Medical Ethics and Law 1 Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

Four domains of the GMC’s Good Medical Practice

A

Knowledge, skills and performance
Safety and quality
Communication, partnership and teamwork
Maintaining trust

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2
Q

GDPR

A

New General Data Protection Regulations

Based around 6 data protection principles and provides a range of rights for individuals

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3
Q

Personal data is defined by the GDPR as…

A

any information related to an identified or identifiable natural person

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4
Q

The data protection principles of GDPR state that personal data must…

A

Be processed lawfully, fairly and in a transparent manner
Be processed for specified, explicit and legitimate purposes and not in any manner incompatible with those purposes
Be adequate, relevant and limited to what is necessary in relation to the purposes
Be accurate and up to date
Must not be kept for longer than is necessary
Be secure

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5
Q

Situations in which confidentiality can be breached

A
With the patient’s consent
With other medical practitioners in the patient’s interest
Statutory requirements* (e.g. in court)
Protection of other persons**
In the public interest*** 
Child abuse
  • prevention, detection and prosecution of serious crime
  • *e.g. if someone has been assaulted, the attacker may assault someone else so the police should be told
  • **terrorism, murder, culpable homicide, rape
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6
Q

The GMC is regulated by…

A

The Professional Standards Authority

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7
Q

Responsibilities of the GMC

A

To produce the medical register (its membership)
To oversee and certify the appropriateness of medical education
To ensure doctors are fit to practice (by publishing Good Medical Practice - its ethical and professional guidance)

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8
Q

Medical negligence

A

A lack of reasonable skill and care as a result of which the patient suffers

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9
Q

Consequentialism teaches that…

A

The moral worth of an action is determined by its outcome

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10
Q

Deontology

A

The opposite of consequentialism

The morality of an action is based on weather the action itself is right or wrong

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11
Q

Utilitarianism

A

A type of consequentialism

Aims to maximise pleasure/ happiness and minimise pain/ unhappiness for the individual and society as a whole

“the greatest good for the greatest number”

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12
Q

Autonomy

definition and concepts based on it

A

Promotes the right to self determination

the basis for confidentiality, informed consent and capacity

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13
Q

Considerations within the principle of justice

A

Fairness/equity (e.g. non-discrimination)

Individual vs. population (e.g. rationing, there are finite resources in the NHS)

The law

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14
Q

When does life begin according to the HFEA (human fertilisation and embryology authority) act?

A

At 14 days when the primitive streak appears
Before this point the embryo could divide to form twins so cannot be considered ONE life

After this point embryo testing cannot be performed

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15
Q

UK age of viability

A

24 weeks

birth before = miscarriage
birth after = preterm birth (so must resuscitate)

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16
Q

Euthanasia definition

A

the deliberate taking of another person’s life to relieve their suffering

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17
Q

Assisted suicide definition

A

the situation where a competent person ends their own life but with the assistance of another person to perform the act, for example by providing the means to do so

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18
Q

advanced decision

A

details treatment refusal where it would not be possible to communicate wishes

Treatments being refused and the situation must be named

Legally binding

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19
Q

Advanced statement

A

explains wishes by talking or writing about them to anyone involved in your care or family

Not legally binding

20
Q

a secret agreement made between clinicians and family members to hide the diagnosis of a serious or life-threatening illness from the patient.

21
Q

DNACPR forms are…

aND THEIR PURPOSE

A

Not a legal document
A record of a decision

Provide guidance for clinicians who may not know the patient

(patients must be aware or relatives if patient lacks capacity)

22
Q

Legality of withdrawal of treatment

A

Patient’s decision IF THEY HAVE CAPACITY
(continuing unwanted treatment is a criminal offence)

IF NO CAPACITY - it is the doctor’s duty to treat in the patient’s best interests
(this can mean withdrawing treatment if it is not able to provide a quality of life the patient would find acceptable)

23
Q

When is “letting die” medically acceptable?

A
  1. Medical technology is USELESS
    - treatment would be futile/ unnecessarily burdensome
  2. Patient validly REFUSES medical technology
    * If neither of the above is satisfied = medical negligence
24
Q

the act of deliberately ending a person’s life to relieve suffering

25
the act of deliberately assisting or encouraging another person to kill themselves.
Assisted suicide * physician assisted suicide involves a doctor prescribing lethal drugs
26
The mental health (care & treatment) (Scotland) act 2003 provides...
Civil compulsory powers to... - detain - assess - treat
27
What ages can be detained under The mental health (care & treatment) (Scotland) act 2003?
Anyone but if <18... | need child/adolescent specialist
28
An emergency detention certificate (EDC)
Authorises detention for up to 72 hours
29
A short-term detention certificate (STDC)
Authorises detention for up to 28 days
30
Compulsory Treatment Order (CTO)
Authorises detention for up to six months
31
Nurses holding power
Authorises detention for up to two hours
32
Criteria for detention under The mental health (care & treatment) (Scotland) act 2003. All must apply to legally detain a patient (there is some variation btw the orders but in general...)
Mental disorder Significant impairment of Decision making ability (SIDMA) for medical treatment about mental disorder Significant risk to health, safety or welfare of the person or safety of any other person Treatment available Order necessary
33
Does The mental health (care & treatment) (Scotland) act 2003 cover treatment for physical disorders?
Medical treatment for an unrelated physical disorder is not authorised by the Act. Treatment for a physical disorder (e.g. head injury, chest infection) that is directly causing the mental disorder would be authorised (Otherwise, consider use of Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000)
34
Criteria for clinical assessment of capacity
``` Communication - can they communicate through any means? Understanding - can they weigh the evidence? Retention of information - "what did I tell you?" Decision - is the decision clear and consistent? ```
35
The Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000 allows intervention in what areas?
Welfare Financial and property Physical illness
36
a way to understand whether a service is meeting defined standards of best practice
A clinical audit "does this service reach a predetermined standard?"
37
a way to define or measure current practice within a service
A service evaluation "what standard does this service achieve?"
38
The role of the Research Governance Framework is to...
improve research quality and safeguard the public by: enhancing ethical and scientific quality promoting good practice reducing adverse incidents and ensuring lessons are learned forestalling poor performance and misconduct
39
What must you do before you begin a study?
Find a research sponsor Get ethics approval through an ethics review by NRES research ethics committees Apply through the integrated research application system (IRAS) Get research and development (R&D) approval
40
Examination of a victim or accused of sexual assault
Retain clothing from incident Establish points of contact Swab for saliva, semen, blood Comb head hair and pubic hair fingernail swabs +/- clippings Document injuries (may be defensive injuries e.g. scratches) Samples for toxicology (e.g. drugs/alcohol) Examine skin around genitalia and anus Sexual swabs (of vulva, vagina, cervix, penis, buttocks, anus, rectum) Document and photograph
41
Sexual Offences (Scotland) Act 2009 introduces the offences of...
"Sexual assault by penetration" - If a person with any part of their body or anything else without consent penetrates the vagina or anus. and "Other sexual offences" (both are centred around lack of consent)
42
"Other sexual offences include...
Sexual assault Sexual coercion Coercing a person into being present during a sexual activity Coercing a person into looking at a sexual image Communicating indecently Sexual exposure Voyeurism
43
How to protect yourself against complaints
Join a defence organisation Be aware of the local complaints procedure Be aware of the GMC's advice in "Good Medical Practice" Always try to act in the patient's best interests Do not be judgemental Clinical audit Peer review Act responsibly Do not break the law
44
The New Scottish Complaints Procedure from 1st April 2017
The complaints officer decides if a complaint can be dealt with informally If so it should be dealt with successful (as far as the complainer is concerned) within 5 days If using a formal procedure, must acknowledge within 3 working days Then give a full response (written, verbal or meeting) within 20 days Note that if they are dissatisfied they can contact the complaints officer again or go to the Public Services Ombudsman *Must comply with the Patients Rights Act
45
Patient's rights under the Patient's Rights Act. Patient's have the right to...
Have any complaint dealt with and properly investigated To know the outcome of any investigation into their complaint. To take their complaint to the independent Health Service Ombudsman if they are not satisfied with the way their complaint has been dealt with by the NHS. To make a claim for judicial review if they think they have been directly affected by an unlawful act or decision of an NHS body or individual compensation where they have been harmed by negligent treatment
46
What do NRES Research Ethics Committees (NRES RECs) review?
``` Relevance of trial Trial design Risks and benefits Protocol Suitability of the investigator and supporting staff Quality of the facilities Subject information Consent procedure Justification for including minors or adults unable to give informed consent Insurance/ indemnity Rewards or compensation for investigators and subjects Subject recruitment ```