Medical Flashcards

(180 cards)

1
Q

How would you deal with an anxious patient. How would you provide Nursing care?

A) giving him hospital regulations
B) telling him there’s nothing to be afraid of
C) give him information on his condition and forward him onto a website
D) act in a calm reassuring manner and provide information in a way he would understand in regard to the operation he may have and routines

A

D) because calmness enables us to have a gentle manner, a soothing voice, and display quiet dependability in all that we do. It enables us to have an attitude of composed alertness to the ever-changing needs of patients and practice situations and to have confidence in our ability to meet these needs.

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2
Q

The first management priority for spinal injury is
A) Pain
B) Altered sexuality
C) Spinal Immbolisation
D) Urinary Catherisation

A

C) Spinal Immbolisation

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3
Q

A client who sustains a fracture dislocation of the cervical spine will most probably have
A) Tetraplegia
B) Hemiplegia
C) Paraplegia
D) Monoplegia

A

A) Tetraplegia

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4
Q

You find a patient crying after finding out that she has a permanent spinal injury due to a car accident. She says she doesn’t want to live anymore now she can’t walk. What can you do?

A) Tell her to harden up
B) “There are people dealing with worse crap than you”
C) Become worried that she will follow through with her want to end her life, and race to find RN
D) Recognise this as being part of the stages of grief

A

D)
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance

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5
Q

How to work out the volume when you administer IM:

A

Strength x Volume of Stock solution / Stock strength= volume required

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6
Q

Before moving a patient, you will find they will cooperate if
A) they are in an agreeable mood
B) Are praised when activities are completed
C) Received enough analgesia (pain relief) to promote freedom from pain
D) Warned about complications if activities are not performed.

A

C) Received enough analgesia (pain relief) to promote freedom from pain

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7
Q

What is the purpose of an NGT after bowel surgery?
A) Feeding
B) Irrigation
C) Inflation
D) Aspiration

A

D) Aspiration

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8
Q

Which activity can an EN legally do?
A) Prime the line prior to IV tubing being changed.
B) Report to a registered nurse that the IV fluid is low.
C) Discontinue an IV infusion to dress/undress a client.
D) Change the IV bag if directed by a registered nurse.

A

A) Prime the line prior to IV tubing being changed.

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9
Q

Sam, aged 20 years, is being assessed following a head injury. The earliest sign of increasing intracranial pressure is

A) a rapid pulse.

B) a change in the level of consciousness

C) Hypertension

D) hypoxaemia.

A

B) a change in the level of consciousness

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10
Q

During the primary assessment of Sam, the nurse should
A) palpate the abdomen
B) assess the level of consciousness
C) examine the neck for rigidity or stiffness
D) determine whether he has underlying medical conditions

A

B) assess the level of consciousness

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11
Q

The primary goal of withholding food and fluids before surgery is to prevent
A) aspiration
B) distension
C) infection
D) obstruction.

A

A) aspiration

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12
Q

Peri-operative instruction that is a legal requirement for all patients is:
A) techniques for deep breathing and coughing.
B) descriptions of the planned surgical procedure
C) physical procedures or preparation required before surgery
D) being nil by mouth after midnight on the day of surgery.

A

B) descriptions of the planned surgical procedure

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13
Q

You are asked by your RN to assess Mr N who has just arrived back from PACU onto the ward. The priority assessment would be to check
A) bleeding from the wound site
B) vital signs and level of consciousness.
C) if the pain relief medication is due.
D) the IV infusion rate is correct.

A

B) vital signs and level of consciousness.

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14
Q

Pain assessment is part of an enrolled nurse’s scope of practice. To assess Mr N’s level of pain, you would
A) ask Mr N if he has any severe pain.
B) use a pain scale to assess the pain level.
C) decide by your observation that Mr N has pain.
D) ask Mr N to point to where the pain is.

A

B) use a pain scale to assess the pain level.

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15
Q

To detect shock, you will observe Mr N for
A) increasing blood pressure, slowing pulse rate.
B) increasing pulse rate, decreasing blood pressure.
C) increasing blood pressure, slowing respiratory rate, slowing pulse rate.
D) increasing respiratory rate, slowing pulse rate, decreasing blood pressure.

A

B) increasing pulse rate, decreasing blood pressure.

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16
Q

Fifteen minutes after a blood transfusion has begun Mr N complains of difficulty breathing. You should first
A) notify Mr N’s physician.
B) stop the transfusion immediately.
C) assess Mr N’s vital signs.
D) obtain a blood specimen from Mr N.

A

B) stop the transfusion immediately.

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17
Q

Following surgery for a left total hip replacement Mr N’s left leg should
A) be supported with pillows under the knee.
B) be maintained in abduction.
C) be exercised hourly to prevent DVT from occurring.
D) be maintained in adduction

A

B) be maintained in abduction.

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18
Q

Mr N, aged 73 years, is admitted to the ward after falling over. A diagnosis of fractured left neck of femur is made. Of the following, which would you expect Mr N to have?

A) Shortening, external rotation, pain.
B) Shortening, abnormal movement, ankle oedema.
C) Pain, flexion deformity, slow venous return.
D) Muscle spasm, slow venous return, external rotation.

A

A) Shortening, external rotation, pain.

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19
Q

You are performing a basic neurovascular assessment so you can report back to the RN. Which of the following would you assess?
A) Colour, warmth, movement, sensation, verbal response.
B) Pain, sensation, colour, movement, level of consciousness.
C) Warmth, movement, sensation, pain, colour.
D) Colour, degree of shock, pain, sensation, movement.

A

C) Warmth, movement, sensation, pain, colour.

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20
Q

Mr N can’t feel pressure applied to his toes and complains of tingling. These signs indicate
A) pressure on a nerve.
B) analgesic overdose.
C) improper alignment of the fracture.
D) low pain threshold.

A

A) pressure on a nerve.

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21
Q

Mr N has been scheduled to undergo surgery for a total hip replacement the next day. 30 31 Mr N’s surgeon asks you to complete the consent form. What would you do?
A) Obtain verbal consent from Mr N and ask the doctor to sign the form.
B) Get consent from Mr N, it is your legal responsibility to obtain consent from your client before the operation.
C) Refuse, stating you are not allowed to obtain written consent for procedures.
D) Ask the registered nurse to do it as you are busy with other clients.

A

C) Refuse, stating you are not allowed to obtain written consent for procedures.

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22
Q

During a pre-operative nursing assessment, the enrolled nurse is alerted to the possibility of a compromised respiratory function during the peri-operative phase in the patient with
A) obesity.
B) dehydration.
C) enlarged liver.
D) decreased peripheral pulse volume.

A

A) obesity.

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23
Q

Ten minutes after John has received his preoperative sedative medication by intramuscular injection, he asks to get up to go to the bathroom to urinate. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) offer him a urinal and position him in bed to promote voiding.
B) assist him to the bathroom.
C) tell him to try to “hold on” because he will be catheterised at the beginning of the surgical procedure.
D) allow him up to go to the bathroom because the onset of the effect of the medication takes more than 10 minutes

A

B) assist him to the bathroom.

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24
Q

Postoperatively you check to ensure John’s vacuum drain is draining properly. The purpose of the redivac/redinom/vacuum drain is to
A) provide for assessment of the quality of the drainage.
B) prevent formation of a hematoma.
C) accurately measures the amount of drainage.
D) provides a closed sterile gravity flow system.

A

B) prevent formation of a hematoma.

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25
John is now one day post abdominal surgery. While caring for him on the first postoperative day, you notice new bright red drainage about 6 cm in diameter on his dressing. In response to this finding you should A) take John's vital signs then notify RN. B) notify the RN of a potential haemorrhage. C) remove the dressing and assess the surgical incision. D) recheck the dressing in one hour for increased drainage.
C) remove the dressing and assess the surgical incision.
26
You are closely monitoring John postoperatively. You would become most concerned with which of the following signs, which could indicate an evolving complication? A) Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a pulse of 86 beats per minute. B) Increasing restlessness. C) Hyperactive passing of flatus. D) A negative Homan's sign
B) Increasing restlessness.
27
Postoperative abdominal distension is usually a result of A) patient having consumed food. B) incorrect body positioning. C) gas accumulating in the bowel. D) the type of anaesthetic administered.
C) gas accumulating in the bowel.
28
Which of the following would be considered normal for the first postoperative day following abdominal surgery? A) Pain over incision site when coughing. B) Frequency and burning after urination. C) Dyspnoea. D) Yellow green drainage from wound.
A) Pain over incision site when coughing.
29
Which nursing intervention will prevent atrophy of Mr N's leg muscles? A) Encourage isometric leg muscle exercises hourly. B) Passive stimulation by the nursing staff hourly. C) Encourage him to move about in the bed hourly. D) Active massage to the calf and thigh muscles hourly.
A) Encourage isometric leg muscle exercises hourly.
30
The most common postoperative respiratory complication in the elderly patient is A) pleurisy. B) hypoxaemia. C) pulmonary oedema. D) pneumonia.
D) pneumonia.
31
An indication urinary retention is occurring in the postoperative period is that A) a person is unable to hold more than 10 ml of urine in the bladder. B) patient complains of painful distended lower abdomen. C) the bladder is unable to hold urine because of frequent bladder spasms. D) 100 to 200 ml or urine is voided every 2 to 3 hours.
B) patient complains of painful distended lower abdomen.
32
The following questions refer to the nursing management of the surgical patient: John (54 years) is scheduled to go to the theatre for a bowel resection. He tells you that he is "scared about having this operation" as his mother died after an operation years ago. Which response would be the most appropriate? A) "Everything will be fine. Surgical techniques have greatly improved since your mother had surgery." B) "Think positive! Positive thoughts have been shown to influence a positive surgical outcome." C) "Tell me more about what happened to your mother." D) "Have you discussed these feelings with anyone else?"
C) "Tell me more about what happened to your mother."
33
The nurse provides preoperative teaching for John before his abdominal surgery. Essential education for the patient to know for the first two post-op days includes A) how to care for the wound. B) how to deep breathe and cough. C) what medications will be used during surgery. D) what drains and tubes will be present after surgery. E) All of the above (A students suggested answer)
B) how to deep breathe and cough.
34
Anti-embolic stockings are applied to John's lower limbs. The purpose of elasticised hosiery is to A) decrease venous return. B) relieve the persistent cramping pain in the legs. C) support the lower legs. D) promote venous return.
D) promote venous return.
35
Mrs Swindle has now been on continuous oxygen for 24 hours. It is considered best practice to A) humidify the oxygen before delivery. B) pad the elastic bands of the masks. C) Stop the continuous oxygen D) ensure Mrs Swindle's apical pulse is measured.
B) pad the elastic bands of the masks.
36
You should encourage Mrs Swindle to increase her fluid intake because it A) decreases the amount of bacteria in the lungs. B) dilutes the medication given to treat the disease. C) thins the respiratory secretions. D) decreases inflammation of the airways
C) thins the respiratory secretions.
37
How to calculate DPM
The drops per minute would be calculated as total volume, divided by time (in minutes), multiplied by the drop factor
38
Mrs Swindle's pneumonia has resolved. You are aware that Mrs Swindle's respiratory centre is now stimulated by A) oxygen. B) ability to breath. C) rate of respirations. D) carbon dioxide.
D) carbon dioxide.
39
The registered nurse asks you to give Mrs Swindle her lunchtime medications. She hands you the container with the medication in it. What do you do? A) Take the medication and give it to Mrs Swindle as you can give medications under the delegation of the registered nurse. B) Tell the registered nurse you cannot do this because you are busy but if she leaves them next to the drug trolley you will give them in 5 minutes. C) Refuse to give the medication as you do not know what the medications are and you have not seen the prescription. D) Give the medication and then check the prescription with the registered nurse.
C) Refuse to give the medication as you do not know what the medications are and you have not seen the prescription.
39
The registered nurse asks you to give Mrs Swindle her lunchtime medications. She hands you the container with the medication in it. What do you do? A) Take the medication and give it to Mrs Swindle as you can give medications under the delegation of the registered nurse. B) Tell the registered nurse you cannot do this because you are busy but if she leaves them next to the drug trolley you will give them in 5 minutes. C) Refuse to give the medication as you do not know what the medications are and you have not seen the prescription. D) Give the medication and then check the prescription with the registered nurse.
C) Refuse to give the medication as you do not know what the medications are and you have not seen the prescription.
40
What is a Myocardial Infarction?
Heart attack
41
What happens during an Angina?
The heart goes into spasm, and eases with O2 and meds. It eases with rest, GTN spray/ Anginine tablets, however, the patient may experience headaches.
42
What causes ischemic heart disease?
happens when the major blood vessels in the heart get narrow and stiff.
43
What is a Myocarditis?
Inflammation and damage of the heart muscle caused by an infection
44
What is atherosclerosis?
It's when the arteries harden which causes Thrombosis, Angina, Ischemic Heart Disease, Intermittent claudication, stroke, and myocardial infarction.
45
What happens during congestive heart failure?
Blood is not flowing around the body effectively. This causes a backlog of blood and pressure buildup.
46
What is hypertension?
High blood pressure
47
What is hypotension?
Low blood pressure.
48
What is a systolic pressure?
Greatest pressure in the arterial system
49
What is diastolic pressure?
Least pressure against the arterial wall
50
What is objective data in nursing?
The definition of objective data is the collection of medical data that is measurable and substantiated. This subset of data can be collected using the five senses in a clinical setting. Observation serves as the basis for objective data. The phrase "signs and symptoms" is considered the "signs" of the patient's reason for care.
51
What is subjective data in nursing?
Subjective and objective data are two complementary measurements of information that can give a complete portrayal of a patient's medical status. Both data points are valuable and should be accounted for. Subjective data is verbal or written information provided by the patient or their family. This information is compiled through interviews, ongoing assessments, admissions processes, and questionnaires. Subjective data is considered biased because it can be hard to verify independently.
52
What are the 4 stages of operative nursing?
Pre op- Before Intra op- During Post op- After Peri op- Around
53
What is diagnostic surgery?
Exploration to confirm.
54
What is ablative surgery?
Removal of disease
55
What is reconstructive surgery?
Restoration of what was lost
56
What is cosmetic surgery?
A personal choice for change
57
What is palliative surgery?
Alleviating or reducing symptoms
58
What is DVT?
Deep Vein Thrombosis
59
What effect does Propofol cause?
It is a relaxant and pain relief- the brain stops registering pain.
60
What treats high cholesterol?
Simvastatin
61
What prevents DVT and blood clots?
Clexane/ Enoxparin
62
What is ischemia?
Restriction in blood supply to tissues, muscles or organ of the body.
63
A clot is called?
Infarction
64
What is the difference between modifiable and non-modifiable?
What can be changed or adapted and what cannot change.
65
What is an acute coronary syndrome treatment?
Airway Breathing Circulation followed by Morphine Oxygen Nitrate and Aspirin -then monitor.
66
What happens during a stroke?
Rapid death of brain tissue due to disturbance in blood supply
67
What is hypoxia?
Condition in which the body or a region of the body is deprived of adequate oxygen supply at the tissue level.
68
What are the three layers/mater of the brain?
Arachnoid Pia Dura
69
What are meninges?
The four membranes that envelope the brain and spinal cord. They protect the central nervous system.
70
What are the 6 types of Traumatic Brain Injury?
Closed (injury caused by outside trauma) Open (penetrating trauma) Concussion (brief loss of neuro function) Contusion (bleeding on the surface of brain) Diffuse Axonal (tearing of brains nerve fibres) Focal (direct impact resulting in haematoma)
71
What are the types of spinal cord injury?
Tetraplegia (inability to voluntarily move the upper or lower parts of the body and causes the patient unable to breathe on their own) Paraplegia (affects all or parts of the torso, legs, and pelvic organs) Quadriplegia (paralysis from the next down)
72
What are the kinds of spinal cord injuries you can receive?
Compression- pressure on spinal cord Transection- spinal cord tear Laceration- spinal cord cut resulting in loss of function Obstruction- obstruction of spinal cord resulting in loss of information.
73
What does ABCDRS stand for?
Airways Breathing Circulation Danger Response Send for help
74
What does GCS stand for?
Glasgow Coma Scale
75
What does AVPU stand for?
Alert Voice Pupil/Pain Understanding
76
What to ask during an assessment?
Health history- how has your general health been? History of presenting problem- has this happened before? Past medical history - have they had procedures or tests completed Obstetric history- female gender based questions Family history- has this occurred in your family? Health risk appraisal- what is their lifestyle like: do they smoke? Physical assessment- does this hurt?
77
What to assess for during a physical
GCS Motor ability/strength Balance/co ordination Reflexes Vision/senses Speech Memory/attention Reasoning Problem solving Proprioception/ability to sense movement Mental status/mood Intellectual function Perception
78
GCS- what you need to remember?
Below 8 you intubate!!
79
What does decorticate mean?
Abnormal posturing in which a person is stiff with bent arms, clenched fists and legs held out straight
80
What does decebrate mean?
An abnormal body posture that involves the arms and legs behind held straight out, toes being pointed downward, and the head and neck being arched backward
81
What is the medical term for Fever?
Pyrexia - think of fire! Heat! Pyromaniac! “I’m a fire starter”
82
The motion that moves digested kai through the bowel is called?
Peristalsis
83
What do we need to think about with breathing?
Ventilation Diffusion and perfusion
84
What is Hypoxaemia?
Inadequate oxygen supply
85
What is Asthma?
Chronic inflammatory disease of the airways
86
What is a Ateletesis?
Collapsed lung - often caused by mucus plug or fluid build up. Signs - pulse drops ⬇️ 90
87
What is Orthopnea?
Discomfort when breathing while lying down flat; common in people with some types of heart or lung conditions.
88
What’s Insidious onset?
A condition or medical event that creeps up
89
What does vasopressin drug therapy do?
Raises blood pressure when it’s low and organs aren’t getting enough blood.
90
What occurs during a closed pneumothorax?
There is air in the plural space
91
What happens during a open pneumothorax?
Chest wound has occurred resulting in the lung collapsing
92
What happens during a tension pneumothorax?
Air in the plural space and the pressure builds up
93
What is a haemothorax?
There is blood in the plural space
94
What happens when the superior vena cava is compressed?
SVC syndrome is caused by gradual compression of the SVC, leading to edema and retrograde flow, but it can also be caused more abruptly in thrombotic cases. Symptoms may include cough, dyspnea, dysphagia, and swelling or discolouration of the neck, face and upper extremities.
95
What happens when a patient has stridor?
They have a high pitched whistling sound most often heard as they breathe
96
What is Auscultation?
The action of listening to sounds from the heart, lungs, or other organs
97
What is a paradoxical motion?
When you breathe in the lungs/chest react differently. Breathing out resulting in chest expanding
98
What is the most dangerous time after surgery?
The first 24 hours
99
What systems create Haemodynamic stability
Neurological Cardiovascular Integumentary Respiratory Renal
100
What happens during arrhythmia?
They have an irregular heart rate
101
What are things to look for in Holistic Nursing?
Neurophysiological Urinary Gastrointestinal Respiratory Cardiovascular Integumentary Fluid and electrolyte
102
What things do we need to continue with on going nursing management?
Safety Diaphragmatic breathing / triflow Early mobilisation Positioning Physiological Aseptic wound dressing technique Comfort and privacy TED stockings / leg cuff devices Documentation and reporting
103
What is hypoventilation?
Hypoventilation is breathing that is too shallow or too slow to meet the needs of the body. If a person hypoventilates, the body's carbon dioxide level rises.
104
How to prevent DVT?
Medication - clexane or anti coagulant Elevation- no pillows Compressive stockings Vital signs
105
What is tachycardia?
A heart rate that exceeds normal resting rate
106
What do we need to watch out for?
Pain Wanting to pass urine Traumatised skin/ tissue Tachycardia Pallor Diaphoresis Spasms Numeric pain scale 0-10 Hypo means trouble and BP is too low
107
How can I help with pain relief to a patient?
Offer to change position in bed Check of patient has PRN medications Talk to RMO about other options
108
What are common side effects from opioid pain relief?
BP drops Respiration drops Constipation LOC/ Lethargy
109
What can opioids cause?
Constipation or paralytic illeous
110
What is paralytic illeus?
Small intestine in state of shock and so is not functioning as it should
111
What does serosanguineous mean?
Fluid that contains both blood and liquid (serum)
112
How can a patient avoid paralytic illeus?
No kai until they flateus By second day they would have passed gas Protein is recommended for post surgery
113
Post operative ambulations helps to prevent
DVT
114
Angina Pectoris occurs when there is a decrease in oxygen to the heart muscle. What is that called?
Myocardial ischmeamia
115
Anginal pain and myocardial infarction are different because
Angina can be relieved by nitro lingual tablets or sublingual spray
116
How would you define myocardial infarction?
Death of a portion of the myocardium
117
What is cancer?
Abnormal tissue growth due to cells multiplying at a uncharacteristic manner called proliferation
118
Invasive means?
Else where in the body - secondary
119
What’s another term for cancer?
Neoplasm
120
What does metastases mean?
Spreads throughout the body
121
What does benign mean?
Lump with no aggressive cells
122
What does malignant mean?
Lump with aggressive cells
123
What are the 6 types of cancer?
Epithelial Ductal/glandular Connective tissue Lymphatic tissue Blood forming cells Carcinoma in situ
124
What are the three grades of tumour?
Grade 1- resembles normal tissue Grade 2 and 3- change in appearance Grade 4- does not resemble normal tissue
125
What does aetiology mean?
The cause or manner of a disease or condition
126
What does NAI mean?
Non Accidental Injury
127
Why is embolism a high risk in long bones?
Due to the blood in the bone marrow
128
Why are fasciotmys done?
To relieve tension or pressure in order to treat the loss of circulation in an area of tissue or muscle
129
Pathological fractures can be caused by?
Cancer or osteoporosis
130
What are the 7 types of fractures
Transverse Oblique Spiral Comminuted Segmental Butterfly Impacted
131
What is the sound of grating bone called?
Crepitus because it’s creepy
132
What is a thrombus?
A blood clot in the circulatory system
133
What are some complications of fractures?
Infection Compartment syndrome Venous thrombosis
134
What is tendinitis?
Tissue connecting muscle to bone has become inflamed
135
What is bursitis?
Inflammation of the fluid filled pads that act as cushions
136
What is Osteomyelitis?
Inflammation of bone caused by infection in the legs, arms, or spine
137
What are the three types of curvature in the spine?
Scoliosis - s shaped sway Lordosis- curved in Kyphosis- hunch back
138
What is ankylosing spondylitis?
Inflammatory arthritis affecting the spine and large joints
139
NSAIDS stands for?
Nonsteriodal anti inflammatory drug
140
What is Hyperventilation?
Hyperventilation is when you breathe too fast and exhale more than you take in. This results in lower levels of carbon dioxide in the blood
141
What is Dyspnoea
Difficulty or uncomfortable breathing / shortness of breath
142
What is Dysphagia?
Difficulty with swallowing
143
What is Dysarthria?
Difficulty with speaking
144
What is apnoea?
It’s the absence of breathing
145
What is Tachynoea?
Abnormally rapid rate of breathing
146
What is Bradypnoea?
Abnormally slow rate of breathing
147
What is peak expiratory flow?
Greatest rate of airflow achieved during forced expiration beginning with lungs fully inflated
148
What is hypercapnia?
Co2 levels in blood are high
149
What are cheyne stokes respirations?
Abnormal respirations
150
What is the medical term for nose bleed?
Epistaxis
151
What causes Rhinitis?
It’s when the mucous membranes are inflamed in the nose
152
What is HRTI or URTI?
Upper respiratory tract infection
153
What does COAD stand for?
Chronic Obstructive Airways Disease
154
What does COPD stand for?
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
155
What is the medical term for producing or containing pus?
Purulent
156
What causes compartment syndrome?
The pressure inside a particular fascial compartment of the leg or limb is elevated to a point where it can cause restriction of blood flow and nerve damage
157
What does Parasthesia mean?
Pins and needles
158
What does Hypesthesia mean?
Diminished sensation/ nerve damage
159
What are the blood types?
A, B, AB and O with rhesus negative and positive.
160
What is an indication of increasing intercranial pressure?
Change in level of consciousness
161
Intercranial pressure doesn’t include
Tinnitus- ringing in the ears
162
What causes haemoptysis?
When there is blood in the respiratory tract causing the person to cough up blood.
163
What does FBC stand for?
Full blood count
164
What is haemoglobin?
Is an iron containing compound in the blood cells
165
What causes anaemia?
It’s due to the low iron intake which results in inadequate red blood cells in the bone marrow
166
What does a red cell count mean?
Estimation of the number of red blood cells in per litre of blood
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What is a packed cell volume?
It is a measure of the % of red blood cells to the total blood volume
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Mean cell volume is
The estimate of the volume of red blood cells
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White cell - Leukocyte differential count provided what?
An estimate of the number of 5 main types of white blood cells
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What are the 5 white blood cells?
Lymphocytes Eosinophils Basophils Monocytes Neutrophils Platelet count
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What does DELIRIUM stand for?
Drugs Electrolyte disturbances Lack of drugs Infection Reduced sensory input Intercranial Urinary problems or intestinal problems Myocardial and pulmonary
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What is diverticulitis?
Inflammation of the colon
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What is diaphoresis?
Excessive sweating
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What does ISBAR stand for?
Identify Situation Background Assessment Request
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What does PQRSTU stand for?
Precipitating/ provoking Quality/ description Region/ radiation Severity Timing/ duration- frequency Understanding from the patients side
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Structures of the skin are:
Epidermis Dermis Subcutaneous Muscle
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What are the 2 types of wounds
Intentional Unintentional
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What are the wound descriptions
Laceration Abrasion Contusion Puncture Burns Ulcers
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What are the 5 types of shock?
Hypovolemic Cardiogenic Neurogenic Septic Anaphylactic