Medical Surgical Nursing Flashcards
(195 cards)
1
Q
1- Estimate the burn size using the rule of nines, if the client burned at anterior chest, abdomen and left arm:
a) 27%
b) 36%
c) 9%
d) 18%
A
a) 27%
2
Q
2- What is the main route of transmission of this hepatitis A virus:
a) Sexual contact
b) Fecal oral
c) Blood
d Milk product
A
b) Fecal oral
3
Q
3- A nurse caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis must be especially alert for complications such as pulmonary embolism. Which findings suggest pulmonary embolism:
a) Nonproductive cough and abdominal pain
b) Hypertension and lack of fever
c) Bradypnea and bradycardia
d) Chest pain and dyspnea
A
d) Chest pain and dyspnea
4
Q
4- A client is undergoing an extensive diagnostic workup for a suspected GI problem. The nurse discovers that the client has a family history of ulcer disease. Which blood type also is a risk factor for duodenal ulcers:
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
A
d) Type O
5
Q
5- The primary mode of transmission for hepatitis B is:
a) Sexual contact
b) The oral – fecal
c) Contaminated food or milk products
d) Blood
A
d) Blood
6
Q
6- The pain associated with Myocardial Infarction (MI), is due to:
a) Impending circulatory collapse
b) Extracellular electrolyte imbalance
c) Left ventricular overload
d) Insufficient oxygen reaching the heart muscles
A
d) Insufficient oxygen reaching the heart muscles
7
Q
7- Which of the following clinical manifestation would be an early and most sensitive indicator of deterioration in the client’s neurologic status?
a) Widening pulse pressure
b) Decrease in the pulse pressure
c) Otorrhea and rihnorrehea
d) Decrease in level of consciousness
A
d) Decrease in level of consciousness
8
Q
8- All of the following may induce angina pectoris EXCEPT:
a) Light meal
b) Exposed for cold
c) Stress or emotion upset
d) Physical exercise
A
a) Light meal
9
Q
9- Evaluation of the effectiveness of cardiac nitrates is based on:
a) Relief of angina pain
b) Decrease in blood pressure
c) Improved cardiac output
d) Dilation of superficial blood vessels
A
a) Relief of angina pain
10
Q
10- Which of the following is a false statement in relation to ECG :
a) The P wave is represents depolarization of the atrium.
b) The QRS wave is represents repolarization of the ventricle.
c) The T wave follows the S wave and represents ventricular relaxation.
d) The U wave represents repolarization of purkinje fibers.
A
b) The QRS wave is represents repolarization of the ventricle.
11
Q
12- All of the following is considered as a clinical manifestation of hypovolemia, EXCEPT:
a) Decrease skin turgor
b) Hypotension
c) Oliguria
d) Strong, rapid pulse
A
d) Strong, rapid pulse
12
Q
13- Which if the following is/are complication of fluid therapy:
a) Hypotension
b) Circulatory overload
c) Allergic reaction
d) All of the above
A
b) Circulatory overload
13
Q
14- All of the following considered as the most common life threatening complication for a patient with renal failure EXCEPT:
a) Acute pulmonary edema
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Metabolic alkalosis
d) Cardiac arrhythmia
A
c) Metabolic alkalosis
14
Q
15- After patient return from barium swallow the nursing action include:
a) Increase fluid intake
b) Keep pt. N.P.O until pass stool
c) Complete bed rest
d) Assess the level of consciousness
A
b) Keep pt. N.P.O until pass stool
15
Q
16- Which of the following does the liver require for the synthesis of prothrombin:
a) Vitamin B12
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d) Ketones
A
c) Vitamin K
16
Q
17- One of the functions of the gallbladder is:
a) Storage and production of bile
b) To store white blood cells
c) To produce vitamin D
d) To reabsorb bile salts
A
a) Storage and production of bile
17
Q
18- Which of the following occupations is at greatest risk for contracting hepatitis B:
a) Flight attendants
b) Fire fighters
c) Health care workers
d) Educators
A
c) Health care workers
18
Q
19- In a typical patient with cholecysitis, beside localized pain, in what other area might the patient report feeling pain:
a) Left upper arm
b) Neck or jaw
c) Lower abdomen
d) Right shoulder
A
d) Right shoulder
19
Q
20- The patient has a gallstone blocking the bile duct. with what symptoms will the patient report feeling pain:
a) Increased bilirubin levels in the blood
b) Increase in appetite
c) Weight gain
d) Constipation
A
a) Increased bilirubin levels in the blood
20
Q
21- In type II non-insulin diabetes mellitus (NIDDM), the patient demonstrates the following characteristics:
a) A need for insulin for life
b) Usually obesity at diagnosis
c) Islet cell antibodies
d) Decrease in insulin resistance
A
b) Usually obesity at diagnosis
21
Q
22- The nurse teaches the newly diagnosed patient with diabetes mellitus that which of that which of the following guidelines will decrease the body’s need for insulin:
a) Sleep
b) Exercise
c) Stress
d) Low-fat diet
A
b) Exercise
22
Q
23- Usually the first symptom associated with esophageal disease is:
a) Dysphagia
b) Pain
c) Malnutrition
d) Regurgitation
A
a) Dysphagia
23
Q
24- The most common complication of peptic ulcer disease is:
a) Hemorrhage
b) Perforation
c) Intractable ulcer
d) Pyloric obstruction
A
b) Perforation
24
Q
25- On physical examination the nurse should be looking for tenderness on palpation at Mc Burney’s point, which:
a) Left lower quadrant
b) Right lower quadrant
c) Left upper quadrant
d) Right upper quadrant
A
b) Right lower quadrant
25
26- A symptom or symptoms suggestive of acute appendicitis is/are:
a) Appositive rovsing
b) Increase abdominal pain with coughing
c) Tenderness around the umbilicus
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
26
27- Before a gastroscopy the nurses should inform the patient that:
a) He must fast for 6 to 8 hours before the exam
b) After gastroscopy, he will not be given anything to eat or drink until his gag reflex results
c) His throat will be sprayed with a local anesthetic
d) All of the above will be necessary
d) All of the above will be necessary
27
28- The purpose of the cilia is to:
a) Produce mucus
b) Contract smooth muscle
c) Phagocyte bacteria
d) Move the mucous
d) Move the mucous
28
29- Nursing responsibilities before the thoracentesis should include:
a) Encourage pt. to refrain coughing
b) Making sure that the pt. immobilized during the procedure
c) Seeing that the consent from has been explained and signed
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
29
30- Clinical manifestation of tonsillitis included:
a) Hypertrophy of tonsils
b) Repeated attacks of otitis media
c) Suspected hearing loss
d) All of the above
a) Hypertrophy of tonsils
30
31- The functional units of the kidneys are the:
a) Nephrons
b) Renal capsules
c) Renal pyramids
d) Convoluted tubules
a) Nephrons
31
32- An important function of the kidneys is:
a) Ammonia retention
b) Phosphate retention
c) Glucose elimination
d) Acid elimination
d) Acid elimination
32
33- A 73-year-old male patient has a urethral obstruction related to prostatic enlargement. The nurse is aware this may result in:
a) Urinary tract infection
b) Enuresis
c) Polyuria
d) Proteinuria
a) Urinary tract infection
33
34- A patient has asked the nurse what test the physician has ordered to measure the effectiveness of his or her renal function. Which is the appropriate response: a) Urine-specific gravity
b) Urine osmolality
c) Serum creatinine
d) Blood urea nitrogen to creatinine ratio
c) Serum creatinine
34
- A patient has asked the nurse what test the physician has ordered to measure
the effectiveness of his or her renal function. Which is the appropriate response:
a) Urine-specific gravity
b) Urine osmolality
c) Serum creatinine
d) Blood urea nitrogen to creatinine ratio
c
35
A male patient has a catheter, and the nurse suspects he has a bladder
infection. What may be the most likely cause of bladder infection in a patient
with a catheter :
a) Irrigation of the catheter
b) Maintenance of the closed drainage system
c) Emptying the Foley bag
d) Emptying the Foley bag without applying gloves
d
36
Which of the following symptoms are characteristic of Addison's disease :
a) Truncal obesity
b) Hypertension
c) Muscle weakness
d) “Moon” face
c
37
Which of the following menu items would be the best source of iodine, which
supports the function of the thyroid:
a) Eggs
b) Strawberries
c) Table salt
d) Red meat
c
38
Nursing care for the patient with hypothyroidism would include which action
as a priority :
a) Encourage the patient to participate in activities as tolerated .
b) Keep the patient's room temperature cool
c Provide frequent high-calorie meals
d) Teach about alcohol and stimulants
a
39
The nurse teaches the patient who is prescribed corticosteroid therapy that:
a) Her diet should be low protein with ample fat
b) There will be no change in appearance
c) She is at an increased risk for developing infection
d) She is at a decreased risk for development of thrombophlebitis and
thromboembolism
c
40
Which of the following proteins, common to the epidermis, is believed to play
a significant role in forming the outer barrier of the skin:
a) Keratin cells
b) Melanocytes
c) Merkel cells
d) Langerhans' cells
a
41
What makes up the largest portion of the skin:
a) Rete ridges
b) Epidermis
c) Dermis
d) Subcutaneous tissue
c
42
In a 75-year-old woman with a diagnosis of a CVA, which of the following
nursing assessments is indicative of a CVA :
a) Facial droop
b) Facial edema
c) Increase in blood pressure
d) Noncompliance with the treatment regimen
c
43
The electrical conduction of the heart usually originates in the SA node.
Which of the following sequences completes the conduction:
a) SA node to Bundle of HIS to AV node to Purkinjie fibers
b) SA node to AV node to Purkinjie fibers to Bundle of HIS
c) SA node to bundle of HIS to Purkinjie fibers to AV node
d) SA node to AV node to bundle of HIS to Purkinjie fibers
d
44
A patient is diagnosed as having damage to the layer of the heart responsible
for the pumping action. The nurse is aware the damage is in the:
a) Endocardium
b) Pericardium
c) Myocardium
d) Visceral pericardium
c
45
- A nurse finds the patient's systolic pressure as 122 mm Hg and the diastolic
pressure as 75 mm Hg. The pulse pressure would be:
a) 57
b) 60
c) 54
d) 47
d
46
- An adult patient has damage to the electrical conduction of the ventricles of
the heart. The nurse would expect to see changes in the:
a) P wave
b) U wave
c) QRS complex
d) T wave
c
47
- The most appropriate intervention for the nurse to take when a patient
develops chest pain related to angina is:
a) To discontinue the oxygen if in use
b) To have the patient walk to see if pain is relieved with activity
c) To have the patient sit or rest immediately
d) To remove the nitroglycerin patch immediately
c
48
- A patient with CHF is displaying symptoms such as dry hacking cough,
fatigue, and a slight increase in today's weight. The most appropriate position
for the patient to be placed in is:
a) Supine
b) Low Fowler's
c) High Fowlers with feet dangling
d) Left lateral
b
49
Which of the following defines orthopnea:
a) Difficulty ambulating
b) Difficulty breathing with movement
c) Difficulty breathing while sitting upright
d) Difficulty in breathing when lying flat
d
50
- The most reliable sign of cardiac arrest is :
a) Absence of pulse
b) Absence of breathing
c) Unconsciousness
d) ECG
a
51
The target goal for patient's blood pressure when being treated for
hypertension is:
a) 140/90 or lower.
b) 165/90 or lower.
c) 130/100 or lower.
d) 150/80or lower.
a
52
Treatment of scurvy :
a) Vit.b supplement.
b) Vit.c supplement.
c) Iron supplement.
d) Vit a supplement.
b
53
All of the following are etiologic factors of fluid volume deficit except:
a) Vomiting.
b) Diarrhea.
c) Renal failure.
d) Excessive sweating.
c
54
All of the following are complications postoperatively except:
a) Hemorrhage.
b) Tonsillitis.
c) Wound infection.
d) Pain.
b
55
- All of the following are clinical manifestation of fluid volume excess except:
a) Edema.
b) Oliguria.
c) Distended neck veins.
d) Increase CVP.
b
56
All of the following nursing actions during postoperative nursing care except:
a) Observe incisional site.
b) Remove hairpins.
c) Remove jewelry and prostheses.
d) Assess all vital signs.
a
57
- Signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock are all of the following except:
a) Tachycardia.
b) Hypertension.
c) Pallor and cyanosis.
d) Tachypnea
b
58
- Which of the following is a form of radiography:
a) Fluoroscopy.
b) Contrast medium.
c) C.T scan.
d) All of the above
d
59
- The examination that indicates physical inspection of the vagina and cervix
with palpation of uterus and ovaries is called:
a) A pap test.
b) Electrocardiography.
c) Pelvic examination.
d) Paracentesis.
c
60
Procedure that involves the insertion of needle between lumbar vertebra in
the spine but below the spinal cord itself is called:
a) Lumbar puncture.
b) Paracentesis.
c) Pelvic examination.
d) Electromyography.
a
61
A patient is prepared for hemodialysis he receive heparin before therapy
primarily to which of the following:
a) Relieve discomfort.
b) Prevent blood clotting.
c) Maintain blood pressure.
d) stimulate the production of urine.
b
62
Which of the following conditions doesn’t predispose to development renal
failure:
a) Mismatched blood transfusion.
b) Severe dehydration.
c) Septicemia.
d) Cerebrovascular accident (CVA).
d
63
Which of the following terms refers to disorder characterized by
"proteinuria, edema, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia ":
a) Pyelonephritis.
b) Intestinal cystitis.
c) Nephritic syndrome.
d) Glomerulonephritis.
c
64
After IVP the nurse should anticipate incorporating which of the following
measures into the client plan of care:
a) Maintaining bed res.
b) Encouraging adequate fluid intake.
c) Assessing hematuria.
d) Administering laxative
b
65
Patients who are receiving hemodialysis for ESRD(end stage renal failure)
are especially prone to develop:
a) Peritonitis.
b) Renal calculi.
c) Bladder infection.
d) Serum hepatitis.
d
66
The nurse should instruct the female to reduce the recurrent UTI as the
following:
a) Cleanse around perineum with front to back.
b) Wash genetalia with tub bath.
c) Drink a little amount of fluid.
d) Non of the above.
a
67
- Patient with head trauma should have all of the following treatment except:
a) IV line catheter.
b) IV fluid.
c) Sedatives.
d) Oxygen.
c
68
- Perioperative period means:
a) Total period before surgery.
b) Total period after surgery.
c) Total period of " before, during, after ".
d) Non of the above
c
69
In case of bacterial meningitis the CSF examination will be:
a) Low protein level.
b) Low glucose level.
c) Clear appearance.
d) Decrease CSF pressure.
b
70
In case of viral meningitis the CSF examination will be:
a) Low protein level.
b) Low glucose level.
c) Clear appearance.
d) Decrease CSF pressure
a
71
- All of the following are potential complications of meningitis except:
a) Seizures.
b) Cerebral infarction or abscess.
c) Myocardial infarction.
d) Subdural effusion
c
72
All of the following clinical manifestation of acute glomerulonephritis except:
a) Brown colored urine.
b) Weight loss.
c) Malaise.
d) Hypertension
b
73
- Kerning's sign is a manifestation of:
a) William's tumer encephalitis.
b) Acute rheumatic fever.
c) Encephalitis.
d) Meningitis.
d
74
The nurse is expecting fracture of bone for patient the sign would be all
except:
a) Absence of normal activity.
b) Tenderness.
c) Loss of sensation.
d) All of the above
c
75
ECG is done to the patient with chest to assess:
a) Stress of heart rate.
b) Change of the rhythm.
c) The decreased blood supply to particular part of the heart.
d) All of the above
d
76
Health teaching to a diabetic patient will be on:
a) Diet, oral hypoglycemic agents, weight loss, and feeding.
b) Diet, insulin, exercise, and feeding.
c) Diet, hypoglycemic agents, exercise, and feeding.
d) About complications.
c
77
Reacting to penicillin:
a) Anaphylactic shock.
b) Vomiting
c) Nausea
d) Non of the above
a
78
- Cystitis patient should be encouraged to pass urine:
a) 2-3 hours.
b) 2-3 hourly and 2 times at night.
c) 2-3 times around the clock.
d) Anyone of above according to patient's schedule.
a
79
The best position postoperatively to maintain patient airway:
a) Lateral position with neck extended.
b) Supine position.
c) Semifowler position.
d) Trendlenburg position
a
80
The nurse assigned to care a patient after gastric resection in the recovery
room in stable condition. During your assessment for hypovolemic shock the sign
you would expect to note if this complication occur:
a) Hypertension.
b) Cyanosis.
c) Oliguria.
d) Tachypnea
b
81
Paralytic ileus is a frequent complication of postoperative abdominal
surgeries , according to the physician order and your own assessment data base a
planned intervention would be to:
a) Administer p.o fluids only.
b) Insert N.G.T (Nasogastric tube).
c) Insert a rectal tube
d) Listen to the bowel sounds.
d
82
From your knowledge of casting procedure, you understand that a wet cast
should be placed on a firm surface for the first a few hours:
a) Handed only with the palms of the hands.
b) Left along to set for at least 3 hours.
c) Pedaled to lessen of irritation to the patient.
d) Non of the above.
a
83
Nursing responsibilities for the preoperative period would include notifying
the physician if the:
a) Erythrocytes count is 6 million/1 cc.
b) Temperature is 99F orally.
c) Hemoglobin is 14 gm/ 100ml.
d) Urine reports indicates Ketonuria.
c
84
Following a radical mastectomy patient should be positioned on:
a) On her operative side.
b) On her un operative side.
c) On semifowler with her affected arm flat on bed
d) On semifowler with her affected arm elevated.
85
The major postoperative complication following cholecystectomy is:
a) Paralytic ileus.
b) Thrombophlebitis.
c) Pneumonia
d) Hemorrhage
a
86
A 30 years old patient has burns on the front and back of both his legs and
arms the appropriate percentage of that has been involved of his total body
surface area (TBSA) is:
a) 27%
b) 36%
c) 45%
d) 54%
d
87
Following to total hip replacement, immediately post operative you would
expect orders to include:
a) Head of bed elevated to 45 degree angle.
b) Operative leg maintained in abduction.
c) Buck's traction unit 1 hip can be put through range of motion.
d) Turn on operative side only immediately postoperatively
c
88
26- A 21 years old female patient asking when should she do the breast self
examination during the month the nurse should answer:
a) Any time you think of it.
b) At the same time each month
c) On the first day of your menstrual cycle
d) On the last day of your menstrual cycle
d
89
Me Harlan has right sided hemiparesis the nurse help him to walk by:
a) Standing at his left side and holding his arm
b) Standing at his left side and holding one arm around his waist
c) Standing at his right side and holding holding his arm
d) Standing at his right side and holding one arm around his waist
d
90
Mr. Gibbs has rheumatoid arthritis and is prone to skin breakdown , he is
also somewhat immobile because of his arthritic pain which of the following is
best intervention for his skin integrity:
a) He should be allowed to sit up on chair 4 hours intervals
b) The care provider should keep the head of his bed in high fowler's position to
increase his circulation
c) A written schedule of turning and positioning Mr. Gibbs should kept
d) He should perform pelvic muscle training exercises several times a day
b
91
With advancing age which of the following normal physiological change in
sensory functions occur:
a) Decrease sensitivity to glare
b) Increase number of taste buds
c) Difficulty discrimination bowel sounds
d) Decreased sensitivity to pain
a
92
Mr. Harvey , age 54 , is admitted with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure
secondary to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD] . the physician
orders sublingual nitroglycerin , 0.4 mg PRN , for chest pain , whine
administering the nitroglycerin , the nurse should :
a) Tell Mr. Harvey to hold the tablet under his tongue and let it dissolve .
b) Tell Mr. Harvey to swallow the tablet with water .
c) Apply nitroglycerin ointment to Mr. Harvey’s chest .
d) Mix the nitroglycerin with applesauce for Mr. Harvey to eat.
a
93
- Mr. Bell is an 80 year old , man , admitted to the hospital with a urinary tract
infection UTI . Which of the following should the nurse understand when giving
medications to this client:
a) Larger doses of most medications will be required by Mr. Bell because of
absorption problems.
b) Increased plasma binding decreases the possibility of drug toxicity in Mr. Bell.
c) Drugs are excreted more slowly from the body as a result of changes in Mr. Bell
kidney function.
d) Urinary antiseptics are of little value to Mr. Bell because of his age.
c
94
An electrolyte deficiency that affect the heart muscular activity :
a) K "Potassium"
b) Ca "Calcium"
c) Both a and b
d) Mg "Magnesium"
c
95
Patient with hemopneumothorax had a ICD ( inter costal drainage ) in the
right side what position the patient should be to promote drainage:
a) Left side [ unaffected ]
b) Right side [ affected ]
c) Semi sitting
d) Leg raised
b
96
Common cause of death in burns :
a) Hemorrhage
b) Neurogenic shock
c) Sepsis
d) Hypovolemic shock
d
97
Common cause of death in burns :
a) Hemorrhage
b) Neurogenic shock
c) Sepsis
d) Hypovolemic shock
d
98
The difference in close & open fracture is that , in open fracture you have to
watch for :-
a) Infection
b) Hemorrhage
c) Inflammation
d) Pain
b
99
A wound is inflamed if there is :
a) Redness, and tenderness
b) Pain & swelling
c) Pus
d) All of the above
d
100
Which of the following is/are signs and symptoms of inflammatory process:
a) Redness
b) Swelling
c) Loss of function
d) All of the above
d
101
To detect the effectiveness of a resuscitation [CPR] :
a) Constricted pupils
b) Dilated pupils
c) Non-reacting pupils
d) A symmetrical pupils
a
102
Glomerulonephritis is most diagnosed with:-
a) Urea
b) Creatinine
c) Uric acid
d) Cholesterol
b
103
One of the vital care after cholecystectomy :
a) Bed rest
b) Low fat diet
c) Low Cholesterol diet
d) Low protein diet
b
104
- Pulmonary tuberculosis:
a) To start anti TB drugs as prescribed
b) Detection of possible contacts
s) Scrupulous screening .
d) Highly contagious
e) All of the above
c
105
X-ray of upper GI tract , the nurse should instruct the patient to take :
a) Laxative previous day
b) NPO 8-12 hours
c) High fat diet
d) Normal diet
d
106
- In case of penetrating abdominal injury :
a) Hemorrhage
b) Peritonitis
c) Infection
d) Hypovolemic shock
b
107
Patient with spinal cord injury must be :
a) Not to move at all
b) Log rolled
c) Turn the back with support in the head
d) Non of the above
a
108
After spinal anesthesia , watch for :
a) Hypotension and headache
b) Fowler’s position to the optimum
c) Numbness of extremities
d) Analgesic
a
109
The cure for chronic renal failure is :
a) Dialysis
b) Kidney transplant
c) Diuretics
d) Force fluid
b
110
Hypoglycemia side effect :
a) Dizzy
b) Headache
c) Filthy odor
d) Vomiting
a
111
When caring for the elderly skin, special care must be taken because the
skin becomes:-
A. More dry
B. Less elastic
C. More vascular
D. All of the above
d
112
When caring for the elderly skin, special care must be taken because the
skin becomes:-
A. More dry
B. Less elastic
C. More vascular
D. All of the above
a
113
After a mastectomy , a patient returns from surgery with a portable suction
unit in place & a dry sterile dressing covering the site of incision . when
observing this patient for signs of bleeding , the nurse should :-
a) Inspect the bed clothes under the axillary area for signs of drainage .
b) Turn the client on the affected side to inspect for blood that may flow backward
c) Empty the measure output in the portable suction unit hourly
d) Reinforce the operative site with a pressure dressing and observe if any drainage
appears on the dressing .
c
114
- The normal fasting blood glucose rang mg per 100 ml . of venous blood is:
a) 60-80
b) 80-120
c) 100-150
d) 100-200
b
115
hen caring for a client who has an open reduction and internal fixation of
hip , the nurse encourages active leg and foot exercise of the unaffected leg every
2 hours to help to :-
a) Reduce leg discomfort .
b) Maintain muscle strength .
c) Prevent formation of clots .
d) Limit venous inflammation
c
116
Common signs and symptoms of jaundice include:
a) Ascites
b) Dermatitis
c) Icteric sclera
d) Dark-colored stools
c
117
- Patient with head injuries are not given sedative because these drugs may :-
a) Produce coma
b) Depress the patient’s respiration
c) Mask the patient’s symptoms
d) Lead to cerebral hemorrhage
c
118
Nursing care of person admitted with acute glomerulonephritis, should be
directed toward :-
a) Forcing fluids
b) Enforcing strict bed rest
c) Promoting diuresis
d) Increase sodium diet
c
119
All of the following is given to acute Glomerulonephritis patient except:
a) Low or restricted sodium diets
b) Complete bed rest
c) Protein diets
d) Non of the above
c
120
The nurse empties a portable wound suction device when it is only half full
because :
a) It is easier and faster to empty the unit when it is only half full
b) This facilitates a more accurate measurement of drainage output .
c) As fluid collects in the unit it exerts positive pressure , forcing drainage back up
the tubing and into the wound.
d) Their negative pressure in the unit lessens as fluid accumulates in it , interfering
with further drainage
c
121
- The main effect of excess calcium on the myocardium is :
a) Cardiac flaccidity
b) Tetany
c) Spastic contraction
d) Bradycardia
c
122
Which of the following vitamin increase the retention of calcium in the
blood :
a) Vit A
b) Vit B12
c) Vit. D
d Vit C
c
123
- Surgical patients should be taught to perform leg exercises for the main
purpose of :
a) Preventing muscle atrophy
b) Preventing joint degeneration
c) Improving circulation
d) Preventing boredom
c
124
When a patient is vomiting post-operatively , the most important nursing
objective is to prevent :-
a) Dehydration
b) Aspiration
c) Rupture of suture line
d) Metabolic acidosis
b
125
Which of the following is an appropriate diet for a patient with congestive
heart failure :
a) Low-calorie , high-residue diet with no caffeine
b) Low-calorie , low- residue diet with low Na
c) High-calorie , low-fat , low-protein diet
d) High –protein , no fat , no carbohydrate diet
b
126
Dietary control of patients with ulcers should include :
a) Taking antacids every hour
b) Eliminate highly seasoned food
c) Increase roughage in the diet
d) Increasing amount of carbohydrate
b
127
To obtain a truly estimation of the patient’s average blood pressure , your
nursing assessment should include :
a) Only one blood pressure reading
b) Serial reading , which should taken at the same time each day for 7 days
c) Serial reading , which should taken every 2 hours over 8 hour period for 2 days
d) Blood pressure reading on both arms should be taken sitting and standing once a
day for 2 days
b
128
The major nursing goals post-operative care of the cataract patient is to :
a) Prevent hemorrhage and stress on the sutures
b) Prevent hemorrhage and eye stress
c) Prevent increased intro-ocular pressure and to promote better visual acuity
d) Promote decreased intro-ocular pressure and to maintain a visible lens
b
129
Which of the following lab. test must be done on a patient with major
burns, prior to administration of antibiotics:
a) Complete blood account
b) Wound culture
c) Type and cross match
d) Sensitivity studies
b
130
In opened and close fracture , the nurse should be aware of which of the
following when open fracture is presented :
a) Mal-alignment
b) Infection
c) Bleeding
d) Pain
b
131
How long should the affected extremity be kept elevated after the
application of cast ?
a) When the leg is no longer painful
b) Until the cast is dry
c) For 24 hours after casting
d) For 72 hours after casting
b
132
When the skin , whole epidermis , dermis and the underlying structures are
affected in a burn , it is called :
a) First degree burn
b) Second degree burn
c) Third degree burn
d) Non of the above
c
133
The most common and serious complication of burns that often lead to
death is :-
a) Hypovolemic shock
b) Hypothermia
c) Sepsis .
d) Infection
a
134
When the patient is diaphoretic , there is tachycardia and decrease blood
pressure , he is experiencing :
a) Hypovolemic shock
b) Neurogenic shock.
c) Hypothermia
d) Septicemia
a
135
Which is the best aid to prevent breast cancer
a) Teaching women how to perform self breast exam
b) Public knowledge about chemotherapy
c) To eat fruits and vegetable only
d) Encourage women to perform self breast examination monthly
e) Both a and d
e
136
When assessing elderly for hydration , the nurse should check for the
skin’s:
a) Elasticity
b) Tone
c) Moisture
d) Color
a
137
In the hospital , isolation is indicated if the patient :
a) Staphylococcal pneumonia
b) Local staphylococcal infection
c) Puerperal fever
d) All are indicated
d
138
Which of the following complication is life threatening after a penetrating
abdominal injury :
a) Hemorrhage
b) Hypotension
c) Abdominal distention
d) All of the above
a
139
Which of the following is the immediate treatment for punctured wound:
a) Cleans the wound
b) Stop the bleeding
c) Remove the object from the wound
d) Give prophylactic anti-tetanu
b
140
When there is malfunction of the glomerular filter there is high secretion of:
a) Urea
b) Creatinine
c) Potassium
d) Protein
b
141
- In a nephritic syndrome , aside from clinical manifestation , what else can
the patient complain upon consultation:
a) Proteinuria
b) Oliguria
c) Dysuria
d) Polyuria
a
142
The most important nursing responsibility following head injury is :
a) Monitor vital signs and record
b) Monitor GCS –Glasgow coma scale
c) Observe for restlessness
d) Monitor urine out put
b
143
- Nursing management which is contraindicated for thrombophlebitis :
a) Encourage early ambulation
b) Deep breathing and coughing exercise
c) Massage the operative site i.e. leg calf muscle
d) Non of the above
c
144
Second degree burns involve:
a) Skin , dermis
b) Dermis , subcutaneous , muscle
c) Epidermis , dermis , subcutaneous
d) Epidermis only
a
145
Within 48 hours of burns , management is focused on :
a) Prevention of infection
b) Hydration
c) Prevent acidosis
d) Non of the above
b
146
Best diagnostic test for suspected leukemia is:
a) CBC
b) Blood chemistry
c) Bone marrow aspiration
d) Non of the above
c
147
Nursing responsibility on leukemia:
a) Ensure safety
b) Obtain blood samples regular
c) Non of the above
d) Prevent infection
d
148
When the patient is diagnosed with wilm's tumor , the nurse should :
a) Always keep bed rails up
b) Avoid palpation of abdomen
c) Observe foe nausea and vomiting
d) Non of the above
b
149
- Acid-base balance refers to the regulation of the concentration of:
a) Hydrogen ions
b) Sodium
c) Bicarbonates ions
d) Plasma protein
a
150
-Spinal fluid for culture :
a) Can be stored in the refrigerator for 48 hours
b) Can survive refrigeration for only 4-6 hours
c) Must be examined immediately
d) Will survive in a holding medium for 72 hours
c
151
The sulfonamide drugs for the treatment and the control of :
a) Respiratory infections
b) Skin infections
c) Urinary tract infections
d) Gastrointestinal infections
c
152
The drug of choice for treatment of an angina pectoris :
a) Nitroglycerin
b) Quinidine
c) Epinephrine
d) Dopamine
a
153
The most frequent causes of death in pneumonia patients are shock and:
a) Pulmonary embolism
b) Pulmonary edema
c) Pulmonary consolidation
d) Atelectasis
b
154
The major complications of inhalation anesthesia which the nurse should be
constantly aware of :
a) Circulatory depression only
b) Circulatory and respiratory depression
c) Respiratory and renal depression
d) Renal and circulatory depression
b
155
-The type of burn in which all the dermis and epidermis , is destroyed and
there is involvement of underlying structures is called :
a) Superficial or first degree burn
b) Partial thickness or second degree burn
c) Full-thickness or third degree burn
d) Fourth degree burn
c
156
While teaching diabetic patient to give himself insulin , you should stress
that injections should not be given in any one spot more often than every:
a) 36 hours
b) One week
c) Two weeks
d) Month
a
157
Which of the following dietary restrictions are usually indicated to
decrease edema in nephritic syndrome:
a) High protein , low calorie , and high sodium diet
b) High protein , high calorie , low on sodium diet
c) Low protein , low calorie, high vitamin diet
d) Low protein, high calorie , and sodium diet
b
158
To avoid the possible development of heart diseases following rheumatic
fever the patient must guard himself against infection :
a) Until the fever is gone
b) For one year
c) Until sedimentation rate is normal
d) For the rest of his life
b
159
Hypertension is a persistent elevation of systolic and diastolic pressure
above:
a) 140/90 mmhg
b) 150/190 mmhg
c) 160/100 mmhg
d) 160/110 mmhg
a
160
Signs of septic shock :
a) Cool & clammy skin
b) Bradycardia
c) Warm & dry skin
d) Non of the above
c
161
- Valve which control the blood flow from right atrium to right ventricle:
a) Bicuspid valve
b) Tricuspid valve
c) Mitral valve
d) Pulmonary artery
b
162
All of the following veins carry deoxygenated blood except:
a) Superior vena cava
b) Pulmonary veins
c) Cephalic veins
d) Inferior vena cava
b
163
The common complication after operation :
a) Fever
b) Pulmonary edema
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Non of the above
c
164
Diet in cirrhosis of liver without ascitis and swelling :
a) Low protein with multivitamins
b) High protein with vitamins B supplement
c) High protein with sodium restriction
d) High protein with diet .
a
165
Persistent sweating , hypotension , tachycardia with loss of fluid on blood
nurse would suspect :
a) Hypovolemic shock
b) Cardiogenic shock
c) Septic shock
d) Neurogenic shock
a
166
Signs of hyperglycemia :
a) Polyuria , polydipsia , loss of appetite
b) Acetone breath , flushed face , Polyuria
c) Polyuria, Polyarthritis, polyphagia
d) Non of the above
b
167
7- Pre-op medication is given :
a) 2 hours before operation
b) 45 min. before operation
c) Previous night of operation
d) As physician ordered
d
168
Complication of chemotherapy :
a) Bone marrow depression
b) Liver damage
c) Heart failure
d) Non of the above
d
169
An enlarged movable lymph node is a sign of:
a) Inflammation
b) Malignant
c) Normal lymph node
d) Any of the above
a
170
- After surgery , Nadia returns from recovery room with a nasogastric tube
in place following a gallbladder surgery, she continues to complain nausea which
action would the nurse take:
a) Call the physician immediately.
b) Administer the prescribed antiemetic.
c) Check the patency of the nasogastric tube for any obstruction.
d) Change the patient position.
c
171
Which is irrelevant in the pharmacologic management of a client with CVA:
a) Osmotic diuretics and corticosteroids are given to decrease edema.
b) Anticonvulsant given to prevent seizures.
c) Thrombolytic are most useful within 3 hours of an occlusive CVA.
d) Aspirin is used in acute management of complete stroke
b
172
Which is irrelevant in the pharmacologic management of a client with CVA:
a) Osmotic diuretics and corticosteroids are given to decrease edema.
b) Anticonvulsant given to prevent seizures.
c) Thrombolytic are most useful within 3 hours of an occlusive CVA.
d) Aspirin is used in acute management of complete stroke
b
173
– During the first 24 hour after thyroid surgery the nurse should include in
her care:
a) Checking the back and the sides of the operative dressing.
b) Supporting the head during mild range of motion exercise.
c) Encouraging the client to ventilate her feeling about the surgery.
d) Advising the client that she can resume her normal activities immediately.
a
174
Immediately after cholecystectomy the nursing action that should assume
the highest priority is:
a) Encouraging the client to take adequate deep breathings by mouth.
b) Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathing.
c) Change the dressing at least twice daily.
d) Irrigate the T tube frequently
b
175
All of the following are cardinal signs for nephritic syndrome except:
a) Proteinuria
b) Hypoalbuminemia
c) Hypocholesrolemia
d) Edema
c
176
Which of the followings is/are complication of blood transfusion:
a) Sepsis
b) Circulatory overload
c) Allergic reaction
d) All of the above
d
177
All of the following statements concerning leukemia are true except:
a) It can occur at any age
b) It is in most cases incurable and fatal
c) There is a rapid proliferation of leukocytes
d) It is the leading cause of death among adults
d
178
Which of the following is indicated or criteria for Vit B12 deficiency:
a) Neuropathic syndrome
b) Tachycardia
c) Weakness
d) Pallor
a
179
All of the following are causes of anemia except:
a) Pregnancy
b) Poor diet
c) Uterine bleeding
d) High protein diets
d
180
It is thought that which of the following nutritional factors contributes for
development of coronary artery disease:
a) Excessive intake of cholesterol
b) Inadequate intake of vitamins
c) Excessive ingestion of alcohol
d) Inadequate intake of proteins
a
181
All of the following may induce angina pectoris except:
a) Bed rest
b) Light meal
c) Stress or emotion upset
d) Both a and b
d
182
- Myocardial infarction is an ischemic event for myocardial muscle lead to:
a) Persistent chest pain
b) Dysnea
c) Sweating
d) All of the above
d
183
- Myocardial infarction is an ischemic event for myocardial muscle lead to:
a) Persistent chest pain
b) Dysnea
c) Sweating
d) All of the above
d
184
The goal of management of MI is to:
a) Relief of chest pain
b) Absence of complications
c) Non of the above
d) Both a and b
d
185
Cystitis is an inflammation of the bladder wall which characterized by:
a) Common in male than female
b) Stasis and urine retention exacerbate
c) Usually caused by viral infection
d) All of the above
b
186
The characteristics of client's vomiting with pyloric stenosis:
a) Bile and blood
b) Mucus and bile
c) Mucus and streaks of blood
d) All of the above
c
187
To diagnose a child with acute rheumatic fever it needs:
b) One major sign and one minor sign
b) One major and two minor
c) Two major signs, and two minor signs
d) Non of the above
b
188
Which of the following indicates respiratory acidosis:
a) PH 7.22, PCO2 55, HCO3 25 mEq/L
b) PH 7.28, PCO2 40, HCO3 15 mEq/L
c) PH 7.34, PCO2 35, HCO3 25 mEq/L
d) PH 7.40, PCO2 25, HCO3 30 mEq/L
a
189
The most common early metastasize region in Wilm's tumer is:
a) Bone
b) Stomach
c) Liver
d) Peri renal tissue
d
190
- All of the following are clinical manifestation of Wilm's tumer
(Nephroblastoma) except:
a) Abdominal pain
b) Firm non tender upper quadrant abdominal pain
c) Weight loss
d) Severe diarrhea
d
191
In the patient with nephritic syndrome the nurse should give:
a) Diet low in salt
b) Diet high in protein
c) Increase fluid intake
d) All of the above
e) Both a and b
e
192
0- All of the following are characteristics of diabetes mellitus except:
a) Polyuria
b) Polydipsia
c) Polyarthritis
d) Polyphagia
c
193
The symptom of Addison's disease result from dysfunction of:
a) Adrenal cortex
b) Adrenal medulla
c) Hypothalamus
d) Posterior pituitary gland
a
194
The symptom of Addison's disease result from dysfunction of:
a) Adrenal cortex
b) Adrenal medulla
c) Hypothalamus
d) Posterior pituitary gland
a
195
The surgery to have to a client's excess fat suction from the thighs for
cosmetic reasons is an example of which of the following categories of surgeries:
a) Elective
b) Optional
c) Required
d) Urgen
b
