med term Flashcards

1
Q

afebrile

A

without a fever

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

auscultation

A

listening to sounds produced within the body, usually using a stethoscope

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

baseline

A

the normal state of being or starting point

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

combative

A

ready or inclined to fight; aggressively uncooperative

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

constitutional

A

affecting the whole constitution of the body, not local

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

dehydration

A

excessive loss of body water; dry lips and mucosa are some of the signs of dehydration

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

differential diagnosis

A

a disease or condition which the provider thinks could be the cause of a patient’s symptoms; usually ruled-in or ruled-out by testing

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

distress

A

mental or physical suffering or pain

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

febrile

A

increased body temperature, with fever, or caused by fever

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

infarct

A

a localized area of dead tissue resulting from lack of blood supply

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ischemia

A

inadequate blood supply to an organ or part of the body

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

lethargy

A

extreme fatigue or drowsiness

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

malaise

A

general feeling of discomfort or illness

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

morbidly obese

A

extremely overweight; body mass index (BMI) over 40

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

palpable

A

able to be touched or felt; easily perceived

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

sepsis

A

the presence of infectious organisms or toxins in the blood

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

somnolent

A

sleepy or drowsy

constitutional/general

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

benign

A

mild type, or does not threaten health or life

constitutional/general

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cachectic

A

abnormally thin and malnourished, emaciated

constitutional/general

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

hemorrhage

A

profuse bleeding from a ruptured blood vessel

constitutional/general

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

polydipsia

A

abnormal or excessive thirst, can be indicative of diabetes

constitutional/general

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

rhabdomyolysis

A

the breakdown of muscle tissue that leads to the release of muscle fiber contents into the blood; can cause kidney damage

constitutional/general

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

rigors

A

tremors/exaggerated shivering caused by a chill, usually in case of fever

constitutional/general

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

acute

A

new/abrupt onset and duration; the opposite of chronic

symptom timing

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

acute on chronic

A

a sudden exacerbation of chronic symptoms

symptom timing

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

chronic

A

constant or of long duration, opposite of acute

symptom timing

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

episodic

A

symptom that occurs occasionally at irregular intervals

symptom timing

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

gradual onset

A

symptoms that progress slowly from mild to severe symptoms; develop gradually

symptom timing

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

intermittent

A

used to describe symptoms that completely resolved in between returning

symptom timing

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

resolved

A

symptoms are completely gone

symptom timing

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

transient

A

a symptom having a short duration which resolves spontaneously

symptom timing

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

waxing and waning

A

the symptom is always present, never fully resolving but does increase/decrease in severity at times

symptom timing

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

atraumatic

A

not producing injury or damage; important to document for patients who present for injury or pain

head

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Battle’s Sign

A

discoloration/bruising behind the ears, often associated with a basilar skull fracture

head

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

meningitis

A

inflammation/infection of the meninges, the membranes that cover the brain

head

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

raccoon eyes

A

bilateral ecchymosis (bruising) in the periorbital region (around the eyes), suggestive of a basilar skull fracture; also, referred to as periorbital ecchymosis

head

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

sinusitis

A

inflammation/infection of the sinuses, causes sinus pressure

head

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

TMJ disorder

A

can cause pain in your jaw joint and in the muscles that control jaw movement

head

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

anterior fontanel

A

anatomical feature of an infant’s skull, also called a soft spot; the anterior fontanel is a space between the frontal and parietal bones which normally closes within 18-24 months

head

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

normocephalic

A

the head is of normal shape and normal size

head

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

conjunctival injection

A

redness in the white part of the eye; indicates inflammation of the conjunctiva (conjunctivitis)

eyes

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

conjunctival exudate

A

pus-like material in the eyes; usually indicates conjunctivitis

eyes

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

corneal abrasion

A

a scratch to the cornea of the eye; the cornea is the clear, front surface of the eye located directly in front of the colored part of the eye (iris)

eyes

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

diplopia

A

also known as double vision, the simultaneous perception of two images of a single object

eyes

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Fluorescein

A

An orange dye which is applied to the eye to detect corneal abrasions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

PERRL

A

Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light

eyes

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

photophobia

A

extreme sensitivity to light

eyes

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

proparacaine

A

local anesthetic, often applied to the eyes in the form of drops

eyes

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

slit lamp

A

a microscope used during eye exams that can detect any small abnormalities

eyes

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

anisocoria

A

condition characterized by unequal pupil sizes

eyes

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

chalazion

A

a small swelling or lump on your eyelid caused by a blocked gland

eyes

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

EOMI

A

Extraocular Movements Intact; refers to the normal movement of the extraocular muscles, which are the muscles that control eye movement

eyes

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

nystagmus

A

involuntary, rapid movement of the eye balls; can be horizontal or vertical

eyes

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

pale palpebral conjunctiva

A

paleness of the inner lining of the eyelid, indicates anemia

eyes

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

periorbital ecchymosis

A

bruising around the eyes, also called raccoon eyes. a skull fracture

eyes

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

scleral icterus

A

yellowing of the sclera, or white part of the eye, due to jaundice

eyes

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

bleeding in the white part of the eye; occurs when a blood vessel breaks underneath the conjunctiva of the eye

eyes

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

coloboma

A

a hole in one of the structures of the eye

eyes

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

conjugate gaze

A

the paired movements of the eyes as they track moving objects

eyes

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

fundoscopic exam

A

use of the ophthalmoscope to examine the eye

eyes

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

hyphema

A

a collection of blood inside the anterior chamber of the eye, between the cornea and the iris; most often caused by trauma to the eye

eyes

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

palpebral

A

of or relating to the eyelids

eyes

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

papilledema

A

optic disc swelling caused by increased intracranial pressure

eyes

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

ptosis

A

drooping or falling of the upper eyelid

eyes

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

seidel test

A

an eye test used to assess the presence of anterior chamber leakage in the cornea

eyes

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

strabismus

A

abnormal alignment of the eyes, the eyes appear to be looking in different directions; esotropia is when one or more eyes turn inwards and exotropia is where one or more eyes turn outwards

eyes

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

cauliflower ear

A

a deformity of the ear caused by blunt trauma or injury that results in a collection of blood or fluid in the outer ear

ears

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

cerumen

A

earwax

ears

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

cerumen impaction

A

the buildup of cerumen in the ear canal to the point of being unable to visualize the TM

ears

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

ceruminosis

A

copious amount of earwax without obstructing the view of the TM

ears

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

mastoid

A

the process of the temporal bone behind the ear

ears

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

otitis externa

A

infection of the ear canal. Also known as swimmer’s ear as this condition is common among swimmers; treated with antibiotic ear drops

ears

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

otitis media

A

infection of the middle ear; common in children and treated with PO antibiotics

ears

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

pinna

A

the external part of the ear, also called auricle

ears

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

tinnitus

A

ringing or buzzing in the ears

ears

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

TM

A

Tympanic Membrane; also known as the eardrum

ears

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

TM bulging

A

protruding or outward curve of the TM; usually indicates pressure, inflammation, or fluid behind the TM

ears

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

TM erythema

A

redness of the tympanic membrane, usually indicates an ear infection (otitis media)

ears

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

friable

A

easily broken into smaller pieces

ears

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

hemotympanum

A

blood behind the tympanic membrane (ear drum), usually caused by trauma to the head and may indicate a skull fracture

ears

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

otalgia

A

ear ache/pain

ears

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

TM dullness

A

loss of light reflection of the tympanic membrane, usually indicates ear infection

ears

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

TM perforation

A

a hole or break in the tympanic membrane

ears

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

boggy mucosa

A

swollen nasal turbinates

nose

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

deviated septum

A

when the nasal septum is off center, or crooked, sometimes making breathing difficult

nose

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

epistaxis

A

nose bleed

nose

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

naris

A

a nostril (singular), plural form is nares

nose

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

rhinorrhea

A

clear nasal drainage, also referred to as a runny nose

nose

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

septal hematoma

A

a collection of blood within the septum of the nose, usually occurs due to trauma to the nose; septal hematomas are always drained because failure to drain them can lead to avascular necrosis of the septal cartilage

nose

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

turbinates

A

a network of bones, vessels and tissue within the nasal passageways which are responsible for warming, humidifying, and filtering the air we breathe

nose

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

cobblestoning

A

a lumpy appearance of the oropharynx

throat

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

dysphagia

A

difficulty swallowing

throat

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

nasopharynx

A

the upper part of the pharynx (throat), connecting with the nasal cavity

throat

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

oropharynx

A

portion of the pharynx (throat) which starts at the back of the mouth

throat

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

peritonsillar abscess

A

an abscess, collection of pus, near the tonsil

throat

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

pharyngitis

A

inflammation of the pharynx; usually indicates infection of the throat

throat

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

patent airway

A

an airway which is open and clear

throat

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

pharyngeal erythema

A

redness of the pharynx (throat)

throat

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

tonsillar edema

A

swelling of the tonsils

throat

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

tonsillar exudate

A

white material or pus present on the tonsils; usually indicates pharyngitis or strep throat

throat

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

tonsillar hypertrophy

A

enlarged tonsils

throat

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

uvula midline

A

the uvula is in the normal position in the oropharynx, not shifted or deviated

throat

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

halitosis

A

bad/foul smelling breath

mouth/dental

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

sublingual edema

A

swelling to the area below the tongue which can indicate Ludwig’s angina, an infection of the floor of the mouth; Ludwig’s angina may lead to difficulty breathing and airway blockage due to the swelling

mouth/dental

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

trismus

A

inability to open the mouth completely, usually due to stiffness or spasms of the jaw muscles

mouth/dental

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

aphthous ulcer

A

also called canker sores; small, shallow, lesions that develop inside the mouth

mouth/dental

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

caries

A

decay of bone or tooth, cavities

mouth/dental

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

edentulous

A

lacking any teeth

mouth/dental

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

gingival edema

A

swelling of the gums (gingiva)

mouth/dental

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

thrush

A

a yeast infection of the tongue and lining of the mouth

mouth/dental

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

cheilosis

A

dry scaling and fissuring of the lips

mouth/dental

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

malocclusion

A

abnormal alignment of the upper and lower teeth, concerning for jaw fracture

mouth/dental

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

ptyalism

A

excess production of saliva

mouth/dental

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

xerostomia

A

the subjective feeling of oral dryness, dry mouth

mouth/dental

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

C-Spine

A

Cervical spine (neck), C1-C7

neck

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Jugular Vein Distention (JVD)

A

this is bulging of the external jugular vein which indicates increased blood volume and usually congestive heart failure (CHF)

neck

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

nuchal rigidity

A

impaired neck flexion due to stiffness of neck

neck

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

supple

A

capable of moving and bending without difficulty, not stiff

neck

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

lymphadenopathy

A

enlargement or swelling of lymph nodes

neck

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

meningismus

A

an accumulation of signs and symptoms (e.g. headache and neck stiffness) suggestive of meningitis

neck

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

thyromegaly

A

enlarged thyroid

neck

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

trachea midline

A

the trachea is in the center of the neck and not deviated to one side; deviation to either side would suggest a pneumothorax

neck

level 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Brudzinkski’s Sign

A

positive when flexing a patient’s neck forward causes them to flex their hip and knees or it causes them pain; a positive test indicates meningitis.

neck

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

carotid bruit

A

audible sound of turbulent blood flow heard over the carotid artery during auscultation; indicates narrowing of the artery

neck

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Kernig’s Sign

A

performed by flexing the patient’s hip to 90 degrees then extending their knee; if pain is elicited during the test, the test is positive; a positive test indicates meningitis

neck

level 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

A-fib (Atrial Fibrillation)

A

irregular beating of the atria; can cause pooling of blood in the heart which can then lead to formation of a blood clot; noted as an irregularly irregular rhythm upon physical exam

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

A-flutter (Atrial Flutter)

A

well organized but overly-rapid beating of the atria

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

aneurysm

A

a localized widening of an artery or vein due to the vessel wall being weakened

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

angina

A

chest pain due to ischemia (lack of oxygen) of the heart muscle

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

arrhythmia

A

irregular heartbeat

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

artery

A

blood vessel which carries blood away from the heart to the body

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

bradycardia

A

heart rate which is slower than normal, less than 60 beats per minute for the average adult; physically fit individuals (like runners) may have a resting heart rate which is normally below 60 bpm

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

EKG/ECG (Electrocardiogram)

A

measurement of the electrical activity of the heart

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

embolism

A

obstruction of a blood vessel, typically by a blood clot or air bubble

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

hypertension

A

repeatedly elevated blood pressure exceeding or equal to a systolic pressure of 140 mmHg or a diastolic pressure of 90 mmHg

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

hypotension

A

low blood pressure, systolic pressure less than 90 mmHg or a diastolic pressure less than 60 mmHg

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

MI (Myocardial Infarction)

A

death of cardiac muscle due to ischemia (inadequate blood supply to the heart); a heart attack

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

murmur

A

abnormal heart sound which is rated on a scale of 1-6

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

palpitations

A

a feeling or sensation of rapid, strong, or irregular heartbeat

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

pericarditis

A

inflammation of the pericardium, the saclike membrane surrounding the heart

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

PVC

A

premature ventricular contraction, visible on an EKG

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

regular rate

A

heart rate which is between 60 and 100 beats per minute

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

regular rhythm

A

the heart is in Normal Sinus Rhythm (NSR)

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

STEMI

A

ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction; a heart attack diagnosed when the EKG shows ST segment elevation

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

stent

A

a small tube which is used to treat narrow or weak arteries; used to treat coronary artery disease

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

SVT

A

Supraventricular Tachycardia; rapid heartbeat which develops due to a malfunction of the electrical system of the heart

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

tachycardia

A

heart rate which is faster than normal, faster than 100 beats per minute

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

thrombus

A

blood clot within a blood vessel which is impeding blood flow

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

vein

A

vessel carrying blood towards the heart

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

V-fib (Ventricular fibrillation)

A

very rapid, uncoordinated fluttering contractions of the ventricles of the heart, requires immediate electrical cardioversion

cardiovascular

level 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

aortic aneurysm

A

an enlargement or bulging of the aorta, usually due to weakening of the aortic wall; associated with an increased risk for an aortic dissection

cardiovascular

level 2

152
Q

aortic dissection

A

condition in which the arterial wall of the aorta splits or tears; can lead to death if not treated immediately; patients usually complain of a tearing sensation/pain in their back

cardiovascular

level 2

153
Q

cardiac catheterization

A

procedure used to diagnose and treat heart conditions such as narrowed or blocked blood vessels

cardiovascular

level 2

154
Q

claudication

A

pain caused by too little blood flow, generally affecting the leg during exercise

cardiovascular

level 2

155
Q

cardiomegaly

A

enlarged heart

cardiovascular

level 2

156
Q

echocardiogram

A

ultrasound of the heart, used to examine movement of the heart

cardiovascular

level 2

157
Q

gallop

A

presence of an extra third or fourth heart sound resembling the sound of a galloping horse

cardiovascular

level 2

158
Q

myocarditis

A

inflammation of the heart muscle

cardiovascular

level 2

159
Q

NSTEMI

A

Non ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction, a heart attack not seen on the EKG which is diagnosed by an elevated troponin level in the blood

cardiovascular

level 2

160
Q

PAC

A

Premature atrial contraction, can be visualized on an EKG

cardiovascular

level 2

161
Q

accessory muscle use/abdominal breathing

A

using muscles of the abdomen and shoulder girdle to breath, indicates increased work of breathing and respiratory distress

pulmonary/chest

level 1

162
Q

bronchitis

A

inflammation of the bronchi, typically causes bronchospasm and coughing

pulmonary/chest

level 1

163
Q

COPD

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease is a lung disease characterized by chronic obstruction of lung airflow; typically caused by smoking.

pulmonary/chest

level 1

164
Q

croup

A

infection of the larynx and trachea in children which is usually associated with a barking cough and/or stridor

pulmonary/chest

level 1

165
Q

dyspnea

A

shortness of breath, labored or difficult breathing

pulmonary/chest

level 1

166
Q

hemoptysis

A

coughing up blood or bloody sputum; could indicate a pulmonary embolism or active TB

pulmonary/chest

level 1

167
Q

orthopnea

A

shortness of breath which occurs when lying flat; associated with Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

pulmonary/chest

level 1

168
Q

pneumothorax

A

the presences of air or gas within the cavity between the lungs and the chest wall, causing collapse of the lung

pulmonary/chest

level 1

169
Q

pneumonia

A

infection (infiltrate) in the lung tissue causing lung inflammation, cough, and fever

pulmonary/chest

level 1

170
Q

PND (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea)

A

attacks of severe SOB and coughing which occur at night and usually wakens a person from sleep

pulmonary/chest

level 1

171
Q

Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

A

an obstruction of blood vessels in the lung usually due to a blood clot; risk factors include: recent travel (via plane or long car ride), hormone use (i.e. birth control), h/o of blood clots, recent surgery/trauma

pulmonary/chest

level 1

172
Q

splinting

A

reduced inspiratory effort; avoiding deep inspirations due to increased pain with breathing

pulmonary/chest

level 1

173
Q

sputum

A

mucous secretion from the lungs which is coughed up

pulmonary/chest

level 1

174
Q

tachypnea

A

increased rate of breathing, faster than 20 breaths/minute in an adult

pulmonary/chest

level 1

175
Q

wheezing

A

abnormal whistling sound heard when auscultating the lungs; commonly associated with asthma

pulmonary/chest

level 1

176
Q

nasal flaring

A

outward movement of the nostrils with breathing; indicates increased work of breathing and respiratory distress

pulmonary/chest

level 2

177
Q

pectus excavatum

A

a condition in which the person’s breastbone is sunken into the chest

pulmonary/chest

level 2

178
Q

rales

A

abnormal rattling sound heard when auscultating the lungs; also called crackles

pulmonary/chest

level 2

179
Q

retractions

A

visible sinking of the chest wall during inhalation; indicates increased work of breathing and respiratory distress; medical emergency in pediatric cases

pulmonary/chest

level 2

180
Q

rhonchi

A

abnormal coarse rattling sound heard when auscultating the lungs

pulmonary/chest

level 2

181
Q

stridor

A

a harsh vibrating noise heard in the upper airway when breathing; usually a sign of airway blockage

pulmonary/chest

level 2

182
Q

cholecystitis

A

inflammation of the gallbladder, usually results in surgical removal (cholecystectomy)

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

183
Q

cirrhosis

A

disease of the liver characterized by irreversible scarring affecting the way the liver functions

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

184
Q

diffuse

A

not local, generalized

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

185
Q

distended

A

swollen, enlarged, and bloated, usually due to internal pressure

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

186
Q

diverticulitis

A

inflammation of the diverticula (small outpouchings) in the colon

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

187
Q

dysphagia

A

difficulty swallowing

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

188
Q

emesis

A

vomiting

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

189
Q

guarding

A

contraction of the muscles of the abdominal wall upon palpation

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

190
Q

hematemesis

A

vomiting blood

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

191
Q

hematochezia

A

bright red blood in the stool

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

192
Q

hernia

A

protrusion of a tissue through the wall of the cavity in which the tissue is normally contained

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

193
Q

pancreatitis

A

inflammation of the pancreas

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

194
Q

peritonitis

A

inflammation of the peritoneum, the membrane lining the abdominal cavity

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

195
Q

rebound

A

physical exam finding in which pain is felt after releasing the hand from palpating the abdomen, indicates peritonitis

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

196
Q

rigidity

A

an abnormally hard/stiff abdomen upon palpation, not soft

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 1

197
Q

CVA tenderness

A

costovertebral angle tenderness; pain is elicited by percussion of the area of the back overlying the kidney

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 2

198
Q

hepatomegaly

A

enlarged liver

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 2

199
Q

hyperperistalsis

A

hyperactive bowel sounds (increased)

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 2

200
Q

hypoperistalsis

A

hypoactive bowel sounds (decreased)

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 2

201
Q

McBurney’s Point

A

a point in the right lower abdomen, 1/3 of the distance from the anterior iliac crest to the umbilicus, which corresponds to the appendix; tenderness over this spot is concerning for appendicitis

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 2

202
Q

Murphy’s Sign

A

a test for gallbladder disease which is considered positive when a patient has pain during inspiration while palpating the RUQ, usually indicates cholecystitis

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 2

203
Q

Obturator Sign

A

physical exam finding in which right lower quadrant pain is elicited with internal rotation of the right leg when the knee and hip are flexed at 90 degrees. Indicates appendicitis

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 2

204
Q

organomegaly

A

enlarged organ

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 2

205
Q

Peritoneal Signs

A

rebound, guarding; indicates peritonitis (inflammation of the abdominal cavity)

206
Q

Psoas Sign

A

physical exam finding in which right lower abd pain is induced by extension of the right hip; indicates appendicitis

207
Q

Rovsing’s Sign

A

physical exam finding in which pressure on the left lower abdomen causes pain in the right lower abdomen; indicates appendicitis

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 2

208
Q

splenomegaly

A

enlarged spleen

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 2

209
Q

tympany

A

a low pitched resonant sound made when percussing the abdomen

abdominal/gastrointestinal

level 2

210
Q

dysmenorrhea

A

painful menstruation which typically involves abdominal cramping

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

211
Q

dyspareunia

A

painful or difficult sexual intercourse

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

212
Q

dysuria

A

pain or burning with urination

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

213
Q

ectopic pregnancy

A

a pregnancy in which the fetus develops outside of the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube; ectopic pregnancies are dangerous due to risk of rupture and usually require surgery

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

214
Q

epididymitis

A

an inflammation of the small, coiled, tube at the back of the testicle (epididymis)

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

215
Q

frequency

A

urinating more often than usual

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

216
Q

hematuria

A

blood in urine

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

217
Q

hemorrhoid

A

swollen veins in the anus or rectum

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

218
Q

hysterectomy

A

surgical removal of the uterus

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

219
Q

impotence

A

the inability to achieve or maintain an erection long enough to engage in sexual intercourse, also called erectile dysfunction

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

220
Q

nocturia

A

excessive urinating during the night

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

221
Q

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

A

inflammation of the female genital tract

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

222
Q

polyuria

A

producing large volumes of urine

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

223
Q

testicular torsion

A

the twisting of the spermatic cord, cutting off blood supply to the testicles

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

224
Q

urinary incontinence

A

unintentional loss of urine; inability to hold urine in the bladder

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

225
Q

urinary retention

A

the inability to urinate

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

226
Q

urgency

A

sudden compelling urge to urinate

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

227
Q

vasectomy

A

surgical procedure for male sterilization in which the male vas deferens are severed then tied

genitourinary (GU)

level 1

228
Q

adnexal tenderness

A

tenderness of the ovaries palpated on pelvic exam which usually indicates ovarian cyst

genitourinary (GU)

level 2

229
Q

Cervical Os

A

the opening in the center of the cervix which is closed except when tissue is being passed through the cervix

genitourinary (GU)

level 2

230
Q

cervical motion tenderness

A

palpated on pelvic exam by moving the cervix, usually suggests Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

genitourinary (GU)

level 2

231
Q

endometriosis

A

condition resulting from the appearance of endometrial tissue outside the uterus; causes pain

genitourinary (GU)

level 2

232
Q

gravid

A

the state of being pregnant

genitourinary (GU)

level 2

233
Q

Gravida, Para, Abortus (G,P,A)

A

Gravida = # of total pregnancies. Para = # births (carried beyond 20 weeks)
Abortus = # of terminated pregnancies whether induced or spontaneous.

A female who is currently pregnant, has been pregnant 3 times previously and has 2 children at home would have a G4, P2, A1.

genitourinary (GU)

level 2

234
Q

hydronephrosis

A

swelling/dilation of the kidney due to obstruction of the ureter, usually caused by a kidney stone

genitourinary (GU)

level 2

235
Q

nephrolithiasis

A

condition marked by the presences of kidney stones

genitourinary (GU)

level 2

236
Q

oophorectomy

A

surgical removal of one or both of the ovaries

genitourinary (GU)

level 2

237
Q

ovarian torsion

A

twisting of the ovary to such a degree the ovarian artery or vein becomes obstructed

genitourinary (GU)

level 2

238
Q

phimosis

A

tightening/narrowing of the opening of the foreskin so that it cannot be retracted

genitourinary (GU)

level 2

239
Q

pyelonephritis

A

inflammation/infection of the kidneys

genitourinary (GU)

level 2

240
Q

arthralgia

A

joint pain

musculoskeletal

level 1

241
Q

Boxer’s Fracture

A

fracture of the 5th or 4th metacarpal bone

musculoskeletal

level 1

242
Q

deformity

A

visual abnormality of a bone

musculoskeletal

level 1

243
Q

dislocation

A

displacement of a bone from a joint, misalignment of the joint

musculoskeletal

level 1

244
Q

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

A

blood clot (thrombus) within a deep vein, usually within the lower leg

musculoskeletal

level 1

245
Q

edema

A

swelling caused by excess fluid collection

musculoskeletal

level 1

246
Q

gout

A

form of arthritis (joint inflammation) caused by formation of uric acid crystals

musculoskeletal

level 1

247
Q

joint

A

junction or union of two or more bones

musculoskeletal

level 1

248
Q

ligament

A

a tough band of tissue connecting bones together

musculoskeletal

level 1

249
Q

myalgia

A

muscle pain

musculoskeletal

level 1

250
Q

ROM

A

Range of Motion, the full movement potential of a joint

musculoskeletal

level 1

251
Q

sciatica

A

pain radiating from the lower back down one or both legs, caused by pressure on the sciatic nerve; a form of radiculopathy

musculoskeletal

level 1

252
Q

Anterior/Posterior Drawer Test

A

a physical examination used to test the stability of the knee’s ACL and PCL

musculoskeletal

level 2

253
Q

arthritis

A

painful inflammation and stiffness of the joints

musculoskeletal

level 2

254
Q

calf tenderness

A

tenderness when palpating the calf, may indicate a DVT (deep vein thrombosis)

musculoskeletal

level 2

255
Q

costochondritis

A

inflammation of the cartilage which connects a rib to the sternum

musculoskeletal

level 2

256
Q

crepitus

A

the crackling, crunching, or grinding sound or sensation when palpating a body part

musculoskeletal

level 2

257
Q

fracture

A

broken bone

musculoskeletal

level 2

258
Q

malleolus

A

bony projection on each side of the ankle (lateral or medial)

musculoskeletal

level 2

259
Q

osteomyelitis

A

inflammation or infection of bone

musculoskeletal

level 2

260
Q

paraspinal tenderness

A

tenderness of the muscles on either side of the spine

musculoskeletal

level 2

261
Q

radiculopathy

A

collection of symptoms produced by a pinched or compressed nerve root

musculoskeletal

level 2

262
Q

Snuff Box

A

a triangular indentation seen on the radial, dorsal aspect of the hand (back of the hand on the thumb side) when the thumb is extended; tenderness over this area indicates likely scaphoid fracture even if a fracture is not visualized on xray

musculoskeletal

level 2

263
Q

step-offs

A

deformity/misalignment of the spine felt on palpation, indicates spinal fracture

musculoskeletal

level 2

264
Q

Straight Leg Raise (SLR)

A

positive when pain is elicited when the provider lifts the patient’s leg above the horizontal level while the patient is laying on their back; usually indicates sciatica or herniated disc

musculoskeletal

level 2

265
Q

Varus and Valgus Stress Test

A

applying stress to the lateral or medial aspect of the knee to assess damage in the MCL and LCL

musculoskeletal

level 2

266
Q

avulsion fracture

A

fracture which occurs when a fragment of bone tears away from the main mass of bone

musculoskeletal

level 3

267
Q

clubbing

A

swelling of the soft tissue of the distal portion of the fingers and toes causing nail changes, usually associated with lung disease

musculoskeletal

level 3

268
Q

comminuted fracture

A

break or splinter of the bone into more than two fragments

musculoskeletal

level 3

269
Q

compound fracture

A

a fracture in which the bone pierces the skin; an open fracture, results in an increased risk of infection

musculoskeletal

level 3

270
Q

impacted fracture

A

fracture in which a broken bone is wedged into another bone

musculoskeletal

level 3

271
Q

spiral fracture

A

fracture which occurs when a rotating force is applied to the bone, the line of the fracture appears helical

musculoskeletal

level 3

272
Q

subluxation

A

partial dislocation of a joint

musculoskeletal

level 3

273
Q

tenosynovitis

A

inflammation of the tendon sheath, usually seen in the hands and wrists

musculoskeletal

level 3

274
Q

transverse fracture

A

a break in the bone which runs perpendicularly across the bone

musculoskeletal

level 3

275
Q

abrasion/excoriation

A

scraping or rubbing away of the upper layer of the skin

skin, hair, nails

level 1

276
Q

abscess

A

an accumulation of pus underneath the skin

skin, hair, nails

level 1

277
Q

cyanosis

A

the bluish discoloration of the skin, caused by lack of oxygen to that area

skin, hair, nails

level 1

278
Q

diaphoresis

A

sweating

skin, hair, nails

level 1

279
Q

ecchymosis

A

bruising; the escape of blood into tissues

skin, hair, nails

level 1

280
Q

erythema

A

abnormal redness of the skin

skin, hair, nails

level 1

281
Q

Herpes Simplex

A

viral skin disease caused by the Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV); type 1 is oral herpes which causes typically cold sores around the mouth and lip; type 2 is genital herpes which typically causes sores around the genitals or rectum

skin, hair, nails

level 1

282
Q

Herpes Zoster

A

shingles; painful, localized, blistering skin rash

skin, hair, nails

level 1

283
Q

laceration

A

a cut or linear wound of the skin

skin, hair, nails

level 1

284
Q

pallor

A

pale color of the skin; paleness

skin, hair, nails

level 1

285
Q

pitting edema

A

swelling which retains an impression when touched

skin, hair, nails

level 1

286
Q

pruritic

A

itchy

skin, hair, nails

level 1

287
Q

psoriasis

A

chronic disease characterized by dry, red patches of skin covered in white/silvery scales

skin, hair, nails

level 1

288
Q

purulent

A

pertaining to pus, containing pus or pus-like

skin, hair, nails

level 1

289
Q

tenting

A

the skin is slow to return to its normal position after being pinched, indicates dehydration

skin, hair, nails

level 1

290
Q

dehiscence

A

splitting apart or separation of the skin, usually along suture lines

skin, hair, nails

level 2

291
Q

fluctuance

A

palpable fluid underneath the skin which usually indicates pus collection

skin, hair, nails

level 2

292
Q

hematoma

A

localized swelling filled with blood, resulting from ruptured blood vessels

skin, hair, nails

level 2

293
Q

hyperpigmentation

A

lhe darkening of an area of skin

skin, hair, nails

level 2

294
Q

induration

A

hardened area of soft tissue

skin, hair, nails

level 2

295
Q

lymphangitis

A

inflammation of the lymphatic vessels which usually appears as red streaking on the skin

skin, hair, nails

level 2

296
Q

macular

A

flat, red spots on the skin

skin, hair, nails

level 2

297
Q

maculopapular rash

A

a rash characterized by a flat, red area on the skin covered with small, confluent bumps

skin, hair, nails

level 2

298
Q

papular

A

small, raised bumps

skin, hair, nails

level 2

299
Q

serosanguinous

A

containing both blood and serum

skin, hair, nails

level 2

300
Q

subungual

A

beneath the nail

skin, hair, nails

level 2

301
Q

urticaria

A

hives; a red, raised, pruritic rash which is usually a sign of an allergic reaction; also called wheals

skin, hair, nails

level 2

302
Q

vesicles

A

small, fluid filled blister

skin, hair, nails

levcel 2

303
Q

macerated

A

softening of the skin or tissue due to being wet for a prolonged period

skin, hair, nails

level 3

304
Q

petechiae

A

pinpoint, flat, round rash which is red or purple in color; does not blanch (lighten) when pressure is applied; caused by ruptured capillaries underneath the skin

skin, hair, nails

level 3

305
Q

purpura

A

similar to petechial except larger in size, not pinpoint

skin, hair, nails

level 3

306
Q

turgor

A

the degree of elasticity of the skin; poor skin turgor indicates dehydration

skin, hair, nails

level 3

307
Q

aphasia

A

impairment of language affecting the production or comprehension of speech due to injury to the brain

neurological

level 1

308
Q

ataxia

A

loss of full control of bodily movements; loss of coordination

neurological

level 1

309
Q

Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)

A

stroke; damage to the brain due to interruption of its blood supply caused by hemorrhage or ischemia (occlusion of a vessel or blood clot)

neurological

level 1

310
Q

dizziness

A

sensation of unsteadiness; a feeling of movement within the head or as if your surroundings are spinning

neurological

level 1

311
Q

dysphagia

A

difficulty swallowing

neurological

level 1

312
Q

dysphasia

A

difficulty generating or understanding language

neurological

level 1

313
Q

Grand Mal Seizure

A

form of epilepsy characterized by tonic-clonic seizures, consists of loss of consciousness and convulsions

neurological

level 1

314
Q

hemiparesis

A

weakness of one side of the body

315
Q

hemiplegia

A

complete paralysis of one side of the body

neurological

level 1

316
Q

lightheadedness

A

feeling faint or near syncope

neurological

level 1

317
Q

neuralgia

A

intense, sharp pain along the course of a nerve

neurological

level 1

318
Q

orientation

A

awareness of one’s environment, specifically person, place, time, and situation

neurological

level 1

319
Q

paresthesia

A

abnormal sensation such as numbness, tingling, or burning

neurological

level 1

320
Q

postictal

A

the altered state of consciousness after a seizure

neurological

level 1

321
Q

pronator drift

A

test performed on the physical exam in which the patient is asked to hold both arms extended out in front of them at shoulder level with palms upward, eyes closed; if either arm involuntarily moves or drifts, the test is positive

neurological

level 1

322
Q

seizure

A

uncontrolled electrical activity in the brain which may produce physical signs such as convulsions

neurological

level 1

323
Q

status epilepticus

A

continuous seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or repetitive seizures without regaining consciousness in between

neurological

level 1

324
Q

syncope

A

loss of consciousness (LOC); passing out

neurological

level 1

325
Q

tonic clonic

A

grand mal seizure

neurological

level 1

326
Q

Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)

A

mini-stroke; a neurological event, generally ischemic in nature, with signs and symptoms of a stroke which resolve within a short period of time

neurological

level 1

327
Q

vasovagal episode

A

symptoms of pallor, nausea, sweating, bradycardia, hypotension and at times, syncope, may be invoked by emotional stress associated with fear or pain

neurological

level 1

328
Q

vertigo

A

sensation of the room spinning and loss of balance

neurological

level 1

329
Q

Babinski Sign

A

occurs when the sole of the foot is firmly stroked causing the big toe to move upwards and the other toes to fan outward; normal sign in infants but suggests brain abnormality if positive in adults

neurological

level 2

330
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A

in most cases, a temporary paralysis of the facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII) causing drooping and muscular weakness to one side of the face

neurological

level 2

331
Q

clonus

A

involuntary muscular contraction and relaxation in rapid succession

neurological

level 2

332
Q

Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTRs)

A

test in which the tendon is tapped to determine the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nervous system responsible for the reflex

neurological

level 2

333
Q

Finger-Nose-Finger

A

test in which the patient is asked to touch their nose with their index finger then touch the provider’s index finger, then touch their nose again; assesses cerebellar function

neurological

level 2

334
Q

nystagmus

A

rapid, involuntary movements of the eyes

neurological

level 2

335
Q

Romberg’s Sign

A

a simple test that assesses balance

neurological

level 2

336
Q

saddle anesthesia

A

loss of sensation confined to the area of the perineum, buttocks, and inner aspect of the thighs

neurological

level 2

337
Q

affect

A

the emotional tone a person expresses

psychiatric

level 1

338
Q

anxiety reaction

A

a reaction to a feared situation or object; anxiety attack

psychiatric

level 1

339
Q

auditory hallucinations

A

hearing sounds or voices which are not real

psychiatric

level 1

340
Q

depressed

A

persistent feeling of sadness and loss of interest

psychiatric

level 1

341
Q

flat affect

A

a severe reduction in emotional expressiveness; monotone; unemotional

psychiatric

level 1

342
Q

homicidal ideation

A

thoughts of harming or killing another person

psychiatric

level 1

343
Q

insomnia

A

sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling or staying asleep

psychiatric

level 1

344
Q

pressured speech

A

tendency to speak rapidly and frenziedly

psychiatric

level 1

345
Q

suicidal ideation

A

thoughts of harming or killing oneself

psychiatric

level 1

346
Q

tangential thoughts

A

train of thought of the speaker wanders with lack of focus or logical progressions

psychiatric

level 1

347
Q

visual hallucinations

A

seeing people or things which do not actually exist

psychiatric

level 1

348
Q

withdrawn

A

not interested or participatory

psychiatric

level 1

349
Q

abduction

A

the movement of a limb away from the midline of the body

kinesiology

350
Q

adduction

A

the movement of a limb towards the midline of the body

kinesiology

351
Q

ambulatory

A

able to walk or move about

kinesiology

352
Q

anterior (ventral)

A

toward the front of the body, opposite of posterior

kinesiology

353
Q

axilla

A

the armpit

kinesiology

354
Q

cervical

A

of or pertaining to the neck or cervix of the uterus

kinesiology

355
Q

deep

A

farther from the surface

kinesiology

356
Q

diffuse

A

spread out over a large area

kinesiology

357
Q

distal

A

situated away from the center of the body or from the point of attachment

kinesiology

358
Q

dorsiflexion

A

backward flexion, flexion of the foot in an upward direction

kinesiology

359
Q

extension

A

straightening out of a joint, increasing the angle between the bones of a limb at the joint

kinesiology

360
Q

external

A

outside

kinesiology

361
Q

flexion

A

bending or movement around a joint that decreases the angle between the bones of a limb at the joint

kinesiology

362
Q

inferior

A

situated lower, closer to the feet; opposite of superior

kinesiology

363
Q

inverted

A

turned inward

kinesiology

364
Q

lateral

A

farther from the middle or center of the body, opposite of medial

kinesiology

365
Q

medial

A

closer to the middle or center of the body, opposite of lateral

kinesiology

366
Q

midline

A

line which divides the body into left and right halves

kinesiology

367
Q

palmar or volar

A

referring to the palm side of the hand or body

kinesiology

368
Q

plantar

A

the bottom or sole of the foot

kinesiology

369
Q

posterior or dorsal

A

toward the back or rear of the body, opposite of anterior

kinesiology

370
Q

pronation

A

rotation of the hand or forearm so that the palm faces backwards or downwards

kinesiology

371
Q

prone

A

lying face down with forearms and hands turned palm side down

kinesiology

372
Q

proximal

A

situated nearer to the center of the body or point of attachment, opposite of distal

kinesiology

373
Q

superficial

A

nearer to the surface

kinesiology

374
Q

superior

A

situated higher, closer to the head; opposite of inferior

kinesiology

375
Q

supination

A

rotation of the hand or forearm so that the palm faces forward or upwards

kinesiology

376
Q

supine

A

lying face up, opposite of prone

kinesiology