis Fungal menigitis Hep B

Answer 60

Docosanol is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes labialis, which is the medical term for cold sores caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV-1). It works by inhibiting the virus's ability to enter healthy cells, reducing the severity and duration of the outbreak. So, the correct answer is: Herpes labialis.

Question 61

True or false Ketoconazole can be hepatotoxic and require liver function monitoring

Answer 61

True. Ketoconazole is an antifungal medication that can be hepatotoxic (toxic to the liver). It has been associated with liver injury, ranging from mild liver enzyme elevation to severe liver damage, including acute liver failure in rare cases. Because of this risk, liver function monitoring is recommended during ketoconazole treatment, especially in patients who are on prolonged therapy or those with preexisting liver conditions. In some cases, ketoconazole use may be limited or discontinued if liver toxicity is suspected. So, the statement is true.

Question 62

Antifungal reaction may include anaphylaxic rash Liver injury all of the above

Answer 62

all of the above Anaphylaxis: Although rare, some individuals may have an allergic reaction to antifungal drugs, potentially leading to anaphylaxis, which is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Rash: Skin rashes are a more common side effect of antifungal medications and can range from mild to severe. Liver injury: Some antifungals, especially oral ones like ketoconazole or itraconazole, can cause liver toxicity, as discussed previously.

Question 63

Alpha interferon is primary used to treat bacteria infection viral infection hep b or hep c fungal infection Cardiac arrthymias

Answer 63

Alpha interferon is primarily used to treat viral infections, particularly Hepatitis B (HBV) and Hepatitis C (HCV). It works by enhancing the immune response to fight off the viral infection.

Question 64

ambrisentan is used for afib Pulmonary arterial hypertension COPD Hep C

Answer 64

Ambrisentan is used to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH). It is an endothelin receptor antagonist that helps relax and widen the blood vessels in the lungs, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. So, the correct answer is: Pulmonary arterial hypertension.

Question 65

which two toxicities should be monitored with furosemide

Answer 65

Electrolyte imbalances (especially hypokalemia and hyponatremia): Furosemide can lead to significant loss of potassium, sodium, and other electrolytes, which can cause dangerous conditions like muscle weakness, arrhythmias, or confusion. Kidney function (nephrotoxicity): Furosemide can affect kidney function, especially when used in high doses or in patients with pre-existing kidney problems. Monitoring serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels is important to detect early signs of kidney damage.

Question 66

cardiac glyside such as digoxin works by slowing herat rate and increasing force of contraction Decreased cardiac output Dilating blood vessel Blocking sodium channel

Answer 66

Slowing the heart rate and increasing the force of contraction. Digoxin has two main effects on the heart: Slows the heart rate: It increases vagal (parasympathetic) tone, which slows the conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node and reduces the heart rate. Increases the force of contraction: It inhibits the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, leading to an increase in intracellular calcium, which enhances the force of cardiac muscle contraction (positive inotropic effect).

Question 67

phophodiesterase inhibitor such as milrinone are primarily used for Arrthymia heart failure with low cardiac output hypertension COPDa

Answer 67

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors like milrinone are primarily used for heart failure with low cardiac output. Milrinone works by inhibiting the enzyme phosphodiesterase, which increases levels of cyclic AMP (cAMP) in the heart and blood vessels. This leads to: Positive inotropic effect: Increased force of contraction of the heart. Vasodilation: Relaxation of blood vessels, which reduces the workload on the heart. It is typically used in acute decompensated heart failure to improve cardiac output when other treatments are insufficient.

Question 68

Sotalol is classified as Calcium channel blocker beta blocker with antiarrthmic properties Potassium sparing direutic mast cell stabilizer

Answer 68

Sotalol is classified as a beta blocker with antiarrhythmic properties. It has two primary actions: Beta-blocking: It works by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors (like other beta blockers), which helps to reduce heart rate and blood pressure. Antiarrhythmic: It also has Class III antiarrhythmic properties, meaning it can prolong the action potential and refractory period in the heart, helping to stabilize the heart's rhythm.

Question 69

True or false Dilitazem can cause bradycardia as adverse effect

Answer 69

yes

Question 70

name a key adverse effect of calcium channel blocker

Answer 70

A key adverse effect of calcium channel blockers (CCBs) is peripheral edema (swelling of the lower legs and ankles). This occurs because CCBs cause vasodilation, which can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. also hypotension

Question 71

patient teaching for pravastatin include drink grapefruit juice daily monitor for muscle ache stops medication if diarrhea occcurs only take at bedtime Pravastatin is a statin medication, which is primarily used to lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks and strokes. Statins work by inhibiting an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is involved in the production of cholesterol in the liver. Specifically, pravastatin is used to: Lower LDL cholesterol (the "bad" cholesterol). Raise HDL cholesterol (the "good" cholesterol). Reduce triglyceride levels.

Answer 71

Monitor for muscle aches: One of the significant side effects of statins, including pravastatin, is muscle pain or muscle weakness (myopathy), which can be a sign of more severe conditions like rhabdomyolysis. Patients should report any unusual muscle aches or pains to their healthcare provider.