Medical NCNZ state revision Flashcards
Revision (62 cards)
1
Q
- What is the main purpose of mannitol?
a. Reduce heart rate
b. Treat infection
c. Reduce intracranial pressure
d. Increase blood pressure
A
c. Reduce intracranial pressure
2
Q
- Which medication is an osmotic diuretic?
a. Furosemide
b. Mannitol
c. Salbutamol
d. Digoxin
A
b. Mannitol
3
Q
- What condition does mannitol help manage?
a. COPD
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Increased ICP
d. Asthma
A
c. Increased ICP
4
Q
- What is pulmonary hypertension?
a. Low pressure in lung arteries
b. High blood pressure in systemic circulation
c. High pressure in lung arteries
d. A clot in the pulmonary vein
A
✅ Answer: c
5
Q
- Which is NOT a sign of pulmonary hypertension?
a. Exertional dyspnea
b. Syncope
c. Edema
d. Bradycardia
A
✅ Answer: d
6
Q
- A key auscultation finding in pulmonary hypertension is:
a. S3 heart sound
b. Crackles in the base
c. Loud P2
d. Wheezing
A
✅ Answer: c
7
Q
- What causes CO₂ retention in COPD patients?
a. Kidney failure
b. Inability to exhale CO₂ effectively
c. Excess oxygenation
d. High respiratory rate
A
✅ Answer: b
8
Q
- A danger of CO₂ retention is:
a. Hypertension
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
A
✅ Answer: c
9
Q
- What is a late sign of increased ICP?
a. Tachypnea
b. Cushing’s triad
c. Mydriasis only
d. Diaphoresis
A
✅ Answer: b
10
Q
- Which is NOT part of Cushing’s triad?
a. Bradycardia
b. Irregular breathing
c. Hypertension
d. Tachycardia
A
✅ Answer: d
11
Q
- In COPD, what is the recommended oxygen saturation target?
a. 100%
b. 95–97%
c. 88–92%
d. Below 85%
A
✅ Answer: c
12
Q
- What is the danger of high-flow oxygen in a COPD patient?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hypercapnia
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Increased sputum
A
✅ Answer: b
13
Q
- Which of the following is a preventer medication for asthma?
a. Salbutamol
b. Ipratropium
c. Fluticasone
d. Prednisone
A
✅ Answer: c
14
Q
- What is a key nursing priority during an acute asthma attack?
a. Teach inhaler use
b. Monitor urine output
c. Administer salbutamol
d. Elevate legs
A
✅ Answer: c
15
Q
- Which medication is used to treat fluid overload in heart failure?
a. Digoxin
b. Furosemide
c. Propranolol
d. Enalapril
A
✅ Answer: b
16
Q
- In heart failure, daily weight monitoring is important to:
a. Track blood pressure
b. Detect arrhythmias
c. Monitor fluid retention
d. Prevent infection
A
✅ Answer: c
17
Q
- Which of the following is most associated with cor pulmonale?
a. Left-sided heart failure
b. COPD
c. Renal failure
d. Stroke
A
✅ Answer: b
18
Q
- A patient with cor pulmonale would likely show:
a. Pulmonary edema
b. Hepatomegaly and ankle swelling
c. Seizures
d. Productive cough with blood
A
✅ Answer: b
19
Q
- What is the first step in the Sepsis Six bundle?
a. Administer antibiotics
b. Take blood cultures
c. Start oxygen
d. Give fluids
A
✅ Answer: c
20
Q
- What medication is used to treat seizures that may result from increased ICP?
a. Furosemide
b. Phenytoin
c. Midazolam
d. Paracetamol
A
✅ Answer: b
21
Q
- Which of the following is a sign of CO₂ retention?
a. Restlessness and confusion
b. Bradycardia and dry mouth
c. Pale skin and high BP
d. Seizures and cold extremities
A
✅ Answer: a
22
Q
- Which medication improves contractility in heart failure?
a. Furosemide
b. Digoxin
c. Enalapril
d. Propranolol
A
✅ Answer: b
23
Q
- What is the function of inhaled salbutamol in asthma?
a. Reduce inflammation
b. Open airways quickly
c. Prevent infections
d. Thin mucus
A
✅ Answer: b
24
Q
- Why should neck flexion be avoided in a patient with increased ICP?
a. It worsens oxygenation
b. It reduces CSF drainage
c. It increases venous return
d. It causes bradycardia
A
✅ Answer: b
25
25. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for sepsis?
a. Keep the patient NPO
b. Administer antipyretics first
c. Begin IV fluids promptly
d. Delay antibiotics until all tests are back
✅ Answer: c
26
26. Which sign is most specific to right-sided heart failure?
a. Pink frothy sputum
b. Orthopnea
c. Peripheral edema
d. Crackles in lungs
✅ Answer: c
27
27. What nursing advice is appropriate after administering fluticasone?
a. Rinse mouth to prevent thrush
b. Lie flat for 30 minutes
c. Drink water immediately
d. Repeat puff after 5 seconds
✅ Answer: a
28
28. Which medication is commonly used in both COPD and asthma?
a. Salbutamol
b. Digoxin
c. Mannitol
d. Phenytoin
✅ Answer: a
29
29. What complication can result from unmanaged increased ICP?
a. Stroke
b. Brain herniation
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Renal failure
✅ Answer: b
30
30. Why do COPD patients often appear barrel-chested?
a. Due to fluid retention
b. Due to long-term steroid use
c. Due to hyperinflation of the lungs
d. Due to collapsed alveoli
✅ Answer: c
31
1. Which is the most classic symptom of a myocardial infarction (MI)?
a. Sudden sharp abdominal pain
b. Central chest pain radiating to the left arm
c. Right lower quadrant pain
d. Pain relieved by deep breathing
✅ Answer: b
32
2. What is the priority medication for a suspected MI?
a. Salbutamol
b. Morphine
c. Aspirin
d. Omeprazole
✅ Answer: c
33
3. Which ECG change is commonly seen in an acute MI?
a. Sinus bradycardia
b. Peaked T waves
c. ST segment elevation
d. Flattened P waves
✅ Answer: c
34
4. A patient with MI develops cool, clammy skin and low BP. What complication may be occurring?
a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Cardiogenic shock
c. Stroke
d. Anaphylaxis
✅ Answer: b
35
5. What is the primary cause of hypovolemic shock?
a. Systemic infection
b. Loss of vascular tone
c. Severe blood or fluid loss
d. Heart muscle damage
✅ Answer: c
36
6. A sign of early hypovolemic shock is:
a. Bradycardia
b. Bounding pulses
c. Cold, clammy skin
d. Decreased respiratory rate
✅ Answer: c
37
8. Anaphylaxis is best defined as:
a. Mild allergic reaction
b. Systemic inflammatory response
c. Life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction
d. Local skin irritation
✅ Answer: c
38
9. Which medication is first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?
a. Chlorphenamine
b. Adrenaline (epinephrine)
c. Salbutamol
d. Hydrocortisone
✅ Answer: b
39
10. Which of the following symptoms most strongly indicates anaphylaxis?
a. Sneezing and watery eyes
b. Hives and mild wheezing
c. Swelling of lips, stridor, hypotension
d. Nausea and vomiting
✅ Answer: c
40
1. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of Type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a. Insulin resistance in peripheral tissues
b. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
c. Excessive insulin production
d. Hepatic overproduction of glucose
✅ Answer: b
41
2. In left-sided heart failure, pulmonary symptoms occur due to:
a. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues
b. Blood backing up into systemic circulation
c. Increased pressure in the pulmonary veins
d. Reduced renal perfusion
✅ Answer: c
42
3. What is the primary physiological issue in asthma?
a. Collapse of alveoli
b. Infection of bronchi
c. Reversible airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction
d. Loss of lung compliance
✅ Answer: c
43
4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly seen in renal failure?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypernatremia
d. Hypocalcemia
✅ Answer: b
44
5. What triggers the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
a. Low potassium levels
b. Low blood pressure or high blood osmolality
c. High glucose levels
d. Increased oxygen saturation
✅ Answer: b
45
6. In hypovolemic shock, why does blood pressure drop?
a. Cardiac output increases
b. Systemic vascular resistance decreases
c. Blood volume is significantly reduced
d. There is an increase in heart rate
✅ Answer: c
46
7. Which of the following occurs during anaphylaxis?
a. Vasoconstriction and hypertension
b. Systemic vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
c. Decreased histamine release
d. Decreased cardiac output and bradycardia
✅ Answer: b
47
8. What is the underlying pathophysiology of COPD?
a. Recurrent pneumonia
b. Chronic inflammation causing narrowing of airways and alveolar destruction
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Fibrotic lung tissue
✅ Answer: b
48
10. Which of the following is most characteristic of sepsis?
a. Localized swelling and redness
b. A normal immune response
c. Dysregulated systemic inflammatory response
d. Hypoglycemia and slow pulse
✅ Answer: c
49
1. A pH of 7.30, PaCO₂ of 50 mmHg, and HCO₃⁻ of 24 mmol/L indicates:
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic acidosis
✅ Answer: b
50
2. Which of the following is a cause of metabolic acidosis?
a. Vomiting
b. Diuretic use
c. Diarrhea
d. Hypoventilation
✅ Answer: c
51
3. Which ABG values indicate uncompensated metabolic alkalosis?
a. pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 40 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 30 mmol/L
b. pH 7.31, PaCO₂ 55 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 27 mmol/L
c. pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 50 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 26 mmol/L
d. pH 7.35, PaCO₂ 30 mmHg, HCO₃⁻ 20 mmol/L
✅ Answer: a
52
4. What is a common cause of respiratory alkalosis?
a. Renal failure
b. Diabetic ketoacidosis
c. Anxiety with hyperventilation
d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
✅ Answer: c
53
5. In metabolic alkalosis, the body compensates by:
a. Hyperventilation
b. Hypoventilation
c. Increasing bicarbonate excretion
d. Decreasing CO₂ production
✅ Answer: b
54
6. Which organ is primarily responsible for regulating bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻)?
a. Liver
b. Lungs
c. Kidneys
d. Heart
✅ Answer: c
55
8. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), what is the expected ABG result?
a. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Respiratory acidosis
✅ Answer: c
56
9. Which of the following is a sign of severe acidosis?
a. Tachypnea
b. Bradycardia
c. Seizures
d. Polyuria
✅ Answer: a
57
10. What is the normal pH range for arterial blood?
a. 6.8–7.4
b. 7.0–7.3
c. 7.35–7.45
d. 7.45–7.55
✅ Answer: c
58
1. Who receives the anti-D injection in Rh incompatibility?
a. The Rh-positive baby
b. The Rh-negative mother
c. Both mother and baby
d. The Rh-positive father
b. The Rh-negative mother
59
2. When is anti-D immunoglobulin routinely administered during pregnancy?
a. At 20 weeks
b. At 36 weeks
c. At 28 weeks
d. After birth only
c. At 28 weeks
60
3. What is the purpose of administering anti-D to an Rh-negative mother?
a. To protect the mother from anemia
b. To prevent postpartum hemorrhage
c. To prevent her immune system from attacking future Rh-positive pregnancies
d. To treat Rh disease in the baby
c. To prevent her immune system from attacking future Rh-positive
61
4. After birth, when should anti-D be administered if the baby is Rh-positive?
a. Within 12 hours
b. Within 24 hours
c. Within 72 hours
d. Only if symptoms appear
c. Within 72 hours
62
5. In which of the following situations would anti-D NOT be required?
a. Rh-negative mother, Rh-positive baby
b. Rh-negative mother, Rh-negative baby
c. Rh-negative mother at 28 weeks gestation
d. Rh-negative mother after trauma in pregnancy
b. Rh-negative mother, Rh-negative baby
