med surg final Flashcards

Question

MI in wemen

Answer 1

dont experince chest pain but:indigestions, abdominal fullness, fatigue, inability to catch breath

Answer 2

orthopnea- SOB when lying down the severeity is measured by the amount of pillows they sleep with

Answer 3

develops after pt has been lying down for several hours. in this position blood from lower extremities is redristributed to venous system which increases venous return to the heart. a desases heart can not compensate for the increased fluid and pulmonary congestion occurs. pt wakes up with feeling of suffovation-sit up dange feel at side of bed

Answer 4

cramping in legs or butt when walking. caused by decared arterial tissue perfusion-relieved by resting or elevating he effected extremity to enhance arterial blood flow

Answer 5

cacexic, confused, memory loss, malnourished, late sign- anascare- generalized edema as results of prolonged congestion of the livercyanosis- feom increased amount of deoxygenated bloodrubor- from arterial insufeincenydeacresed blood flow results into decreased temp

Answer 6

difference between systolic and diastolic

Answer 7

used to asses vasculat status of lower extremities. -cuff ppalced on lower eztremitiesthis is then divieded by brachial plusenormal values are 1.0 or higher0.8 moderate vasular disease0.5 severe vascular disease

Answer 8

normal 3-10 cm

Answer 9

s2 caused by closure of aortic and pulmonary valvehigher pitched and heard at base of heart at end of ventricualr systole

Answer 10

normal in those younger than 30

Answer 11

may be heart in pts with anemia hypertrophy MI plulmonary embloi may be heart with advancing age because of stifening ventricles

Answer 12

troponincreatine kinase MBmyoglobin

Answer 13

myocardial muscle protein realeased into blood with injury to heart muscle -have a wide diagnostit time range making them useful to pts who present several hours after the onset of chest pain Troponin levels increase about 3 hours after the onset of MI.BEST Troponin I levels rise rapidly and are detectable within 1 hour of myocardial injury.

Answer 14

enzyme in heart brain skeletal muscle CK in blood indicated tissue necrosis of injury early diagnosit cmarket for MISince it has a short duration, it cannot be used for late diagnosis of acute Mrfalls after 3 days

Answer 15

is not cardiact specific thats why its not used a lot. one of the earliest markers detected first to elevate

Answer 16

amino acid produced when protein breaks down CAD

Answer 17

for inflamation

Answer 18

prolonged QT intervaldysrythmias

Answer 19

invasieve with flouroscopy and dye when there is an arterial obstruction, narrowing or anneurism

Answer 20

most invasive but most definitiveekeep pt at bedrst 2-6 hrs

Answer 21

sound waves, for indicating plaque

Answer 22

invasive where electrical conduction of heart is done to cause and evaluate dysrythmias

Answer 23

determines functional capaccity of heart and screesna for CAD

Answer 24

ultrasound waves to asses cardicat structures and mobility of the valves

Answer 25

to view posterior cardiact structuresunltrousound placed behind heart from esophagus to stomach

Answer 26

noninvasive image of heart and vessles is produced by magnetic fields and radio waves, to detemine wall thickness and chamber dialation

Answer 27

before dye imaging

Answer 28

cardiac output would be 5.6 L/min for a human male and 4.9 ..

Answer 29

Coronary heart disease (CHD) is a narrowing of the small blood vessels that supply blood and oxygen to the heart. CHD is also called coronary artery disease.

Answer 30

caused by hypertension, CAD, vale disease, decreased tissue perfusion from pulmonary congestionleads to fatigue-as it becomes severe pt may have pink frothy sputums a life threrening pulmonary edema orthopneasystolic HF- heart cant contract fullydiastolic HF- heart cant relax adequalty signs- fatiue, pulmonary congestion, diziness, confusion, SOB, oliguria OLIGURIA

Answer 31

from MI, left HF, hypertensionsedema in lower legs, rings shoes are tight signs- a krexia, ascetis, edfema, JVD, enlarged liver , decresased urine

Answer 32

sympathetic nervous systemrenin angiotenin activationventricular remodelingBtype nauretic peptideendothelin

Answer 33

increasen cathecolamines and exciting the SNS. this increases HR

Answer 34

reduced blood flow to kidneys activates this and kidneys cause water and sodium retention

Answer 35

promote vasodialation thought diureseis-used to diagnose HF in pts with dyspnea

Answer 36

secreated by endothelial cells when they are streched

Answer 37

more african americansreduce sodium in nutrition to 3-2g dailtwater 2L daily

Answer 38

earl indicator of decreaed compliance

Answer 39

first line drugs for hfcause coughwatch potassium levels 3.5-5.

Answer 40

removie fluid but also removie it after edema is gone

Answer 41

good for older aldus to remove edema because they deacrese after emdema is gone, so no dehydration problems primary signs of hypokalmua- weakness,, slow reflexes, irregular HR

Answer 42

placed in heart in end stage HF

Answer 43

with legs down to decrease venous return to heart

Answer 44

vasospasm of arteries usually unilaterely, more common in women and in ppl older than 30'-vessles constricted and blanched or cause cyanosis-may be aggrevated by coldteach pt to wear gloves socks and keep warmNo smokingAvoid exposure to coldMedicationsVasodilatorsCalcium antagonistsMuscle relaxantsSurgery: sympathectomyAmputation for gangrene

Answer 45

thrombus associcated with innflamationBedrestMoist heatElevate extremityNSAIDsMotrinAspirin

Answer 46

thrmbus without inflammation

Answer 47

vein inflamation may cause DVT

Answer 48

tenderness, edema, pain, calf dorsiflextionlocalized edema rest and elevate extremity

Answer 49

distended protruding veinsprolonged stanidng after surgery ROM hourly Elastic stockingsRestElevate legsSclerotherapy

Answer 50

herdening of arterial wall and plaque formation may have weak pulse from poor circulationbruits

Answer 51

alters blood flow through arteries and veins of peripheral circulation PAD- o2 and nutrients (cells starve)PVD- pooling edema, elevate leg

Answer 52

reult of systemic artherosclerosisocclusion deprives lower extremitings with o2 and nutirentscells starvestage1- asymptomatic-decreased pedal pulses, bruits, stage2- intemitent caludation- pain when walking stage3- rest pain stage 4- necrosis gangrene check for pulses and pitting edemahair loss in extremities, dry skin, thick nails, protect skin so you dont get ulcers bcuz skin is already impared wear socks and keep warm , less coffe, smoking,

Answer 53

new vessels form to help out to perfuse blood

Answer 54

arterial revascularization

Answer 55

when veins not opening properly blood pooling, edema more chance of dvt no oral contrecaptives , exercise legs, minerals and fat from bones from surgery may leak into blood and give more change for thrombus formation diagnosed by mri, venous duplex untrsonography- how blood flows throught veins, d dimer- give heapin coumadin, elevate leg

Answer 56

when arteries that supply blood to the myocardium become diseased

Answer 57

insufficient oxygen

Answer 58

in womenhave st and t wave changesstemi- have st elevation

Answer 59

trasnmiral MI

Answer 60

Fibrinolytic therapy should be started within 6 hours of the onset of the MI, so the time at which the chest pain started is a major determinant of the appropriateness of this treatmentThe change in level of consciousness indicates that the patient may be experiencing intracranial bleeding, a possible complication of fibrinolytic therapy.

Answer 61

Milk and yogurt naturally contain a significant amount of sodium, and intake of these should be limited for patients on a diet that limits sodium to 2000 mg daily.

Answer 62

Rationale: Positioning the patient in a high-Fowler's position with the legs dependent will reduce preload by decreasing venous return to the right atrium.

Answer 63

Hypokalemia potentiates the actions of digoxin and increases the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can cause life-threatening dysrhythmias3.5-5

Answer 64

pink frothy sputum

Answer 65

Normal PTT range 22-30Normal PTT for pt on Coumadin? multiply normal range by 1.5-2.5; so it is 45-70

Answer 66

heart cant act as a pumpgoal is to increase cardiact output fluid restriction, bedrest, HOB elevated, low sodium

Answer 67

Morphine is administered because it decreases myocardial oxygen demand. first intervention in MI- give o2

Answer 68

he ECG is the quickest, most accurate, and most widely used tool to determine the location of myocardial infarction. Cardiac enzymes are used to diagnose MI but can’t determine the location. An echocardiogram is used most widely to view myocardial wall function after an MI has been diagnosed. Cardiac catheterization is an invasive study for determining coronary artery disease and may also indicate the location of myocardial damage, but the study may not be performed immediately.

Answer 69

regulate BP and acid based balanceproduce erythropoetin for RBC synthesisconvert vitamin D into active formproduce prostaglandins

Answer 70

hormone that regulates blood flow and GFR.renin is secreated when DCT cells sense changes in volume is low. renin then converts into angiotension 1 which then produces aldosterone.aldosterone then increases reabsorbtion of water and sodium into blood and promotes excretion of potassium.

Answer 71

electrolytes and other small particles are filtered in GFR.180 L each day125 ml each minutes

Answer 72

pressure in the GFR falls and filtration decreases

Answer 73

pressure in the GFR rises and filtration increases

Answer 74

GFR can not compensate and GFR stops

Answer 75

alows for reabsorbtion of water and sodiumalso causes arteriole constrictionaldosterone is an antidiuretic hormone

Answer 76

protein or have poor fluid intake

Answer 77

antibiotics-may cause kideny injurycontrast dyes- may cause kidney injurydietary supplements or steroids for muslce building with synthetic creatine damages kidneysNSAIDS & tylenol long term can damage kidneys

Answer 78

buildup of nitrogenous waste in the blood as a result of kidney failure. s/s - anorexia, nausea, vomiting, muscle cramps, pruriturs, fatigue

Answer 79

pedal or pretibial (shin), sacral area and around the eyes

Answer 80

1-3 L1500-2000ml

Answer 81

produced when protein in the muslce breaks down levels higher in men because they have more muslce mass-createnine levels do not increase until 50% of kidnets have lost their function 0.5-1.1 mg.dl

Answer 82

measures the kidney excreation of urea nitrogen which is a byproduct of protein breakdown in the liver. -rapid cell distruction, infection, streoid therapy may increase BUN levelsincrase may indicate reanal disease, dehydration, high potassium diet, stressdecrease may indicate fluid excess or severe hepatic damage10-20 mmol.L

Answer 83

indicator of hydration when blood osmolarity is decreased ADH is inhibited and as a result water is excreated not retained which then increases blood osmolarity water reabsorbed- osmolarity decreaseswater secreated- osmolarity increases

Answer 84

happends in times of stress, surgery, anesthesia, or drugs such as morphoine body retains water

Answer 85

increase gravity- dehydration and too much ADHas a result water is retained and the urine that is produced is more concentrateddecrease gravity- increased fluid intake, diabetes insipidus and increased in diuretic drugs that make urine less concentrated 1.005-1.030

Answer 86

7 alkaloticurine specimes becaomse more acidic if left unrefrigerated for more than one hours4.6-8

Answer 87

filtered by glomerulus and reabsorbed in the nephron, when BG rises above 220, some glucose is present in urine

Answer 88

incomplete metabolism of fatty acids, -produced when fat is used instead of glucose for celular energy

Answer 89

proteinurea doesnt indicate kidney disease, it may also be baceuse of infection

Answer 90

presence of albumin in urine measured by dipstick between 2-20hihg levels may indicate early kidney disease especialy in pts with diabetes

Answer 91

made of WBCindicated UTI

Answer 92

indicates UTI

Answer 93

best indicator for kidney functionmeasures GFR rate-compares urine creatinine levles with blood createnine levels so both samples must be colected 80-125

Answer 94

bruising in flank region near costovertebral angle; listen for bruit over each renal artery, palpate for kidney masses in flank region, left kidney deeper and cannot be palpated; CVA tenderness (kidney inflammation/infection)

Answer 95

(uremic encephalopathy – lethargy to seizures to coma; sensory changes in pattern of glove and stocking pattern over hands and feet; weakness of upper and lower limbs (uremic neuropathy)CV manifestations- HTN, heart failure, pulm edema, extra heart sounds (S3)Resp manifestations – uremic halitosis- bad breath because of high urimic in breath , SOB; tachypnea, and hyperpnea (increased depth of breathing) occur with met acidosis, Kussmaul respiration; uremic lung (=pneumonitis – thick sputum, reduced coughing, tachypnea)Hemotologic – anemia (pallor, wekness, SOB, lethargy, fatigue, dizziness) bleeding; GI – foul breath, mouth ulceration, stool for OB; skeletal – osteodystrophy, fractures; urine manifestations – urine changes, protein or blood in urine; skin – yellowish coloration pigment in skin, uremic frost – urea crystals on face, eyebrows, axilla, groin of pts with advanced uremic syndrome

Answer 96

Kidney changes in agingKidney loses cortical tissue (due to reduce blood flow) and gets smaller by 80 years of age; glomerular and tubular lining thicken, number of glomeruli and surface areas decrease; tubule length decrease; reduction in kidney mass and blood flow, decreased renin, aldosterone and activation of vitamin D – all these changes reduce ability to filter blood and excrete waste productsGFR decrease after 45 years of age, by age 65 it is half rate of young adult, this is more rapid in pts with diabetes, HTN, or heart failure; elderly greater risk for fluid overload, and reduced drug clearance, also more urgency and nocturnal polyuria (due to decreased ability to concentrate urine), also hypernatremia and increased risk of dehydration

Answer 97

no preparation, just xray -shows stones, strictures, calcifications,, shape and size

Answer 98

bowel preparation- to ensure that urinary structures are not abstucted by feces- dye is IV injected, it circulates into kidneys to be fileted and excreated in urine, xrays are taken at times of injection -gives info aboutsize shape, filling rate,

Answer 99

drugs such as steroids or antihistamines can be given before procedures

Answer 100

are at risk for lactic acidosis when getting IV dye -it should be d.c 24 hrs before any procedurepts at risk for kidney injury from IV dye need to have excess fluid to wash out dye -diuretics may be given to increase dye excreation -pts with asthma have been shown to be at increased risk for IV dye alergy -ask pts for alergy to shellfish and eggs, milk and chocolate

Answer 101

3D info on kidneys, ureters, bladder-shows tumors, cysts, and other mases or obstructions

Answer 102

a urinary cather is placed in pt and dye is instilled to show visibility of lower urinary tract. -dye injected in bladded by placing a catheter then xrays are taken, (xrays during voiding) -VCUG obtained obtained to determine if urine flows back into the ureter

Answer 103

to provide info about blood flow to kidneys -no danger from small amount of radiactive material present in agent. -radiactive agent is injected IV, then it is absorbed by the kidneys and gives of an radioactive emission which produce an image. -to PROVIDE INFO ABOUT BLOOD FLOW OR GFR-in some cases CAPOTEN (antihypertensive) is given to change blood flow to kidneys. asses for hypotensions

Answer 104

test requires full bladder, ask pt to drink water to fill up bladder, sound waves produce images of the organs -to asses size, thickness, calices, obstruction, tumor, cystsin prone postions

Answer 105

dye enters renal blood vessels ang generates an image to determine blood vessle size and abnormalities,

Answer 106

operative procedures for diagnostic or treatment reasons -to identify bladder (cystoscopy) or urethral trauma (cystourethroscopy)may be used to remove bladder tumors or enlarged prostate gland, also for tumors, fistulas or diverticuli

Answer 107

going against normal flow of urine, instils dye into lower urinary tract,dye doesnt enter bloodstream therefor pt is not at risk for kidney injury or alergic response-placement of custoscope is placed in ureters and dye is instilled then xrays are takenretrograde with cystoscopy

Answer 108

to determine how well bladder wall muslce functions and how well streches -for bladder capacity, baldder pressure, and voiding reflexes, -catheter placed, cystometer attaced to cather inserts fluid into bladder, then bladder pressure is recorded.-after pt asked to void and PVR recorded

Answer 109

for pelvic muslcle strenth and incontinence

Answer 110

-greatest risk in older or dehydrated pt with renal insufficienc

Answer 111

Patients with kidney failure are anemic because they cannot produce the hormone erythropoietin. A high oxygen saturation in an anemic patient who is showing signs of respiratory distress may still be hypoxemic. Administering oxygen is necessary.

Answer 112

hoarsnesscoughblood sputum (hemoptysis)dyspneachest painclubbing of fingerswheezing

Answer 113

hypertension and diabetes

Answer 114

90-95% of nephrons must be lost before kidney dysfucton is obvousbecause the healthy nephrons become larger and work harder, the GFR is effective untill up to 90% is lost

Answer 115

50% of nephrons must be lost before kidney dysfunction os obvious

Answer 116

reduced blood flowtoxinsischemiainfectionsobstruction

Answer 117

the kidneys compensate by constricting renal blood vessels, activating the renin pathways and secreating ADH. this increases blood vlume and increases kidney perfusion. -however the same response lowers urine output resulting in loiguria (less than 400/day) and azotemia (buildup of waste in body)

Answer 118

prerenal azotemiaintrarenal AKIpostrenal azotemia

Answer 119

caused by poor blood flow to kidneys-cause hypovolemic shock and HFearly AKI often reversible by correcting blood volume, increasing BP and improving cardiac output(hypotension, tachycardia, HF, PE, shock, lethdary, oliguria) tachycardia, SOB, crackle)hyperkalemia and hypocalcemia

Answer 120

caused by infection, drugs, tumors, inflamation

Answer 121

caused by obstruction (uremia, anuria, lethargy,)trouble with urine stream

Answer 122

urge pts to avoid dehydration, by drinking at leasr 2-3 L or 1-2 quarts ot fluid daily. this is especialy important for atheletes or ppl who do streneous excercise.

Answer 123

onset phase- gradual increase in nitrogen waste and BUN and createnineoliguirc phase- (low urine output of 100-400ml/day) electrolytes are increased because they are not excreated out, causes hypertension, hyperkalemia, hypermagnesemia, hyperphosphotemia BUT HYPOcalcemia, high BUN and creatinene diuretic phase- urine flow icnreases up to 10L/day, low electryoltes in the body because they are excreated out. causes hypotension, low BUN and createnine, recovery phase- pts gets to normal level

Answer 124

cardiact glycosides such as digoxin- used when HF induces kidney injury, improves contraction increaing blood flow to kidneys. vitamins and minerals and iron- when pt getting dialysis you have to supplement vit. that are removed from the blood. take frugs after dialysis, take iron with meals, iron causes constipation so take stool softners. eportin alfa- to increase RBC and prevent anemia

Answer 125

IV fat imulsions can provide a nonproteins source of caories, in uremic pts fat emulsions are used in place of glucose to avoid problems with excessive sugars.

Answer 126

usualy placed on subclavian or internal jugular vein

Answer 127

placed in femoral vein

Answer 128

not applicable for those on ventilation because if increases the abdominal distention

Answer 129

limit foods high in potassium, phosphorous, sodium and protein and may need to restrict fluid intake

Answer 130

Azotemia is another word that refers to high levels of urea, high urea BUN and createnine in blood s/s- metalic taste, anorexia, n/v, uremic frost, itching, fatigue, hiccups, crapms,

Answer 131

first stage- slightly normal GFR of >90, no obvious kidney damage but with reduced renal reserve but WITHOUT buildup of waste in body mild stage- GFR of 60-89, slight elevation of waste in body, increased output of urine may happen here which can cause dehydration, moderate stage- GFR of 30-59, restrict fluid, electrolytes and proteins as neededsevere stage- <15 GFR, excessive wastes in blood, Renal replacement therapy or transplant

Answer 132

ability to produce dulute urine is reduced, resulting in isosthenuria (fixed osmolarity ) as kidney function declines BUN increases and urine output decreases putting pts in fluid overload

Answer 133

serum createnine level, gender, age, race, body size

Answer 134

early stage- pt is hyponatremia becuase there are few nephrones to reabsorb sodium, later stage-hypernatremia, excreation of sodium is reduced as urine production increases, (ANY INCREASE IN POTASIUM LOAD DURING THE LATER STAGE CAN LEAD TO HYPERKALEMIA)

Answer 135

as CKD worses acid retention increases and an increased respiration is needed to keep blood pH levels normal. rate and depth of breathing is increased called Kussmaul reespirations. -these pts need alkali replacement to conteract the acidosis in their bodyOxygen will not help his respirations and could make his acidosis worse."

Answer 136

is thought to be the result of hyperparathyroidism secondary to hyperphosphatemia combined with hypocalcaemia, both of which are due to decreased excretion of phosphate by the damaged kidney. Low activated vitamin D3 levels are a result of the damaged kidneys' inability to convert vitamin D3 into its active form, calcitriol, and result in further hypocalcaemia.

Answer 137

occur in CKD, this pts pts at risk for CAD

Answer 138

increased uremia effects the myocardium

Answer 139

mouth contains urease which breaks down urea in ammonia, the amonia generated by this reaction causes stomatitis and halitosis

Answer 140

to have yearly testing for microalbuminurea

Answer 141

leathargy, seizures, coma,

Answer 142

weakenss in upper and lower extremities

Answer 143

increased respirations and increased depthy of breathing because of resp acidosis

Answer 144

layer of urea crystals from evaporated sweat may appear in face, eyebrows, froin or axilla.

Answer 145

may cause ototoxticity so IV doeses give carefuly

Answer 146

may improve GFR and blood flow with kidney

Answer 147

Early CKD – reduced phosphate excretion, leading to hypocalcemia; parathyroid hormone then is released to get calcium from bones – leading to bone density loss ( extra calcium needed to balance plasma phosphate level); in severe CKD, even less calcitriol available leading to even less calcium level ( called renal osteodystrophy – low calcium and high phosphorus – cause bone pain, spinal sclerosis, fx, bone density loss, osteomalacia and tooth calcium loss)

Answer 148

crystals from high plasma level of calcium-phosphate (if exceed 70 mg/dL) lodge in kidneys, heart, blood vessels, brain etc.; pt c/o increased skin itching with this

Answer 149

heparin most commonly used to prevent clots; vascular access – AV fistula (connect artery to vein in radial or brachial or cephalic vein, need to be matured before usage) or AV graft (when AV fistula doesn’t develop or its use is limited, commonly used in older adults) – assess for adequate circulation, check distal pulses and capillary refill, check for bruit and thrill, HD complication – thrombosis or clotting of AV access, infections, aneurysm in fistula, ischemia can occur range from cold and numb fingers to gangrene; dialysis disequilibrium syndrome may occur during or after HD, due to rapid decrease in fluid volume and BUN levels, can cause cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure with neuro s/s – HA, N/V, restlessness, decreased level of consciousness, seizures, coma or death; infectious diseases – hep B and C may occur but the incidence has decreased due to increased use of erythropoietin ; HIV

Answer 150

perm cath- long term HD

Answer 151

Involves siliconized rubber catheter placed into abdominal cavity for infusion of dialysatePeritoneal PD complication – peritonitis s/s – cloudy or opaque effluent is earliest sign of peritonitis; pain; exit site and tunnel infections, poor dialysate flow usually related to constipation; dialysate leakage – occur more often with obese pts, DM, older adults and long term steroid therapy; bleeding, bowel perforation esp when catheter first placed

Answer 152

A positive bruit and thrill indicate good blood flow through the graft. A dialysis access should only be used for dialysis. IVs should not be started, nor should blood pressure be taken in the same arm where the access is located. Elevation of the arm will not ensure function of the graft.

Answer 153

Vasoactive drugs such as beta blockers like atenolol can cause hypotension during dialysis and are usually held until after treatment.

Answer 154

The patient’s temperature is elevated after dialysis because the dialysis machine warms the blood slightly. Weight and blood pressure should be decreased because excess fluid is removed during dialysis. Heparin is required during hemodialysis and increases clotting time. All invasive procedures should be avoided for 4 to 6 hours after dialysis.

Answer 155

Sodium is restricted because it causes retention of fluids. Potassium is restricted to prevent dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias. Vitamins must be supplemented, not restricted. There is an inverse relationship between phosphorus and calcium; when phosphorus is high, calcium is low and should not be restricted

Answer 156

Rationale: The patient with diabetes who has chronic kidney disease (CKD) often requires reduced doses of insulin and/or antidiabetic drugs because the failing kidneys do not excrete or metabolize these drugs well. Thus the drugs are effective longer, increasing the risk for hypoglycemia.

Answer 157

asses circulation in arm where AV is , check distal pulses and cap refil, DONT TAKE BP or IV IN THE ARMdont use AV or GRAFT to give iv fluids, only for dialysis

Answer 158

cant be done if there is scaring in adominal area

Answer 159

Hyperkalemia may be present; electrocardiographic changes and paralytic ileus may develop.

Answer 160

Avoiding peas, nuts, and legumes CorrectCorrect: Kidney failure causes hyperphosphatemia; this client must restrict phosphorus-containing foods such as beans, peas, nuts (peanut butter), and legumes.

Answer 161

The client with uremia is prone to pericarditis; symptoms include inspiratory chest pain, low-grade fever, and ST segment elevation.

Answer 162

Dyspnea is a sign of fluid overload and possible pulmonary edema; the nurse assists the client in correlating symptoms of fluid overload with nonadherence to fluid restriction.

Answer 163

(ACE) inhibitors appear to be the most effective drugs to slow the progression of kidney failure.

Answer 164

Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are symptoms of digoxin toxicity.

Answer 165

Treatment of anemia with erythropoietin will result in increased (H&H) and decreased shortness of breath (SOB) and fatigue.

Answer 166

A bruit or swishing sound should be present, indicating patency of the fistula.Correct: A thrill or buzzing sensation upon palpation should be present, indicating patency of the fistula.Correct: No blood pressure, venipuncture, or compression such as lying on the fistula should occur.Incorrect Feedback:Incorrect: Distal pulses and capillary refill are checked; for a forearm fistula, the radial pulse is checked. The brachial pulse is proximal.Incorrect: Elevating the arm increases venous return, possibly collapsing the fistula.

Answer 167

Temperature of 101.2 CorrectCorrect: Peritonitis is the major complication of PD caused by intra-abdominal catheter site contamination; use meticulous aseptic technique when caring for PD equipment.

Answer 168

Long-standing pulmonary disease and chronic infection typically exclude clients from transplantation; these conditions worsen with immune suppressants required to prevent rejection.

Answer 169

: Signs and symptoms of fluid retention are symptoms of transplant rejection.Correct: Increased blood pressure is a symptom of transplant rejection.Correct: Signs and symptoms of fluid retention are symptoms of transplant rejection.Incorrect Feedback:Incorrect: Increasing BUN and creatinine are symptoms of rejection; these reflect normal values.Incorrect: Fever, not normothermia, is symptomatic of transplant rejection.

Answer 170

An increase in blood urea nitrogen can be an indication of dehydration, and an increase in fluids is needed.

Answer 171

sodium is INCREASED

Answer 172

An abrupt decrease in urine output may indicate complications such as rejection, acute tubular necrosis (ATN), thrombosis, or obstruction.Blood-tinged urine is an expected finding after kidney transplantation.incisional pain is execcteedAn increase in urine output is initially expected after kidney transplantation.

Answer 173

cancer penetrates the tissue sorrounding the duct

Answer 174

the cancer remains within the duct

Answer 175

ductal carcinoma in situ DCISlobular carcinoma in situ LCID

Answer 176

non invasive breast cancer,althought it should be treated to prevent it from forming into invasive breast cancer, it doesnt metastesize at this stage

Answer 177

noninvasive breast cancer is rare and its usually identified incidently from biopsy of another problem

Answer 178

originates from mammary ducts then grows in the epithelial cells lining these ducts. at tumor continues to grow fibrosis (replacement of normal cells with connective tissue or collages) grows around the cancer. -the fibrosis may cause a shortening of the Coopers Ligaments which causes skin dimpling (inversion of nipple) in later stages of the disease-peaou de orange- thickening and putting of breast tissue seen in later stages of cancer

Answer 179

is a invasive breast cancer, symptomas include swelling, redness, pain-its usually not presented as a lump thats why it is cought in later stages because even mamograms cant pick it up

Answer 180

may cause infertility,

Answer 181

having BRCA gencehigh doses of ionizing radiation to the thorax (especially before 20 years old)early menarche (12)late menopause (50)nulliparity (no giving birth)first birth after 30alchoholobesityHRT hormone replacement therapyolder age jewish heritage

Answer 182

1 week after menstrual period, this time hormonal influence on the breast tissue is decreased so fluid retntion and tenderness are reduced

Answer 183

the area of the breast where the skin folds under the breast, this thickeked area is usually mistaken for a lump

Answer 184

prophoylactic mastectomy (removal of one ore both breasts)oophorectomy- removal of ovariesanti estrogen therapy

Answer 185

for ppl with breat cancer such ashormone substances that stimulates hormones

Answer 186

ability to reveal preclinical lesions (masses too small to be palpated)

Answer 187

clarifies finding of the memmogram , is helpful from identiying a fluid filled cyst from a solid mass

Answer 188

to better examine suspicious areas found from memmogram

Answer 189

not good for woman with breast cancer

Answer 190

chemotherapy to shrink the tumpr before the removal of it. -an advantage is to remove the tumor by lumpectomy rather than mastectomy

Answer 191

breast removed but lymph nodes are intaact

Answer 192

brest and lymph nodes removed

Answer 193

is a surgery to remove cancer from the breast. Unlike a mastectomy, a lumpectomy removes only the tumor and a small rim (area) of the normal tissue around it. So, the breast looks as close as possible to how it did before surgery. Most often, the general shape of the breast and the nipple area are kept.it is a breast conserving surgerymargins refer to the distance between the tumor and the edge of the tissue. the desired outcome of lumpectomy is to obtain negative margins in which no cancer cells extend to the edge of the tissue.

Answer 194

aviod BP and taking blood from that arm

Answer 195

when pt returns to follow up visit drainage should 25ml/day or less

Answer 196

HOB 30 degrees with the affected arm on a pillow. keeping the arm elevated promotes lymphatic fluid return after removal of lymph nodes and channels.

Answer 197

avioid sleeping in prone postion

Answer 198

catheters are placed near the lumpectomy cavity and they emit radioactive Mx, more convenient and shorter treatments

Answer 199

cytoxan, adriomycin, 5-FU

Answer 200

doesnt harm normal healthy cells therefore fewer side effects

Answer 201

to reduce estrogen -although supression of avarian function decreases the risk for breast cancer, the drastic drop in estrogen causes menopausal symptoms The purpose of hormonal therapy is to reduce the estrogen available to breast tumors to stop or prevent their growth.

Answer 202

block effects of estrgoen but do not effect ovarian functionS/s hot flashes and weight gain

Answer 203

reduce estrogen levels by inhibiting aromatase enzyme

Answer 204

may take sponge baths or tub baths making sute the area with the incision stays dry. may shower after stiches, and drains removed no deordorant, parfumes, lotions on that arm

Answer 205

instruct pt to rasie arm of efected area for about 30 min each day for 6 months

Answer 206

accumulation of protein fluid in the subq tissue of the affected limb after mastectoy.is a condition of localized fluid retention and tissue swelling caused by a compromised lymphatic system, which normally returns interstitial fluid to the thoracic duct and then the bloodstream. The condition can be inherited, though it is frequently caused by cancer treatments, and by parasitic infections. Though incurable and progressive, a number of treatments can ameliorate symptoms. Tissues with lymphedema are at risk of infection.

Answer 207

is a condition of localized fluid retention and tissue swelling caused by a compromised lymphatic system, which normally returns interstitial fluid to the thoracic duct and then the bloodstream. The condition can be inherited, though it is frequently caused by cancer treatments, and by parasitic infections. Though incurable and progressive, a number of treatments can ameliorate symptoms. Tissues with lymphedema are at risk of infection.

Answer 208

dietary protein guidelines for peritoneal dialysis (PD) differ from those for hemodialysis because of protein loss in the dialysate. During PD, protein intake must be high enough to compensate for the losses, so the nitrogen balance is maintained. The recommended protein intake is at least 1.2 g/kg of ideal body weight per day and is increased on the basis of individual needs of the patient.

Answer 209

The finger pads, which are more sensitive than the fingertips, are used when palpating the breasts.

Answer 210

he American Cancer Society recommends that high-risk women (greater than 20% lifetime risk) have an MRI and mammography every year beginning at age 30.

Answer 211

Typically, radiation therapy follows surgery to kill residual tumor cells. Radiation therapy plays a critical role in the therapeutic regimen and is effective treatment for almost all sites where breast cancer can metastasize. The purpose of radiation therapy is to reduce the risk for local recurrence of breast cancer.

Answer 212

aliveates v/n

Answer 213

those men higher than 65 years oldeating high in animal fat (red meat) and eatting complex carbshaving low fiber intkaevestectomyexposure to arsenic

Answer 214

starting at age of 50 men should get prostate screening

Answer 215

slowest growing cancer and it metastesises in a predictable patters, in nearby lymph nodes, lungs, bones and liver

Answer 216

dificulty starting urinationhematurianocturia (urination at night)bone pain (s/s of advanced prostate cancer)pain during intercourse/ejaculationweight loss

Answer 217

may occur if prostate is removed because it holds semen

Answer 218

glycoprotein produced by the prostate, it is used as a screening test for prostate cancernormal range should be <2.5, although in older adults it can go up to 6.5african americans have higher normal values of PSAincreased PSA after prostate surgery means the disease has reacurred

Answer 219

serum marker for prostate cancer, it can detect changes in the prostate gland early and its a very sensitive test. it may also eliminate the need to perform a biopsy of prostate tissue

Answer 220

inserts a small probe in rectum and obtains a view of prostate, if cancer is suspected a biopsy is done

Answer 221

have elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels

Answer 222

if obstruction occurs, turp is done

Answer 223

removal of both testes, palliative surgery to slow the spread of cancer by removing the main source of testosterone.

Answer 224

pts who quality for LRP need to have a PSA less than 10 and have had no abdominal surgery previouslyand no previous homrone therapy

Answer 225

surgeon removes entire prostate gland -the pt may expreience erectile dysfunction after the surgery and can be reversible but if not can take viagra

Answer 226

with ipen radical prostatectomy, urinary sphinxters lie next to the prostate gland so they are often damaged during surgery, -teach pt kegal excercises such as tightening the perineal muscles for 3-5 sec like voiding then releaseing, brearing down like BM them realeasing.

Answer 227

intensity modulated radiation therapy- provides very hight dose to the prostate-can be used to relieve pain from bone metastasis -may cause ED after treamtnet is compleated-acute radiation cystitis-may occurs causing persistant pain and hematuria. avoid cafeine, drink plenty of fluids

Answer 228

rectal mucosa inflamation may develop from radiation, hematuria and cramping may occur limit spicy foods, caffeine, and dairy

Answer 229

low dose radiation seeds directly at prosatate gland.

Answer 230

because mose prostate tumors are hormone dependant, pts with tumors may be managed with androgen depravation,-Lutenizing hormone releasing hormone LH-RH and anti androgens are used.

Answer 231

AKA androgen deprivation therapy blocks the bodys ability to use the available androgens-used to treat metastatic diseases/s- hot flasesh, low libido, gynocomastia

Answer 232

dont lift more than 15 lb for up to 6 weeksmaintain upright position, dont bend or flexno vigorous exercise dont strain to deficate, give stool softneser if taking opioids to avioid constipationshower not tub baths

Answer 233

"Surgery is the most common intervention to cure the disease." CorrectCorrect: Because some localized prostate cancers are resistant to radiation, surgery is the most common intervention for a cure.

Answer 234

A painless lump or swelling in the testicles is the most common manifestation of testicular cancer

Answer 235

antispasmodic drugs can be administered to decrease the bladder spasms that may occur after TURP.

Answer 236

The surgeon may apply traction on the catheter for a few hours to control the venous bleeding. Traction on the catheter is uncomfortable and increases the risk for bladder spasms. Analgesics or antispasmodics are usually prescribed.

Answer 237

Serona relens (Saw palmetto extract) (a natural herb) is often used by men with early to moderate BPH. They believe that this agent relieves their symptoms and prefer this treatment over prescription drugs or surgery. It should be noted that studies on its effectiveness of this herb have not shown that it is effective.

Answer 238

This client has symptoms of priapism, which is considered a urologic emergency because the circulation to the penis may be compromised and the client may not be able to void with an erect penis.

Answer 239

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is an enlarged prostate gland camera.gif. The prostate gland surrounds the urethra, the tube that carries urine from the bladder out of the body. As the prostate gets bigger, it may squeeze or partly block the urethra. This often causes problems with urinating.

Answer 240

tumor cells enter the bone marrow and reduce the production of healthy WBC which is needed for normal immune function, -when tumor invades bone marrow it also causes anemia by decreasing RBC

Answer 241

high in proteins and carms to maintain weight- tumorts in abdomen may reduce ability to absorb nutrients and elimiate waste

Answer 242

pain, fractures, spinal cord compression, hyprecalcemia

Answer 243

radiation at only localised part of tumor, hair loss ONLY at the area being treated not alopecia

Answer 244

ether die or are unable to divide

Answer 245

mostly used for radiation therapy bcuz of their ability to deeply penetrate tissues

Answer 246

weaker and must be placed very close

Answer 247

not used for cancer, very weak

Answer 248

teletherapybrachytherapy

Answer 249

radiation delivered from a source outside the pt, bcuz source is external pt is not radioactive to others

Answer 250

short or close therapy, pt is radioactive and hazerdous to others.

Answer 251

fatigue and alterations in tastedry skin and break down -skin exposure risks up to 1 yr after radiation therapy

Answer 252

treamtnet of cancer with chemical agents

Answer 253

make two DNA strands bing tightly which inhibits cell division

Answer 254

are fake metabolites that cannot function as proper metabolites, cells pick them up but their presence impairs cell division

Answer 255

interfere with action of microtubules that interefere with cell disivison

Answer 256

damage the cells DNA and inhibit DNA snythesis

Answer 257

delivers drugs into spinal canal

Answer 258

delivers drugs into ventricels of brain

Answer 259

delivers drugs within peritoneal cavity

Answer 260

for doses localy, used mostly for bone cancers

Answer 261

such as <0.5mL can be resolved

Answer 262

hemoragic cystitis, cardiact muscle damage, losss of bone density, anemia, neutropenia (low WBC leading to infectiion) alopecia, mucositis , thrombocytopenia (bleeding)

Answer 263

hypoxia, fatigue, high tendency to bleed

Answer 264

increase RBC in anemic cancer ptss/e of these drugs include hypertension, blood clots, stroke, heart attack

Answer 265

Adult males: 42% to 54%Adult women: 38% to 46%

Answer 266

during or few hours after chemo reduces exposure of hair folicles to chemo resulting in less hair loss

Answer 267

loss of sensory and motor function of peripheral nerves -loss of sensation of hands and feet, neuropathic pain, orthostatic hypotension, taste discremination, constipation

Answer 268

chest or facial hair may deveop in women, menstuations stop, FLUID retention, HYPERCALCEMIA, liver dysfunction, men become womanly with breasts, breast tenderness, testicular and penile atrophy, for men face and skin gets smoother

Answer 269

laser light to destroy cancer cells-pt has sensitivity to light up to 12 weeks after radiation- drink water to avoid DEHYDRATION-SEVERE PHOTOSENSITIVITY

Answer 270

modify the pts bilogic response to tumor cells. the BRMs used as cancer therapy are cytokines which wre small protein hormones made by WBC. -some cytokines enhance immune function which plats an important role in cancer prevention

Answer 271

BRMa group of 37 known substances the body makes to help regulate inflammation. -chanrge up the immune system and attack the cancer cellss/e severe inflamation, fluid SHIFT with widespread EDEMA, fever, chillds, flu like,

Answer 272

slow tumor cell divisionstimulate NK cellsmake cancer cells normals/e- peripheral neuropathyskin itching, dryness

Answer 273

taf IS NEEDED TO BRING BLOOD SUPPLY TO THE TUMOR. when it is reduced cancer cells die

Answer 274

protect healthy cells from extravasation

Answer 275

theres clotting and bleeding at the same time. -clots block blood flow to organs, dyspnea, tachycardia, bowel necrosisWATCH FOR SEPSIS AND ANTI INFECTIONwhen sepsis is present antibiotic therapy is initiated

Answer 276

fluid overload because there is an increase in water retention , diluting the sodium levels HYPONATREMIA-muslce cramps, loss of appetitie, fatige -most comonly found in carcinoma of the lung (fluid restriction and give sodium) -DECLOMYCIN opposed ADH

Answer 277

when tumor directly enteers the spinal cord -causes back pain, leg or arm numbness, tingling in hands or feet, inablility to distingluish hot or cold, -treatment is often high dose of corticosteroids to reduce swelling around spinal cord to relieve symptoms

Answer 278

occurs often in bone metastasis, calcium from bones travels in the body-fatigue, loss of appetitie, n/v, increased urine, constipation,-paralytic ileus, dehydration, deep tendon reflexes-high change of fracture or bone pain-oral hydration to water down the high calcium

Answer 279

when SVC is compressed by tumor -s/s blockage of venous return from head, neck and upper trunk-when pt raises from nights sleep and tehre edema to face, around the eyes, tightness around shirt and colar-engorged blood vessles and erythema in upper body

Answer 280

when tumor rapidly destroyed theres an increase in waste products and potassium and urea in the blood, urea may cause kindey damage

Answer 281

bloodborne or lymphatic

Answer 282

arise from blood cell-forming tissues (ie. Lymphomas and leukemias)

Answer 283

develop from specific tissues (ie. Breast, lung)

Answer 284

classifies cellular aspects of the cancer. Describes how aggressive a tumor is based on cellular characteristics.is a measure of the cell appearance in tumors and other neoplasms.

Answer 285

classifies the exact location of the cancer and its degree of metastasis at diagnosis(degree of which cancer has spread) TNM (tumor, node,metastasis)

Answer 286

is the number of sets of chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell. Normally a gamete (sperm or egg) carries a full set of chromosomes that includes a single copy of each chromosome, as aneuploidy generally leads to severe genetic disease in the offspring.-calssifies tumor cells as normal of abnormal

Answer 287

the amount of time it takes for the tumor to double in size

Answer 288

the percentage of dividing cells in the tumor , show haw fast tumor is growing

Answer 289

immuneage genetic

Answer 290

exposure to hcemical such as tabacco, alchohol

Answer 291

DNA danage from physical changes such as with radiation

Answer 292

secondary - screeiningtertiary- delaing after crisis

Answer 293

taste changefatiguexerostomeia- dry mouth do not remove marking

Answer 294

Bone marrow suppression causes anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia

Answer 295

150,000 - 400,000

Answer 296

Male: 13.8 - 17.2 g/dLFemale: 12 - 15.6 g/dL43 - 212 mg/dL

Answer 297

Male: 41 - 50 %Female: 35 - 46%

Answer 298

Symptoms of neutropenia include low neutrophil count, fever, and signs and symptoms of infection; the student should be corrected.

Answer 299

one is arousable only with vigorous or painful stimulation

Answer 300

ask Bday, school atended

Answer 301

give pt two or three unrelated words and ask him to repeat

Answer 302

recent memory of hospital stay, diagnoses etc

Answer 303

give a series of numbers

Answer 304

done for pts with problems affecting the spinal cord, pain and light touch are the most commonly assesed.

Answer 305

pt closes eyes and nurse touches pt with a finger and asks the pt to point to the area touched

Answer 306

position sense

Answer 307

ask pt to close eyes and hold arms perpendicular to the body with palms up for 15-30 sec . if there is a cereblar injury the arms with the weak side will start to turp called pronator drift.

Answer 308

abnormal for anyone older than 2yrs old. and represents presence of a CNS disease. -abnormal relfex, can also occur with drug and alchohol intoxication, after a seizure or in MS or liver disease

Answer 309

hyperactive relfexes

Answer 310

hypoactive reflexes

Answer 311

sudden brief jerking muslce spasm seen is seizures

Answer 312

good 15 bad 3 tests eye opening, motor responses, verbal resonse.

Answer 313

abnormal posturing seen in pts with lesions that interrupt the spinal pathway arms internal rotation (like holdning a teddy bear)feet plantar flextion

Answer 314

abnormal posturing with pronation of arms and plantation flextion of legs seen in brainstem dysfunction

Answer 315

to detect blocages in the arteries or beins in the brain and head and neck . with contrast medium

Answer 316

scross sectional slices of pictures that give a 3D of brain and spinal cord. for bone, soft tissue, tumors, CT angiography- with dye to visualuze blocages or narrowing vessles.

Answer 317

evaluates blood flow to brain and tissues

Answer 318

produces images that are better than a CT scan. to determine abnormal anatomy MRI angiography- with IV dye to visualize anurisms, blocages, not for ppl with tattos with lead

Answer 319

provides info on the function of the brain (glucose, oxygenation and blood flow)

Answer 320

to identify nerve and muscle disorderes and spinal cord disease

Answer 321

for electrical activity of brain, with electrodes

Answer 322

inserting a needle into the spine to obtain CSF, for check for blocages or inject stuffpt stays in a fetal side lying positon

Answer 323

progressive neurodegenerative disease with RIGIDIDTY, BRADYKENISIA(slow movement) or AKENISIA (no movement)ACh transmits exitatory messages in basal ganglia, DOPAMINE inhibits messages in basal ganglia. -degeneration of substantia nigra leads to decrease in dopamine which controls voluntary movement. -also reduces sympathetic nervous system on the heart and blood vessles which results in orthostatic hypotension usually seen in PD.

Answer 324

cogwheel- interuptions in muslce movementplastic- mild restrictive movementlead pipe- total restriction to movement

Answer 325

masklike facies- eyes staring, dificulty chewing, slurred words, hesitancy speaking, slow motility causes difficulty urinating, CSF fluid may show decarese in dopamine leves, MRI shows degeneration of substantia nagra

Answer 326

pill rolling motion, rigidity, mask like face, no expresions, slurred speach, balance problems, freezing movements, tremors, shuffleling gaits. -as pts writes they writing gets progressively smaller, to diagnose parkinsons

Answer 327

exercise- releases dopamineactive ROMantioxidants- slow progression of turning off dopamine

Answer 328

AUTOIMMUNE DISEASE that attacts the mylein sheath and conduction pathway of CNS-inflammaation and patchy ares of plaque in white matter of the CNS, mylein sheath is demylenated. -CT scan shows plaque-Spinal tap shows immunoglobulins in CSF, body is making a immune response -doesnt get progressively worse, but it has remissions and exacerbationswoman 2X more than man, usually in young ppl

Answer 329

inflammatory response that blocks transmission of impulses between brain and spinal cord

Answer 330

diplopia (double vision)scotomas (changes in perpheral vision)nystagmus(inflountary eye movements)lose balancefelxor spasms may awaken pt from sleep fatigue, stifness+ BABINSKYnumbness tinglingchronic fatigue- watch for sexual dysfunction

Answer 331

autoimmune, mylein sheath

Answer 332

progressive, substantia nigra, low dopamine

Answer 333

loss of lower motor neurons found in spinal cord and brain stem

Answer 334

autoimmue, body attacts autoimmuneACh receptors-ACh muscle waekness

Answer 335

adult onset of upper and lower motor neuron disease, PROGRESSIVE WEAKNESS & MUSCLE WASTING

Answer 336

adult onset of upper and lower motor neuron disease, PROGRESSIVE WEAKNESS & MUSCLE WASTING, prgressive wakness and muslce wasting, death within 3 yrs of disease more common in men -neuron stiffness-paralysis,sensory intact- can feel pain, but cant move

Answer 337

Dysphagiadysarthia (slurred speach)droolingmuscle wasting-respiratory compromise, cant swallow, pt requires respiratory support faciculation(facial twiching)

Answer 338

autoimmue, body attacts autoimmuneACh receptors-low ACh causes muscle waeknessleads to respiratory failure, has remissions and exacerbations, -overgrowth of thymus may occur with MS- excessive thyroid hormone happens in most cases

Answer 339

muscle weakness, droopy eyes, ASPIRATION PRECAUTIONS- watch nutritional intake

Answer 340

test the AChR antibodiestest bcuz pt may also have thymoma

Answer 341

tensilon inhibits the breakdown of ACh. this is used to determine weather weakness is due to myesthenia or cholenergic crisis. -may cause ventricular fibiritations or cardiact arrest. can give atropine sulfate if this occurs. -In many patients with myasthenia gravis, the muscles will improve right after the Tensilon. -When there is an overdose of anticholinesterase (cholinergic crisis), Tensilon will make the person even weaker.

Answer 342

where urine is formed

Answer 343

blood pressure and blood flow. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is a test used to check how well the kidneys are working. Specifically, it estimates how much blood passes through the glomeruli each minute. Glomeruli are the tiny filters in the kidneys that filter waste from the blood.`

Answer 344

ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY BECAUSE THEY ARE TOXIC TO THE KIDNEYS

Answer 345

can cause kidney toxticity

Answer 346

buildup of nutrogenous waste products in the blood as a result of kidney failure. s/e include n/v. muslce cramps, and pruritus itching

Answer 347

swishing sound that may indicate narrowing of vessles

Answer 348

produced when protein or muslce breaks down, levels slightly higher in men bcuz they have more muslce mass-creatine level doesnt increase until 50% of kidney function is lost, so if this happens it may require immediate intervention

Answer 349

tells if nitrogen products are being sectreated which is a byroduct of protein breakdown

Answer 350

increase in gravity shows dehydration or presence of ADH, a decrease in gravity shows increased fluid in body

Answer 351

shows 3d IMAGES OF URETERS, BLADDER AND TISSUES

Answer 352

for blood flow to the kidneys

Answer 353

blood flow to vessles

Answer 354

Operative procedure for diagnoses after a trauma, or for toumors

Answer 355

instils dye into lower urinary tracts, dye doesnt cause kidney problems because it doesnt go into systemic circulation,identifies obstructions The flow of contrast (up from the bladder to the kidney) is opposite the usual flow of urine, hence the retrograde name.

Answer 356

trauma obstruction low blood volumeshock50% loss of nephrons

Answer 357

usually caused by hypertension and diabetes90% of nephrons must b destroied for this to be obvious

Answer 358

prerenal azotemia- caused by poor blood flow to kidneys, causes hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, fatugueintrarenal AKI- caused by tumors, infections, antibiotics, NSAIDS, imflamation (hypertensions) SOBpostrenal azotemia- from OBSTRUCTION (anuria,

Answer 359

oliguric phase- pt does not urinate, retains fluid which causes increased electrolytes in tehe body, watch for hyperkalemia, low sodium, low Ca, -PUSH FLUIDSdiuretic phase- pt urinates and causes decreased electrolyes, watch for hypokalemia

Answer 360

protein breakdown

Answer 361

low protein high carb high cal

Answer 362

azotemia- buildup of nitrogen in blooduremia-metalic taste in mouthuremic syndrome-elevates BP acusing fluid and sodium overload -FLUID OVERLOAD, pulmonary edema, low CO,

Answer 363

a pale frostlike deposit of white crystals on the skin caused by kidney failure and uremia. Urea compounds and other waste products of metabolism that cannot be excreted by the kidneys into the urine are excreted through the small superficial capillaries into the skin, where they collect on the surface.

Answer 364

storafe protection metabolismdetoxifies-secretes bile in breakdown of fat-makes clotting factors AST and ALT

Answer 365

stores bile

Answer 366

digestion absorbtion

Answer 367

movement elimination

Answer 368

pancreatitis

Answer 369

xray od large intestinestools chalky white for 1-3 days

Answer 370

xray of bilary duct

Answer 371

to show bleeding or ulcerations

Answer 372

visual of esophagus stomach and duodenum -prevent aspiration

Answer 373

examines liver, gallblader panceras and bile ducts to show any obstructions

Answer 374

for large bowel

Answer 375

causes diareah, constipation, bloading and pain. effects women moreWATCH FOR NURTITION BECASUE OF MALABSORBTION-if there is bacteria give probiotics-AVIOD caffeine, alchohol, eggs, dairy, milk, wheat, give- calcium supplements and lactose fee foods. and FIBER INCREASE

Answer 376

inflamation of intestine or colon, causes thickening of bowel wall and puts pts at risk of developing fistulas.A fistula is an abnormal connection between an organ, vessel, or intestine and another structure. -SEVERE MALABSORBTION-tobacco users and jewish ppl

Answer 377

unintentional weight loss, guarding, rigidity, high pitched rushing sounds in narrowed bowel, pain, electrolyte imbalance, anemia from bleedingGIVE FOOD SUPPLEMENTS OR TPN to meet caloric intake needs 3000calories a day -xray shows narrowing, avoid milk, gluttem cafeine

Answer 378

irreversible scaring of liver leading to necrosis -nodues that are formed block the blood flow throught liver

Answer 379

postnectotic cirrhosis- caused by viral hepatitisleannes cirohsis- alchoholbilary cirosis- bilary obstruction

Answer 380

blood flow backs up into the sleen and enlarges it, portal hypertensions occus causing ascites

Answer 381

fatigue, gi symptoms n.v, liver tenderness. abdominal pain, itching, jaundice,

Answer 382

blumberg's sign is a sign that is elicited during physical examination in medicine. It is indicative of peritonitis.The abdominal wall is compressed slowly and then rapidly released. A positive sign is indicated by presence of pain upon removal of pressure on the abdominal wall. It is very similar to rebound tenderness and might be regarded by some authors as the same thing, or at least a particular application of it.The name comes from German surgeon Jacob Moritz Blumberg.[1][2]Positive Blumberg sign or rebound tenderness is indicative of peritonitis. This method is specially useful in diagnosing appendicitis requiring urgent management.[3]

Answer 383

The frontal lobes are considered our emotional control center and home to our personality. The frontal lobes are involved in motor function, problem solving, spontaneity, memory, language, initiation, judgement, impulse control, and social and sexual behavior Damage to the frontal lobe can cause increased irritability, which may include a change in mood and an inability to regulate behavior.[1] Particularly, an injury of the frontal lobe could lead to deficits in executive function, such as anticipation, goal selection, planning, initiation, sequencing, monitoring

Answer 384

The temporal lobes are involved in the retention of visual memories, processing sensory input, comprehending language, storing new memories, emotion, and deriving meaning.[4]:21

Answer 385

causes itching and jaundice in cihrossis

Answer 386

bone forming cells

Answer 387

bone destroying cells

Answer 388

Hypercalcemia

Answer 389

hypocalcemia

Answer 390

Hyperphosphatemi

Answer 391

Hypophosphatemia

Answer 392

tube inserted in the joint for direct visulation

Answer 393

Autoimmune disease where bodys immune system attacks its own tissues and oegans causing inflammation. chronic, progressive, inflammatory, connective tissue disorder, can cause major body organs to fail . remissions and exacerbations may cause kidney problems which is leading cause of death for this w>m 20-40 yrs old

Answer 394

Butterfly rash—dry, red, scaly, raised rash on face; may increase in flare and disappear with remissioon Polyarthritis—small joints and knees osteonecrosis—hip most common; may result from chronic steroid therapy Muscle atrophy—from skeletal muscle invasion or from chronic steroid; myalgias- muscle pain Fever and fatigue—because of being inflammatory condition; fever sign of flare

Answer 395

Renal—assess for urine output, hematuria, fluid retention Lung—found in almost 50% of all SLE cases Pericarditis—tachycardia, chest pain, myocardial ischemia; monitor VS q 4 Reynaud’s—exposure to cold, stress due to arteriolar vasospasm; severe pain Neuro—psychoses, seizures, migraine headaches Serositis—peritoneal involvement; abdominal pain chronic fatigue,

Answer 396

systematic lupus, give topical cortizone drugs to reduce inflammation, Plaquenil—decreases absorption of UV light and decreases risk for skin lesions; eye exams needed because of risk of retinal damage Tylenol and NSAIDs for arthralgias and myalgias Steroids—used to treat systemic disease process Immunosuppressives—renal or CNS involvement non-pharmacologic- mild soal, avoid parfume, use lotion, avoid drying sustances, monitor temps because rise in temp can mean flare up

Answer 397

chronic, inflammatory, autoimmune, connective tissue damage, not always progressive Scleroderma—means hardening of the skin but is only one clinical manifestation Inflamed tissue becomes fibrotic then sclerotic. Renal involvement is leading cause of death. Higher mortality rate than SLE. , Thickening of skin by buildup pf collagen

Answer 398

``` Calcinosis—calcium deposits Raynaud’s—1st symptom that occurs Esophageal dysmotility—dysphagia, reflux Sclerodactyly—scleroderma of digits Telangectasia—spider-like hemangiomas ```

Answer 399

joints—pain but no inflammation Skin--pitting edema in hands and fingers, skin taut and shiny GI—dysphagia, reflux, malabsorption Renal—organ failure CV—Raynaud’s, digit necrosis, pain, autoamputation of digits, myocardial fibrosis Lung—pulmonary HTN, fibrosis Labs—similar to SLE

Answer 400

Steroids and immunosuppressants used but not as effective as in SLE NSAIDs for arthralgias and myalgias Treat early organ involvement Skin—mild soap and lotions, treat ulcers Comfort—room temp, gloves/socks for warmth, no smoking GI—swallowing study, small frequent meals Mobility—pain mgmt, safety

Answer 401

urea crystals build up in the jounts and cause sharp pain and inflammation,

Answer 402

uric acid that is being produced is larger than the amout that is excreated so it builds up in the body. Asymptomatic—unaware unless uric acid drawn; no signs of disease; no treatment Acute—starts with 1st attack of one or more small joints, usually MTP of the great toe; months or years may pass between attacks Chronic—deposits of urate crystals develop under skin and within major organs (renal); kidney stones common

Answer 403

CKD, diuretics, diets, chemotherapy, CVD

Answer 404

acute gout- elevated uric acid, crystals in synovial fluid and inflammation chronic gout- tophi- urate crystals in the ears, armas, fingers

Answer 405

Colchicine and indocin for acute gout Allopurinol and uloric for chronic gout—promote uric acid excretion ASA and diuretics can cause attack Alkaline—fruit juices, milk Low purine—avoid organ meats, shellfish, oily fish with bones, give plenty of lfuids

Answer 406

caused by borrelia, caused by infected deear tick bite Systemic infectious disease Stage I: bull’s eye rash, pain and stiffness in muscles and joints, symptoms occur 3-30 days after tick bite; oral abx Stage II: 2-12 weeks after tick bite; IV abx for at least 30 days Stage III: chronic complications Prevention: avoid woods; use insect repellent; wear long sleeves and long pants; wear hat; bathe immediately; report rash or flu-like sx immediately and take antibiotics bulls eye rash

Answer 407

skin condition chracterized by scaly itchy rash of knees, elbows and scalp. joint stiff especially in morning, effects 30% of people of people with psoriasis, neck and back pain Thick scaly parts in skin

Answer 408

managing joint pain, controlling skin leasion, slowing disease progression

Answer 409

not an inflammatory dieasea, and it is a chronic pain syndrome. pain stiffness and tenderness at neck, upper chest, trunk, low back and extremities burning pain ``` GI—abd pain, diarrhea, constipation GU—dysuria, urinary frequency CV—dyspnea, chest pain Neuro—forgetfulness, concentration Vision—dry eyes, blurred vision ```

Answer 410

Drugs work to increase seratonin and norepinephrine Limit caffeine, alcohol because they inhibit deep sleep give lyrica and symbalata and antidepressents - increase serotonin and norepinephrine in fibromyalgia they believe serotnin is low and substance P (pain) is high

Answer 411

``` severe fatigue for 6m ofr longer, usually following flu like symptoms 4 criteria must be met: sore throut impaired concentration myalgia multiple joint pain w/ redness or pain headach and unrefreshing sleep ```

Answer 412

Dermatophyte infection of the nails resulting in onycholysis(painless separation of nail from bed) Fungal infections – when impaired skin in a susceptible host, most spread by direct contact with others, also objects (combs) Tinea – used to describe dematophytoses, followed by location; tinea pedis – athlete’s foot; tinea manus – hands; tinea cruris – groin (jock itch); tinea capitis – head; tinea corporis – body (ringworm)

Answer 413

These annular lesions are on the thigh.

Answer 414

Tinea capitis, localized patch.

Answer 415

Candida albicans fungal infection of the mouth (thrush). Candida albicans – yeast infection; superficial skin infection and mucous membranes; high risk with immunosuppression, long-term antibiotic therapy, DM and obesity; s/s moist, red, irritated appearance, with itching and burning; perineum, vagina, axillae, under breasts and mouth (thrush); keep areas clean and dry Promote – good personal hygiene

Answer 416

Head louse infestation (pediculosis capitis). This close-up picture shows a single louse clearly enough to count its six legs, and a number of egg capsules (nits) attached to the hairs. Parasitic infections Pediculosis – infestation of human lice; Pediculosis capitis (head lice); Pediculosis corporis (body lice); Pediculosis pubis (pubic or crab lice); female louse lay hundreds of eggs (nits) and deposit in base of hair shafts Common s/s – itching, excoriation from scratching, also secondary infection and carriers of other diseases (ex. typhus, recurrent fever) Tx – chemical killing with Elimite, Kwell; also clothing, bed linens should be washed in hot water with detergent

Answer 417

contagious skin disease with mite infestation, transmitted by close and prolonged contact with infested person/bedding; s/s curved or linear ridges in the skin (due to burrowing of organism under skin) with intense itching at night; examine skin between fingers and palms and inner aspects of wrists (common areas); hypersensitive reactions to mites (excoriated papules, pustules and crusted lesions may be noted on elbows, nipples, lower abdomen, buttocks, thighs, axillary folds, penis) Dx – by scraping lesion and examining under microscope for mites and eggs Tx – Kwell, Acticin, etc ; launder clothes and items with hot water and detergent

Answer 418

Bedbugs – cimex lectularius – increasingly common due to global traveling and resistance to pesticides; do not live on humans but feeds on human blood for survival; do not carry disease; itchy discomfort; ‘hitch-hiking’ from infested hotel to home – telltale signs are presence of blood spots on bed linen or clothing from feeding; and bugs often found hiding around mattress Tx – topical antihistamine; launder clothes and items, clean furniture, heat can kill insects and eggs

Answer 419

5 virus causing – after exposure to causative agent – liver enlarged and congested with inflammatory cells, WBCs and fluid – resulting in right upper quad pain and discomfort – also inflammation and necrosis increase pressure within the portal circulation, interfering with blood flow and obstruction of bile channels (edema) lead to jaundice Hep A –spread via fecal-oral route, contaminated water, food, person-person contact; incubation period of 15 to 50 days; non-life threatening, mild course (flu-like symptoms); but may be severe with older than 40 y o pts and also with other existing liver disease – may even require liver transplant and death may occur Hep B – spread via blood ( sex, needle sharing, mother-fetus, etc.); s/s occur within 25 to 180 days of exposure – anorexia, N/V, fever, fatigue, right upper quad pain, dark urine and light stool, joint pain, jaundice; most recover and develop immunity but some become carriers (not sick themselves but infect others; have high-risk for liver cancer and cirrhosis later on) Hep C - spread via blood, average incubation 7 weeks, most unaware of infection until abnormality detected; unlike Hep B, most do not recover and chronic infection develops; over years, liver cells scar leading to cirrhosis (Hep C induced cirrhosis is leading cause for liver transplantation in the US – often re-infected with Hep C after transplant); alcohol use increase progression and severity of cirrhosis Hep D – Occurs only with Hep B (requires helper function of HBV); incubation is 14 to 56 days; transmitted by parenteral routes (IV drug, sexual contact, etc) Hep E – similar to Hep A, fecal-oral route with incubation of 15 to 64 days, self-limiting and resolves on own

Answer 420

Assess – abd pain, diarrhea/constipation, changes in color of urine or stool, skin or sclera, fever, lethargy, malaise, N/V, itching; palpate for liver tenderness, right upper quad pain, jaundice, clay-colored stool, dark urine (edema of bile channels causing intrahepatic obstruction) Lab – Hep A, B, and C confirmed by liver enzyme elevations; and all Hep are found by its own specific antigen-antibodies are present (anti-HAV, anti-HEV, etc.) During acute phase, tx – to rest inflamed liver to promote hepatic cell regeneration (rest to decrease metabolic demands and increase blood supply); diet – high carb and calories with mod amount of fat and protein after nausea and anorexia subside; small, freq meals, high-calorie snacks and supplemental vitamins often given; drugs given sparingly to rest liver, antiemetic for nausea; drugs (interferon – first line drug therapy for pt without cirrhosis; Baraclude – first line for those with cirrhosis but no co-infections; Hepsera – second line) most of these drugs cause muscle weakness Health promotion – handwashing, avoid contaminated water/food, receive immunoglobulin within 14 days after exposure, vaccine before traveling, `

Answer 421

Fulminant hepatitis – severe acute and fatal form; failure of liver cells to regenerate, progress to necrosis Chronic hepatitis – when liver inflammation last longer than 6 months, as result of Hep B or C infection or Hep D with Hep B superimposed infection; lead to liver cancer and cirrhosis; many with multiple infection, Hep B, C, D or HIV.

Answer 422

: In the United States and worldwide, the incidence of liver cancer is increasing because there is an increase in cases of hepatitis C (HCV). Liver cancer tumors are most often seen in regions of Asia and the Mediterranean area. Worldwide the disease kills about 1 million people each year, and affects Vietnamese men more than any other group. Black and Hispanic populations have twice the rate of the disease as Euro-Americans, and older adults are affected more than other age-groups

Answer 423

Human immune deficiency virus – a parasite to enter and make copies of virus in new host cells; HIV virus has 2 enzymes (reverse transcriptase and integrase) to transfer its genetic material upon entering human cells; CD4 T cell (=helper/inducer T cells or also T4 cells) becomes ‘HIV factory’ – as HIV advances, number of HIV particles produced overwhelm the immune system with gradual CD4 T cell counts decrease with increase in viral load – and pts die of opportunistic infections or cancer

Answer 424

50-90% first infected with HIV develop acute infection within 4 weeks – fever, night sweats, chills, HA, muscle aches – over time CD 4 T cells drop below normal and those remaining do not function normally; poor CD4 T cell functions leads to immune abnormalities – lymphocytopenia (decreased # of lymphocytes), increased production of incomplete and nonfunctional antibodies; and abnormal functioning macrophages 500-1500 normal, under 200 AIDS

Answer 425

education best prevention | perinatal, perental, and sexual transmition

Answer 426

PCP, pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia – assess for DOE, tachpnea, dry cough, persistent and low grade fever, fatigue, weight loss Toxoplasmosis encephalitis –assess change in mental status, neuro deficits, HA, fever, seizures, lethargy, confusion Cryptosporidiosis – intestinal infection, range from mild diarrhea to severe wasting Fungal infections – overgrowth of normal flora; candida stomatitis or esophagitis – freq s/s of AIDS (mouth and back of throat – cottage cheese-like, yellowish white plaques and inflammation seen; esophagitis via endoscopic biopsy and culture); women have vaginal candidiasis with severe itching, perianal irritation, thick white vaginal discharge Cryptococcosis – meningitis with s/s fever, HA, blurred vision, N/V, nuchal rigidity (stiffness of neck), confusion, mental status changes, seizures Histoplasmosis – begin with resp infection and widespread – s/s dyspnea, fever, cough, weight loss, enlargement of lymph nodes, spleen or liver Bacterial infections – Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) most common, infect resp or GI tract and become systemic infection s/s fever, debility, weight loss, malaise, swollen lymph glands or organ Tuberculosis, TB –s/s cough, chest pain, chill, dyspnea, night sweats, anorexia Viral infection – cytomegalovirus (CMV) may infect eye, respiratory, GI and central nervous system – CMV can cause encephalitis, pneumonitis, adrenalitis, hepatitis, and disseminated infection; herpes simplex virus (HSV) in perrectal, oral and genital areas; varicella-zoster virus (VZV) – shingles, previous chicken pox present in nerve ganglia Cancer – kaposi’s sarcoma (most common, highest risk when have co-infection with human herpes virus-8; small purplish brown, raised lesions on skin or mucous membranes); Hodgkin’s lymphoma, non-Hodgkin’s, etc. Endocrine complications – gonadal dysfunction (men-low testosterone; women – irregular menses), adrenal insufficiency, DM, elevated triglycerides/cholesterol, body shape changes (fat redistribution =lipodystrophy - occur with antiretroviral therapies s/s buffalo humps or cervical neck fat, and large abd fat accumulation; other body areas, face, arm, legs have wasted appearance and how prominent vein patterns due to loss of SQ fat.)

Answer 427

AIDS dementia complex (ADC) – occur in 70% of pts, infection of cells within CNS – cognitive, motor and behavioral impairments and changes AIDS wasting syndrome Skin changes – folliculitis, eczema, psoriasis

Answer 428

Lymphocytes counts – low with WBC less than 3500 cells cubic mm (=leukopenic); less than 1500 lymphocytes/cubic mm (=lymphopenic) Normal ratio of CD4 to CD8 T cells is 2:1 – in AIDS and HIV, low ratio Normal CD4 T cells (500 to 1500) – may have fewer than 100 CD4 T cells while CD8 T cells are normal. Antibody test for HIV measured by ELISA and Western blot Analysis (used to confirm when ELISA is +) Viral load testing – such as quantitative RNA assays measure presence of HIV RNA genetic material in blood elisa-tests for HIV antibodies, person can have low antibody if they get tested too soon, -western blot- detects serum HIV antibodies

Answer 429

when cd4 count drown to 200 or below you have aids if you have aids you have HIV but if you have HIV u dont necessaritly have aids

Answer 430

When a person is infected with HIV, the first manifestations are fever, night sweats, chills, headache, and muscle aches. As time passes, CD4+ T-cells are infected and taken out of service. This cell count drops to below-normal levels, and those that remain may not function normally. Lymphocytopenia (decreased lymphocyte counts) occurs as a result. Also, as the CD4+ T-cell level drops, the patient is at risk for bacterial, fungal, and viral infections, as well as some opportunistic cancers.

Answer 431

to protect by neutralizing, eliminating or destroying organisms invading internal env’t; actions only against non-self proteins and cells (infected body cells, cancer cells, etc.) recognizing self vs. non-self is called self-tolerance; unique proteins, human leukocyte antigens, HLA, found on surface of most cell – cellular fingerprint for that person; other people’s HLA are recognized as foreign

Answer 432

protect body from effects of organisms

Answer 433

Inflammation – immediate protection against tissue injury and invaders; part of innate immunity which include skin, mucosa, antimicrobial chemicals on skin, complement and natural killer cells; inflammation can occur without infection Cell types involved in inflammation – neutrophils and macrophages (both use phagocytosis to destroy and eliminate invaders), eosinophils and basophils (both release chemicals to cause tissue-level responses to help neutrophils and macrophages)

Answer 434

Purpose of inflammation and immunity – to protect by neutralizing, eliminating or destroying organisms invading internal env’t; actions only against non-self proteins and cells (infected body cells, cancer cells, etc.) recognizing self vs. non-self is called self-tolerance; unique proteins, human leukocyte antigens, HLA, found on surface of most cell – cellular fingerprint for that person; other people’s HLA are recognized as foreign

Answer 435

Neutrophils – make up btwn 55-70% of WBC, also called granulocytes; mature neutrophils are called segmented neutrophils or polymorphonuclear cells; less mature are called band neutrophils; in healthy person, more than 100 billion fresh, mature neutrophils are released from bone marrow into circulation daily; large number is needed because life span is short – 12 to 18 hours; each can only take part in one episode of phagocytosis; protect from invaders, esp bacteria with phagocytosis and enzymatic digestion; absolute neutrophil count – number of mature circulating neutrophils (more number greater resistance to infection); bandemia or left shift – sepsis could cause having mostly less mature neutrophils (indicate pt’s bone marrow cannot produce enough mature neutrophils to keep pace with infection – immature neutrophils are unable to do phagocytosis) Macrophages – monocytes mature into macrophages; liver, spleen and intestinal tract contain large number of macrophages; function – important in inflammatory responses and also AMI and CMI; phagocytosis, repair, antigen presenting/processing, and secretion of cytokines to control immune system; have long life span and take part in many phagocytic events Basophils – make up only 1% of WBC; function – release chemicals (“vasoactive amines” – actions on blood vessels), include heparin, histamine, serotonin, kinins and leukotrienes Eosinophils – 1 to 2% of WBC; function – very active against infestations of parasitic larvae and also limit inflammatory reaction; increased during allergic response

Answer 436

``` warmth redness pain swelling decresed function ```

Answer 437

``` Stage I (vascular) – Change in blood vessels: Phase I—constriction Phase II—hyperemia & edema Stage II (cellular exudate) – Neutrophilia, pus Stage III (tissue repair and replacement) – WBCs trigger new blood vessel and growth (angiogenesis) and scar tissue formation ```

Answer 438

adaptive internal protection; not automatic response, but a learned long-lasting specific response; Antibody-mediated immunity (AMI = humoral immunity) – involves antigen-antibody interaction to neutralize, eliminate, or destroy foreign proteins (antibody produced by B-lymphocytes (=B cells) – when it becomes sensitized to that specific protein) – macrophages and T-cells work with B-cells to start and complete antigen-antibody interactions [B-cells – start as stem cells in bone marrow, the primary lymphoid tissue, then migrate to secondary lymphoid tissue such as spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils and mucosa of intestinal tract to mature]

Answer 439

Adaptive immunity - learned immunity active immunity (when antigen enters body and actively make antibodies; 2 types – natural or artificial) Natural occur without human assistance and this type is most effective and longest lasting; artificial occur via vaccines (attenuated organisms) need booster to retain protection; passive immunity (antibodies from another person transferred to a person, provide only immediate, short-term protection; 2 types- natural or artificial) – natural from mother to fetus via placenta, colostrums or milk; artificial injecting person with another person’s antibodies, lasting only days to weeks

Answer 440

Also called cellular immunity Involves many WBC actions and interactions Another type of adaptive/acquired true immunity For total immunocompetence, CMI must function optimally AMI provide most effective long-lasting immunity but only if its actions are combined with cell-mediated immunity CMI, cell-mediated immunity – provided by WBCs (T cells and natural killer cells); 3 T cell subsets – helper/inducer T cells (enhance activity of other WBCs, act as organizers and increase production of maturation of WBCs), suppressor T cells (prevent hypersensitivity or immune overreactions, and preventing antibodies against self cells such as autoimmune diseases; inhibit growth and activation of immune stem cells – opposite of helper T cells) and cytotoxic/cytolytic T cells (Tc-cells, a subset of suppressor T cells, destroy cells that contain HLAs, most effective against parasitic, virus or protozoa infections); natural killer cells (NK) not a true T cell also contribute to CMI with direct cytotoxic effects on non-self cells without being sensitized; destroys cancer cells and virally infected cells.

Answer 441

Helps protect body through ability to differentiate self from non-self Prevents development of cancer and metastasis after exposure to carcinogens

med surg final Flashcards

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