Medical Terms Flashcards

(917 cards)

1
Q

Structural component of the nucleus, composed of nucleic acids and proteins

A

Chromatin

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2
Q

Threadlike structures within the nucleus, composed of a deoxyribonucleic acid molecule that carries heredity information encoded in genes (counted by each centromere)

A

Chromosome

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3
Q

Jelly-like substance found within the cell membrane, composed of proteins, salt, water, dissolved gases, and nutrients

A

Cytoplasm

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4
Q

Molecule that holds genetic information, capable of replicating in producing an exact copy of whenever the cell divides

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

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5
Q

Muscular wall that divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity

A

Diaphragm

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6
Q

Sum of all physical and chemical changes that take place in a cell or an organism

A

Metabolism

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7
Q

Cellular structure that provides a specialized function, such as the nucleus, ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, and lysosomes

A

Organelle

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8
Q

Study of the nature of diseases, their causes, development, and consequences

A

Pathology

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9
Q

Rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the walls of a tubular organ to propel its contents onward

A

Peristalsis

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10
Q

The study of the body at the cellular level is called ________

A

Cytology

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11
Q

Groups of cells that perform a specialized activity are called ___________

A

Tissues

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12
Q

The study of tissues is called _________

A

Histology

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13
Q

_________________ covers surfaces of organs, lines, cavities, and canals, forms tubes, and ducts, provides the secreting portions of glands, and makes up the epidermidis of the skin. It is composed of cells, arranged in a continuous sheet, consisting of one or more layers.

A

Epithelial tissue

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14
Q

_______________ supports and connects other tissues and organs. It is made up of diverse cell types, including fibroblasts, fat cells, and blood.

A

Connective tissue

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15
Q

_______________ provides the contractile tissue of the body, which is responsible for movement

A

Muscular tissue

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16
Q

_______________ transmit electrical impulses as it relays information throughout the entire body

A

Nervous tissue

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17
Q

_______________ are 4 divisions of the lower torso used to show topographical location

A

Quadrants

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18
Q

When homeostasis is disrupted in cells, tissues, organs, or systems are unable to function effectively, the condition is called _________

A

Disease

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19
Q

From a clinical standpoint disease is a _____________ or __________ condition that presents a group of signs, symptoms, and clinical findings

A

Pathological
Morbid

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20
Q

__________ are objective indicators that are observable

A

Signs

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21
Q

A ____________ is subjective and is experienced only by the patient

A

Symptom

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22
Q

____________ is the study of the cause or origin of a disease or disorder

A

Etiology

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23
Q

Establishing the cause and nature of a disease is called ___________

A

Diagnosis

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24
Q

A __________ is the prediction of the course of a disease and it’s probable outcome

A

Prognosis

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25
Any disease whose cause is unknown is said to be __________
Idiopathic
26
Substance, analyzed, or tested, generally, by means of laboratory methods
Analyte
27
Bursting open of a wound, especially a surgical abdominal wound
Dehiscence
28
Feverish ; pertaining to a fever
Febrile
29
Body defense against injury, infection, or allergy that is marked by redness, swelling, heat, pain, and sometimes loss of function
Inflammation
30
Diseased ; pertaining to a disease
Morbid
31
Pathological state, usually Fibro, resulting from the presence of micro organisms or their products in the bloodstream
Sepsis
32
Producing or associated with generation of pus
Suppurative
33
Visual examination of a body cavity or a canal using a specialized lighted instrument called an endoscope
Endoscopy
34
Visual examination of the organs of the pelvis and abdomen through very small incisions in the abdominal wall
Laparoscopy
35
Examination of the lungs, pleura, and pleural space with a scope inserted through a small incision between the ribs
Thoracoscopy
36
Common blood test, that enumerates red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets; measures hemoglobin; estimates red cell volume; and sorts white blood cells into five subtypes with their percentages
Complete blood count (CBC)
37
Common urine screening test that evaluates the physical, chemical, and microscopic properties of urine
Urinalysis
38
Radiographic technique in which x-rays are directed through the body to a fluorescent screen that displays continuous motion images of internal structures
Fluoroscopy
39
Representative tissue sample removed from a body site of microscopic examination, usually to establish a diagnosis
Biopsy
40
Ultra thin, slice of tissue cut from a frozen specimen for immediate pathological examination
Frozen section biopsy
41
Removal of a small tissue sample for examination using a hollow needle, usually attached to a syringe
Needle biopsy
42
Removal of a small core of tissue, using a hollow instrument
Punch biopsy
43
Removal of tissue using a surgical blade to shave elevated lesions
Shave biopsy
44
Removal of a part, pathway, or function by surgical, chemical destruction, electrocautery, freezing, or radio frequency
Ablation
45
Surgical joining of 2 ducts, vessels, or bowel segments to allow flow from one to another
Anastomosis
46
Destroy tissue by electricity, freezing, heat, or corrosive chemicals
Cauterize
47
Scraping of a body cavity with a spoon shaped instrument called a curette
Curettage
48
Incision made to allow the free flow or withdrawal of fluids from a wound or cavity
Incision and drainage (I&D)
49
Surgical technique employing a device that emits intense heat and powder at close range to cut, burn, vaporize, or destroy tissues
Laser surgery
50
Surgical removal of tissue in and extensive area surrounding the surgical site in an attempt to excise all tissue that may be malignant and decrease the chance of recurrence
Radical dissection
51
Partial excision of a bone, organ, or other structure
Resection
52
Generic term for an agent that stimulates development of male characteristics (testosterone and androsterone)
Androgen
53
Very small duct
Ductule
54
Pouch of skin in the male that contains the testicles
Scrotum
55
Formation of a complex substance by the compounds or elements
Synthesis
56
As the cells move towards the stratum corneum to replace the cells that have been sloughed off, they die, and become filled with a hard protein material called __________
Keratin
57
In the basal layer, special cells called ___________ produce a black pigment called __________
Melanocytes Melanin
58
Another name for dermis is _________
Corium
59
The subcutaneous layer is also called the _______________
Hypodermis
60
__________ occurs when the hairs of the scalp are not replaced because of death of the papillae
Alopecia
61
The half moon shaped area at the base of the nail is called the ___________
Lunula
62
____________ are areas of tissue that have been pathologically altered by injury, wound, or infection
Lesions
63
Lesions may affect tissue over an area of a definite size, called __________ or maybe widely spread throughout the body, called __________
Localized Systemic
64
_______________ are the initial reaction to pathologically altered tissue and may be flat or elevated
Primary skin lesions
65
_______________ are changes that take place in the primary lesion due to infection, scratching, trauma, or various stages of a disease
Secondary skin lesions
66
_______________ are the least serious type of burn because they injure only the top layers of the skin, the epidermis
First-degree burns (superficial)
67
_______________ are deep burns that damage, both the epidermis and part of the dermis, and may heal with little or no scarring
Second-degree burns (partial thickness)
68
_______________ the epidermidis and dermis are destroyed, and some of the underlying connective tissue is damaged, leaving the skin, waxy and chard with insensitivity to touch. The underlying bones, muscles, and tendons may also be damaged.
Third-degree burns (full thickness)
69
Skin grafting
Dermatoplasty
70
The formula for estimating the percentage of adult body surface area, affected by burns, is to apply the ______________
Rule of Nines - this method assigns values of 9% or 18% of service areas to specific regions - It is important to know the amount of the burned surface area because IV fluids for hydration are required to replace fluids lost from tissue damage
71
__________ are abnormal growth of new tissue that are classified as benign or malignant
Neoplasms
72
_______________ are non-cancerous growths, composed of the same type of cells as the tissue in which they are growing
Benign neoplasm’s
73
_______________ are composed of cells that are invasive and spread to remote regions of the body. These cells show altered function, altered appearance, and uncontrolled growth. They invade surrounding tissue.
Malignant neoplasms
74
Malignant cells from the primary tumor may enter blood and lymph vessels, and travel to remote regions of the body to form secondary tumor sites, a process called ____________
Metastasis
75
The presence of a malignant growth is the disease called ___________
Cancer
76
____________ is a treatment that stimulates the bodies on immune defenses to fight tumor cells
Immunotherapy Bio therapy
77
The _______________ a system of staging is used to identify the invasiveness of the malignant tumor
Tumor, Node, & Metastasis (TNM)
78
A _______ grading system is used to evaluate the appearance and maturity of malignant cells in a tumor. Pathologist commonly describe tumors by their grades of severity based on the microscopic appearance of their cells
Tumor
79
_______________ is the most common type of skin cancer and is a malignancy of the basal layer of the epidermidis, or hair follicles. This type of cancer is commonly caused by over exposure to sunlight. These tumors are locally invasive, but rarely metastasize.
Basal cell carcinoma
80
_______________ arises from skin that undergoes pathological hardening (keratinizing) of epidermal cells. It is an invasive tumor with potential for meta-stasis and occurs commonly in fair skinned white men over age 60.
Squamous cell carcinoma
81
Confined to its original site
In situ
82
_________________ is a neoplasm composed of abnormal melanocytes that commonly begin as a darkly pigmented mole
Malignant melanoma
83
Melanomas are diagnosed by __________ along with histological examination
Biopsy
84
Localized collection of pus at the site of an infection
Abscess
85
Inflammatory disease of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles of the skin with characteristic lesions that include blackheads, inflammatory, papules, pustules, nodules, and cysts ; usually associated with seborrhea
Acne
86
Partial or complete loss of hair, resulting from normal aging, and endocrine disorder, a drug reaction, anti-cancer, medication, or a skin disease
Alopecia
87
Form of intraepidermal carcinoma, characterized by red brown scaling or crusted lesions that resemble a patch of psoriasis or dermatitis
Bowen disease
88
Diffuse, acute infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue
Cellulitis
89
Pigmentary skin discoloration, usually occurring and yellowish brown patches or spots
Chloasma
90
Typically small skin lesion of acne vulgaris caused by accumulation of keratin, bacteria, and dried sebum plugging and excretory duct of the skin
Comedo
91
Infection of the skin caused by fungi
Dermatomycosis
92
Skin discoloration, consisting of a large, your regularly formed hemorrhagic area with colors, changing from blue to black to green to brown or yellow
Ecchymosis
93
Chronic skin inflammation, characterized by erythema, papules, vesicles, pustules, scales, crusts, scabs, and possibly itching
Eczema
94
Redness of the skin caused by swelling of the capillaries
Erythema
95
Damaged tissue, following a severe burn
Eschar
96
Bacterial skin infection, characterized by isolated pustules that become crusted and rupture
Impetigo
97
Thickened area of the epidermis or any horny growth on the skin
Keratosis
98
Small brown macules, especially on the face and arms, brought on by sun exposure, usually in a middle-aged or older person
Lentigo
99
Unnatural paleness, or absence of color in the skin
Pallor
100
Infestation with lice, transmitted, by personal contact, or common use of brushes, combs, and headgear
Pediculosis
101
Minute, pinpoint hemorrhage under the skin
Petechia
102
Skin ulceration caused by prolong pressure from lying on one position that prevents blood flow to the tissues, usually in bedridden patients ; also known as decubitus ulcer
Pressure ulcer
103
Intense itching
Pruritus
104
Chronic skin disease characterized by circumscribed red patches, covered by thick, dry, silvery, adherent scales, caused by excessive development of the basal layer of the epidermidis
Psoriasis
105
Any of several bleeding disorders, characterized by hemorrhage into the tissues, particularly beneath the skin, or mucous membranes, producing ecchymosis or petechia
Purpura
106
Contagious skin disease, transmitted by the itch mite, commonly through sexual contact
Scabies
107
Fungal skin infection, whose name commonly indicates the body part affected ; also called ringworm
Tinea
108
Allergic reaction of the skin, characterized by the irruption of pale red, elevated patches, called wheals over hives
Urticaria
109
Epidermal growth caused by a virus ; also known as warts
Verruca
110
Localized loss of skin pigmentation, characterized by milk, white patches
Vitiligo
111
Any test in which a suspected allergen or sensitizer is applied to, or injected into the skin to determine the patient’s sensitivity to it
Skin test
112
Skin test that identifies suspected allergens by subcutaneous injecting small amounts of extracts of the suspected allergens and observing the skin for a subsequent reaction
Intradermal skin test
113
Skin test identify suspected allergens by topical application of the substance to be tested, usually on the forearm, and observing for a subsequent reaction
Patch skin test
114
Skin test identify suspected allergens by placing a small quantity of the suspected allergen on a lightly scratched area of the skin
Scratch skin test
115
Chemical removal of the outer layers of the skin to treat acne scarring, and general keratosis
Chemical peel
116
Removal of necrotized tissue from a wound by surgical, excision, enzymes, or chemical agents
Debridement
117
Rubbing using wire brushes or sandpaper, to mechanically scrape away the epidermidis
Dermabrasion
118
Tissue destruction by means of high frequency, electric current ; also called electrodesiccation
Fulguration
119
Use of subfreezing temperatures to destroy or eliminate abnormal tissue, such as tumors, warts, and unwanted, cancers, or infected tissue
Cryosurgery
120
Surgical procedure to transplant, healthy tissue by applying it to an injured site
Skin graft
121
Transplantation of healthy tissue from one person to another person ; also called homograft
Allograft
122
Transplantation of healthy tissue from one side to another site in the same individual
Autograft
123
Transplantation of artificial skin produced from collagen, fibers arranged in a lattice pattern
Synthetic graft
124
Transplantation from a foreign donor (usually a pig) and transferred to a human ; also called heterograft
Xenograft
125
The interior lining of the stomach is composed of the mucous membranes, and contains numerous macroscopic longitudinal folds called ___________ that gradually unfold as the stomach feels
Rugae
126
Orange colored, or yellowish pigment in bile
Bilirubin
127
Mass of masticated food, ready to be swallowed
Bolus
128
Denotes a gland that secretes its products through excretory ducts to the surface of an organ or tissue, or into a vessel
Exocrine
129
Circular band of muscle fibers that constricts, a passage or close, is a natural opening of the body
Sphincter
130
Nutrients in chyme are absorbed through microscopic finger like projections called ________
Villi
131
__________ is the uppermost segment of the small intestine and is about 10 inches long
Duodenum
132
__________ is the second part of the small intestine, and is about 8 feet long
Jejunum
133
__________ what is the third part of the small intestine and is about 12 feet long
Ileum
134
The __________ is the largest glandular organ in the body and weighs approximately 3 - 4 lbs
Liver
135
_______________ is the branch of medicine concerned with digestive diseases
Gastroenterology
136
An ________ is a circumscribed, open sore, on the skin, or mucous membranes within the body
Ulcer
137
_______________ develops in the parts of the G.I. tract that are exposed to hydrochloric acid and pepsin, an enzyme secreted in the stomach that begins the digestion of proteins
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
138
_______________ is a chronic inflammatory disease of the large intestine and rectum commonly begins in the rectum or sigmoid colon and extends upward into the entire colon. It is characterized by profuse, watery, diarrhea, containing varying amounts of blood, mucus, and pus.
Ulcerative colitis
139
A _______ is a protrusion of any organ, tissue, or structure through the wall of the cavity in which it is naturally contained
Hernia
140
An ______________ is a partial or complete blockage in the small or large intestine that prevents forward flow of digestive products
Intestinal obstruction
141
Complete obstruction of any part of the intestine constitutes a medical emergency and requires rapid diagnosis and medical treatment within a _________ period to prevent death
24 hour
142
The two forms of intestinal obstructions include mechanical blockage also called _______ , where contents of the intestine are prevented from moving forward due to an obstacle or barrier that blocks the lumen. The second form is non-mechanical blockage also called ____________ , where peristaltic movement is lacking or absent, and the contents are no longer propelled through the intestine.
Ileus Paralytic ileus
143
Enlarged veins in the mucous membrane of the anal canal are called _____________
Hemorrhoids
144
____________ is an inflammatory condition of the liver
Hepatitis
145
Hepatitis A also called _________
Infectious hepatitis
146
Hepatitis B and hepatitis C are also called _____________
Serum hepatitis
147
Extreme constipation
Obstipation
148
_______________ is a condition in which small, blister like pockets, develop in the inner lining of the large intestine and may balloon through the intestinal wall
Diverticulosis
149
____________ cancer arises from the epithelial lining of the large intestine
Colorectal
150
Lack or loss of appetite, resulting in the inability to eat
Anorexia
151
Inflammation of the appendix, usually due to obstruction or infection
Appendicitis
152
Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdomen
Ascites
153
Rumbling, or gurgling noises that are audible at a distance, and caused by passage of gas through the liquid contents of the intestine
Borborygmus
154
Physical wasting that includes loss of weight and muscle mass ; commonly associated with aids and cancer
Cachexia
155
Presents for formation of gall stones in the gallbladder or common bile duct
Cholelithiasis
156
Scarring or dysfunction of the liver caused by chronic liver disease
Cirrhosis
157
Spasm in any hollow or tubular soft organ, especially in the colon, accompanied by pain
Colic
158
Chronic inflammation, usually in the ileum, but possibly affecting any portion of the intestinal tract ; also called regional enteritis
Crohn’s disease
159
Act of swallowing
Deglutition
160
Inflammation of the intestine, especially the colon, that may be caused by ingesting water or food, containing chemical, irritant, bacteria, protozoa, or parasites, which results in bloody diarrhea
Dysentery
161
Epigastric discomfort felt after eating ; also called indigestion
Dyspepsia
162
Inability or difficulty in swallowing ; also called aphagia
Dysphagia
163
Producing gas from the stomach, usually with a characteristic sound ; also called belching
Eructation
164
Fecal concretion
Fecalith
165
Gas in the G.I. tract ; expelling of air from a body orifice, especially the anus
Flatus
166
Backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to a malfunction of the sphincter muscle at the inferior portion of the esophagus
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
167
Offensive or bad breath
Halitosis
168
Vomiting of blood from bleeding in the stomach or esophagus
Hematemesis
169
Symptom complex marked by abdominal pain and altered bowel function for which no organic cause can be determined ; also called spastic colon
Irritable bowel syndrome
170
Symptom complex of the small intestine characterized by the impaired passage of nutrients, minerals, or fluids through the intestinal villi into the blood or lymph
Malabsorption syndrome
171
Passage of dark colored, tarry stools, due to the presence of blood altered by intestinal juices
Melena
172
Excessive accumulation of fat that exceeds the bodies, skeletal and physical standards, usually an increase of 20% or more above ideal body weight
Obesity
173
Body mass index of 40 or greater, which is generally 100 or more pounds over ideal body weight
Morbid obesity
174
Formation of white spots or patches on the mucous membrane of the tongue, lips, or cheek, caused primarily by irritation
Oral leukoplakia
175
Stricture or narrowing of the pyloric sphincter at the outlet of the stomach, causing an obstruction that blocks the flow of food into the small intestine
Pyloric stenosis
176
Backward flowing as in the return of solids or fluids to the mouth from the stomach
Regurgitation
177
Passage of fat, in large amounts in the feces, due to failure to digest and absorb it
Steatorrhea
178
Endoscopy of the esophagus stomach and duodenum
Upper G.I
179
Endoscopy of the colon, sigmoid colon, and the rectum and anal canal
Lower G.I.
180
Panel of blood test that identify the specific virus causing hepatitis by testing serum using antibodies to each of these antigens (hepatitis A, hepatitis, V, or hepatitis C)
Hepatitis panel
181
Group of blood tests that evaluate liver injury, liver function, and conditions often associated with the biliary tract
Liver function tests
182
Measurement of the level of bilirubin in the blood
Serum bilirubin
183
Test to identify microorganisms or parasites present in feces
Stool culture
184
Applying a substance called guaiac to a stool sample to detect the presence of occult blood in the feces ; also called Hemoccult
Stool guaiac
185
Radiographic examination of the rectum in: following enema administration of barium sulfate into the rectum
Barium enema
186
Radiographic, examination of the esophagus, stomach, and small intestine, following oral administration of barium sulfate ; also called esophagram and upper G.I. series
Barium swallow
187
Radiographic images taken of the gallbladder after administration of a contrast, material, containing iodine, usually in the form of a tablet
Cholecystography
188
Endoscopic procedure that provides radiographic visualization of the bile and pancreatic ducts to identify partial or total obstructions, as well as stones, cysts, and tumors
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
189
Radiographic examination of bile duct structures
Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
190
Radiographic examination of the salivary glands and ducts
Sialography
191
Procedure that involves insertion of a nasogastric tube through the nose into the stomach to relieve gastric, distention by removing gas, food, or gastric secretions ; to instill medication, food, or fluids ; or to obtain a specimen for laboratory analysis
Nasogastric intubation
192
Surgical connection of the ileum and rectum, after total colectomy, as is sometimes performed in treatment of ulcerative colitis
Ileorectal
193
Surgical connection of two points of the intestines ; also called Enteroenterostomy
Intestinal
194
Group of procedures that treat, morbid obesity, a condition which arises from severe accumulation of excessive weight, as fat tissue, and the resultant health problems
Bariatric surgery
195
Upper stomach near the esophagus is stapled vertically to reduce it to a small pouch. A band is the inserted that restricts food consumption and delays. It’s passage from the couch, causing a feeling of fullness.
Vertical band gastroplasty
196
Stomach is first stable to decrease it to a small pouch. Next the jejunum is shortened and connected to the small stomach pouch, causing the base of the duodenum leading from the non-functioning portion of the stomach to form a Y configuration. This configuration decreases the path of food through the intestine, reducing absorption of calories and fat.
RGB
197
Creation of an opening of a portion of the colon through the abdominal wall to its outside surface in order to divert fecal flow to a colostomy bag
Colostomy
198
Procedure for crushing a stone and eliminating, it’s fragments either surgically or using ultrasonic shockwaves
Lithotripsy
199
Use of shockwaves as a non-invasive method to break up stones in the gallbladder or biliary ducts
Extracorporeal shockwave
200
Excision of a polyp
Polypectomy
201
Incision of the longitudinal and circular muscles of the pylorus ; used to treat hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Pyloromyotomy
202
Tasteless, colorless, odorless, gas, produced by body cells during the metabolic process
Carbon dioxide
203
Tough, elastic connective tissue that is more rigid than ligaments, but less dense than bone
Cartilage
204
Any hair like structure
Cilia
205
Moving or spreading out of a substance at random, rather than by chemical reaction, or application of external forces
Diffuse
206
Moist tissue layer, lining hollow organs and cavities of the body that open to the environment ; also called mucosa
Mucous membrane
207
Thin layer of tissue that covers internal body cavities, the cells of which secrete a fluid that keeps the membrane moist ; also called serosa
Serous membrane
208
Within the nasopharynx is a collection of lymphoid tissue, known as ______________
Adenoids
209
The space between the right and left the lungs is called the ________________
Mediastinum
210
_______________ is more commonly called breathing, which is a largely involuntary action that moves air into and out of the lungs in response to changes in blood O2 & CO2 levels and nervous stimulation of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles
Pulmonary ventilation
211
_______________ , which is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli, and the blood in the pulmonary capillaries
External respiration
212
_____________________ , which occurs when blood, aided by the cardiovascular system, transports CO2 to the lungs and O2 to the body cells
Transport of respiratory gases
213
_______________ , which is the exchange of O2 & CO2 between the body cells and the blood in systemic capillaries
Internal respiration
214
_______________ is the medical specialty concerned with disorders of the respiratory system
Pulmonology
215
___________________ includes respiratory disorders that produce a chronic partial obstruction of the air passages. The patient finds it difficult to breathe, especially upon exertion, and usually exhibit a chronic cough. The three major disorders include asthma, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
216
__________ produces spasms in the bronchial passages that may be sudden and violent and lead to dyspnea
Asthma
217
In asthma, if the usual measures do not reverse the bronchospasms, the condition is referred to as ____________________
Status asthmaticus
218
_______________ is an inflammation of the bronchi caused mainly by smoking and air pollution
Chronic bronchitis
219
_______________ is characterized by decreasing elasticity of the alveoli. The alveoli expand, but are unable to contract to their original size. The air that remains trapped in the chest results in a characteristic “barrel chested” appearance.
Emphysema
220
_______________ is an active infectious respiratory disease. Three major viral types are responsible : type A, type B, and type C
Influenza (flu)
221
Any abnormal fluid in the pleural cavity, the space between the visceral and parietal pleura, is called a ____________________
Pleural effusion
222
_______________ is the listening of sound made by organs of the body using a stethoscope
auscultation
223
_______________ is the gentle tapping of the chest with the fingers, and listening to the resultant sounds to determine the position, size, or consistency of the underlying structures
Percussion
224
____________ is a non-inflammatory fluid that resembles serum, but with slightly less protein
Transudate
225
____________ is usually high in proteins and often contains blood and immune cells
Exudate
226
____________ is a communicable disease caused by the bacterium - mycobacterium tuberculosis
Tuberculosis
227
____________ is any inflammatory disease of the lungs that may be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi
Pneumonia
228
__________________ is a type of pneumonia, closely associated with AIDs
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
229
_______________ is a hereditary disorder of the exocrine glands that causes the body to secrete extremely thick mucus. This second mucus clogs ducts of the pancreas and digestive tract. It also blocks ducts of the sweat glands, causing the skin to become highly salty. In the lungs, mucus blocks airways and impede, natural disease fighting mechanisms causing repeated infections.
Cystic fibrosis
230
________________ is a condition in which the lungs no longer function effectively, threatening the life of the patient. The alveoli fill with fluid caused by inflammation , and then collapse, making oxygen exchange impossible. This usually occurs as a result of very serious lung conditions, such as trauma, severe, pneumonia, and other major infections that affect the entire body or blood.
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
231
_______________ it is a form of respiratory distress syndrome and is caused by insufficient surfactant, which causes the alveoli to collapse and breathing becomes labored
Hyaline membrane disease (infant respiratory distress syndrome)
232
Excessive acidity of body fluids
Acidosis
233
Absence of the sense of smell
Anosmia
234
Temporary loss of breathing
Apnea
235
Sleeping disorder, in which breathing stops repeatedly for more than 10 seconds, causing measurable bloody oxygenation
Sleep apnea
236
Condition caused by insufficient intake of oxygen
Asphyxia
237
Collapsed or airless state of the lung, which may be acute or chronic, and affect, all or part of a lung
atelectasis
238
Repeated breathing pattern characterized by fluctuation in the depth of respiration, first, deeply, then shallow, then not at all
Cheyne stokes respiration
239
Ease with which lung tissue can be stretched
Compliance
240
Head cold ; upper respiratory infection
Coryza
241
Abnormal respiratory sound heard on auscultation, caused by exudates, spasms, hyperplasia, or when air enters, moisture filled alveoli ; also called rale
Crackle
242
Common childhood condition involving inflammation of the larynx, trachea, bronchiole passages, and sometimes lungs
Croup
243
Displacement of cartilage dividing the nostrils
Deviated, nasal septum
244
Severe, life-threatening infection of the epiglottis and supraglottic structures that occurs most often in children between 2 - 12 years of age
Epiglottitis
245
Nosebleed ; nasal hemorrhage
Epistaxis
246
Enlargement of the terminal phalanges of the fingers and toes, commonly associated with pulmonary disease
Finger clubbing
247
Deficiency of oxygen in the blood
Hypoxemia
248
Deficiency of oxygen in the tissues
Hypoxia
249
Acute infectious disease characterized by a cough that has a “whoop” sound
Pertussis
250
Inflammation of the pleural membrane characterized by a stabbing pain that is intensified by coughing or deep breathing
Pleurisy
251
Disease caused by inhaling dust particles, including coal dust, stone, dust, iron, dust, and asbestos particles
Pneumoconiosis
252
Accumulation of extravascular fluid in the lungs, tissues and alveoli, caused most commonly by heart failure
Pulmonary edema
253
Abnormal breath sound heard on auscultation
Rhonchus.
254
High-pitched, harsh, adventitious breath, sound caused by a spasm or swelling in the larynx or an obstruction in the upper airway
Stridor
255
Complete, unexpected and unexplained death of an apparently normal, healthy infant, usually less than 12 months of age
Sudden infant death syndrome (crib death)
256
Whistling or sighing, sound heard on auscultation that results from narrowing of the lumen of the respiratory passageway
Wheeze
257
Intradermal test to determine tuberculin sensitivity based on a positive reaction or the area around the test site becomes red and swollen
Mantoux test
258
Noninvasive method of monitoring the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen
Oximetry
259
Test of sleep, cycles and stages using continuous recordings of brain waves, electrical activity of muscles, eye-movement, respiratory rate, blood pressure, blood, oxygen saturation, heart rhythm, and sometimes direct observation of the person during sleep using a video camera
Polysomnography
260
Multiple tests used to evaluate the ability of the lungs to take in and expel air, as well as perform gas exchange across the alveolocapillary membrane
Pulmonary function test
261
Measurement of ventilatory ability by assessing lung capacity and flow, including the time necessary for exhaling the total volume of inhaled air
Spirometry
262
Visual examination of the bronchi, using an endoscope inserted through the mouth and trachea for direct viewing of structures, or for projection on a monitor
Bronchoscopy
263
Visual examination of the larynx, to detect tumors, foreign bodies, nerve, or structural injury, or other abnormalities
Laryngoscopy
264
Visual examination of the mediastinal structures, including the heart, trachea, esophagus, bronchus, thymus, and lymph nodes
Mediastinoscopy
265
Test that measures partial pressure of oxygen, carbon dioxide, PH, and HCO3 level of arterial blood sample
Arterial blood gas
266
Microbial test used to identify disease causing organisms of the lower respiratory tract, especially those that cause pneumonia’s
Sputum culture
267
Measurement of the amount of salt in sweat
Sweat test
268
Test used to identify pathogens, especially Group A streptococci
Throat culture
269
Irritating, or washing out of an organ, stomach, bladder, bowel, or body cavity with a stream of water or other fluid
Lavage
270
Irrigation of the antrum in chronic or non-responsive sinusitis
Antral lavage
271
Positioning a patient, so that gravity aids in the training of secretions from the bronchi and lobes of the lungs
Postural drainage
272
Excision of part of the pleura of the lung, usually parietal
Pleurectomy
273
Excision of a lung
Pneumectomy
274
Reconstructive surgery of the nose to correct deformities, or for cosmetic purposes
Rhinoplasty
275
Surgical repair of a deviated nasal septum usually performed when the septum is encroaching on the breathing passages or nasal structures
Septoplasty
276
Surgical puncture and drainage of the pleural cavity
Thoracentesis Pleurocentesis Thoracocentesis
277
Surgical procedure in which an opening is made in the neck, and into the trachea into which a breathing tube may be inserted
Tracheostomy
278
Portion of the nervous system, that regulates, involuntary actions, such as heart rate, digestion, and peristalsis
Autonomic nervous system
279
Thin, flattened structure ; term used to describe the leaf shaped structures that compose a heart valve
Leaflet
280
Tubular, space, or channel within any organ or structure of the body ; space within an artery, vein, intestine, or tube
Lumen
281
Narrowing of the lumen of a blood vessel, that limits blood flow, usually as a result of diseases, medication’s, or physiological processes
Vasoconstriction
282
Widening of the lumen of a blood vessel caused by the relaxing of the muscles of the vascular walls
Vasodilation
283
State of being sticky or gummy
Viscosity
284
The walls of large arteries have three layers to provide toughness and elasticity, which include : ______________ , ______________ , & _______________
Tunica externa Tunica media Tunica intima
285
The heart is found in a sac, called the ________________
Pericardium
286
The heart is composed of 3 distinct tissue layers : ______________ , ____________ , & ____________
Endocardium Myocardium Epicardium
287
_______________ , a serous membrane that lines the 4 chambers of the heart and its valves, and is continuous with the endothelium of the arteries and veins
Endocardium
288
_______________ , the muscular layer of the heart
Myocardium
289
_______________ , the outer most layer of the heart
Epicardium
290
The sequence of the 4 structure is responsible for the conduction of a contraction impulse is :
SA Node AV Node Bundle of His Purkinje fibers
291
The _____ wave is the depolarization of the atria
P
292
The ______ complex is the depolarization of the ventricles
QRS
293
The ____ wave is the repolarization of the ventricles
T
294
______________ measures the force of blood against the arterial walls during 2 phases of a heartbeat : the systolic phase is when the blood is forced out of the heart, and the diastolic phase is when the ventricles are filling with blood
Blood pressure
295
What are 5 factors that influence blood pressure : _______________ _______________ _______________ _______________ _______________
Resistance of blood flow in blood vessels Pumping action of the heart Viscosity or thickness of blood Elasticity of arteries Quantity of blood in the vascular system
296
_______________ is the medical specialty concerned with disorders of the vascular system
Cardiology
297
_______________ is a hardening of arterial walls that causes them to become thickened and brittle. This hardening results from a buildup of a plaque like substance, composed of cholesterol, lipids, and cellular debris. Eventually the plaque hardens causing the vessel to lose elasticity. The lumen narrows as the plaques become larger. After a while, it becomes difficult for blood to pass through the blockage.
Arteriosclerosis
298
A procedure in which the surgeon opens the site and removes the plaque, thereby resuming normal blood flow. It is commonly used to treat, carotid, artery, disease, peripheral arterial disease, and diseases of the renal artery and aortic arch
Endarterectomy
299
Failure of the coronary arteries to deliver an adequate supply of blood to the myocardium is called ________________
Coronary artery disease (CAD)
300
In this procedure, a deflated balloon is passed through a small incision in the skin, and into the diseased blood vessel. When the balloon inflate, it presses the occluding material against the lumen to force open the channel after the procedure the physician deflates and removes the balloon. Sometimes the physician will place a hollow send mesh stent on the balloon and positioned it against the artery wall.
Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)
301
An invasive procedure that involves rerouting blood around the occluded area, using a vein graph that bypasses the obstruction.
Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
302
_______________ is an inflammation of the inner lining of the heart and its valves. It may be non-infective in nature, caused by thrombi formation, or infective caused by various microorganism’s.
Endocarditis
303
Bacteria traveling in the bloodstream may lodge in the weakened heart tissue and form small masses called ____________ composed of fibrin and platelets
Vegetations
304
_______________ are enlarged, twisted, superficial veins that develop when the valves of the veins do not function properly, and fail to prevent the backflow of blood. Blood accumulates in the vein becomes engorged and distended. Excess fluid eventually seeps from the vein, causing swelling in the surrounding tissues.
Varicose veins
305
Localized abnormal dilation of a vessel, usually an artery
Aneurysm
306
Condition of being stopped for bringing to a stop
Arrest
307
Loss of effective cardiac function, which results in cessation of circulation
Cardiac arrest
308
Cessation of circulation of blood due to ventricular standstill, or fibrillation
Circulatory arrest
309
In ability of the heart to maintain a normal sinus rhythm, possibly including a rapid or slow beat or skipping a beat ; also called dysrhythmia
Arrhythmia
310
Soft blowing sound heard on auscultation, possibly due to vibrations associated with the movement of blood, valvular action, or both ; also known as a murmur
Bruit
311
Any disease or weakening of heart muscle that diminishes cardiac function
Cardiomyopathy
312
Narrowing of a vessel, especially the aorta
Coarctation
313
Calculation of how much blood a ventricle can eject with one contraction
Ejection fraction
314
Failure of the heart to supply in adequate amount of blood to tissues and organs
Heart failure
315
Quivering or spontaneous muscle contractions, especially of a heart, causing ineffectual contractions
Fibrillation
316
Arrest of bleeding or circulation
Hemostasis
317
Excessive amounts of lipids in the blood
Hyperlipidemia
318
Common disorder characterized by elevated blood pressure persistently exceeding 140 mmHg systolic or 90 mmHg diastolic
Hypertension
319
Hypertension in which there is no identifiable cause ; also called essential hypertension
Primary hypertension
320
Hypertension that results from an underlying, identifiable, commonly correctable cause
Secondary hypertension
321
Any heart disorder caused by prolonged hypertension, including left ventricular hypertrophy, coronary artery, disease, cardiac arrhythmias, and heart failure
Hypertensive heart disease
322
Implantable battery powered device that monitors and automatically corrects ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation by sending electrical impulses to the heart
Implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD)
323
Area of tissue that undergoes necrosis, following cessation of blood supply
Infarct
324
Local and temporary deficiency of blood supply due to circulation obstruction
Ischemia
325
Common and occasionally serious condition in which the leaflets of the mitral valve prolapse into the left atrium during system causing a characteristic murmur, heard on auscultation
Mitral valve prolapse (MVP)
326
Sensation that the heart is not beating normally, possibly including thumping, fluttering, skipped beats, or a pounding feeling in the chest
Palpitation
327
Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close after birth, allowing blood to flow from the aorta into the pulmonary artery
Patent ductus arteriosus
328
Circulation of blood through tissues or the passage of fluid through vessels of an organ
Perfusion
329
Congenital anomaly consisting of 4 elements: 1. Pulmonary artery stenosis. 2. Interventricular septal defect. 3. Transposition of the aorta, so that both ventricles empty into the aorta. 4. Right ventricular hypertrophy caused by increased workload of the right ventricle.
Tetralogy of Fallot
330
Slender or threadlike device used to hold open vessels, tubes, or an obstructed area
Stent
331
Passage of a catheter into the heart through a vein or artery to provide a comprehensive evaluation of the heart
Cardiac catheterization
332
ECG taken with a small portable recording system, capable of storing up to 24 hours of ECG tracings
Holter monitor test
333
Blood test that measures troponin T, troponin I, and creatinine kinase (CK-MB)
Cardiac enzyme studies
334
Series of tests used to assess risk factors of ischemic heart disease - Total cholesterol - High density lipoprotein - Low density lipoprotein - Triglycerides
Lipid panel
335
Radiographic imaging of the heart and blood vessels, after injection of a contrast dye
Angiography
336
Angiography to determine the degree of obstruction of the arteries that supply blood to the heart
Coronary angiography
337
Angiography in which 2 radiographic images are obtained, the first one without contrast material in the second one after a contrast material has been injected, and then, compared by a computer that digitally subtract the images of soft tissues, bones, and muscles, leaving only the image of vessels with contrast
Digital subtraction angiography
338
Radiological examination of the aorta and its branches, following injection of a contrast medium via a catheter
Aortography
339
Noninvasive diagnostic method that uses ultrasound to visualize internal cardiac structures, and produce images of the heart
Echocardiography
340
Noninvasive adaptation of ultrasound technology, in which blood flow velocity is assessed in different areas of the heart
Doppler ultrasound
341
Imaging technique that provides a graphic display of heart sounds and murmurs during the cardiac cycle
Phonocardiography
342
Injection of a chemical irritant into a vein, to reduce inflammation and fibrosis that destroys the lumen of the vein
Sclerotherapy
343
Radiography of a vein after injection of a contrast medium to detect and complete filling of a vein which indicates obstruction
Venography
344
The procedure to restore normal rhythm of the heart by applying a controlled electrical shock to the exterior of the chest
Cardioversion
345
Technique used to block blood flow to a site by bypassing a catheter to the area and injecting a synthetic material or medication specially designed to include the blood vessel
Embolization
346
Procedure that alters a vessel through surgery or dilation of the vessel using a balloon catheter
Angioplasty
347
Removal of material from an occluded vessel, using a specially designed catheter fitted with a cutting or grinding device
Atherectomy
348
Destruction of conduction tissue of the heart to interrupt the abnormal conduction pathway causing the arrhythmia, thus allowing normal heart rhythm to resume
Catheter ablation
349
Surgical separation of the leaflets of the mitral valve, which have a fused together at their commissures (touching points)
Commissurotomy
350
Procedure used to remove or treat varicose veins
Laser ablation
351
Tying a varicose vein, followed by removal of the affected segment
Ligation and stripping
352
Surgical procedure performed on, or within the exposed heart, usually with the assistance of a heart-lung machine
Open heart surgery
353
Puncturing of the pericardium to remove excess fluid from the pericardial sac, or to test for protein, sugar, and enzymes for determine the causative organism of pericarditis
Pericardiocentesis
354
Incision of a valve to increase the size of the opening ; used in treating mitral stenosis
Valvotomy
355
Blood is connective tissue, composed of a liquid medium called ___________ in which solid components are suspended
Plasma
356
Protective protein, produced by B lymphocytes in response to presence of a foreign substance called an antigen
Antibody
357
Substance recognized as harmful to the host and stimulates formation of antibodies in and immunocompetent individual
Antigen
358
Substances derived from the breakdown of hemoglobin, produced by the liver, and excreted in the form of bile
Bile pigments
359
Chemical substances produced by certain cells, that initiate, inhibit, increase, or decreased activity in other cells
Cytokines
360
Organism that maintains or harbors, another organism
Host
361
Ability to develop an immune response, or ability to recognize antigens and respond to them
Immunocompetent
362
Specialized lymphocytes that kill abnormal cells by releasing chemicals that destroy the cell membrane, causing its intracellular fluid to leak out
Natural killer cells
363
Blood cells develop from an undifferentiated cell called a _______________
Stem cell
364
Immature RBC is called a _________________
Reticulocyte
365
Hemoglobin breaks down into an iron compound, called ______________ and several bile pigments
Hemosiderin
366
While red blood cells remain in the bloodstream, white blood cells migrate through endothelial walls of capillaries and venules, and enter tissue spaces by a process called _______________
Diapedesis
367
The 3 types of granulocytes : _______________ _______________ _______________
Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils
368
_______________ are the most numerous circulating leukocyte. Their granules stain with a neutral, die, giving them their lilac color. They are motile and highly phagocytic, permitting them to ingest and devour bacteria and other particulate matter. They are the first cell to appear at the site of injury or infection, to begin the work of phagocytize in foreign material. Their importance in body protection cannot be underestimated. A person with a serious deficiency of this blood cell type will die, despite protective attempts by other body defenses.
Neutrophils
369
_______________ contain granules that stain with a red aesthetic die called eosin. They protect the body by releasing many substances that neutralize toxic compounds, especially of a chemical nature. They increase in number during allergic reactions and animal parasite infestation.
Eosinophils
370
_______________ contain granules that readily staying with a purple alkaline dye. They release histamines and heparin when tissue is damaged.
Basophils
371
_______________ initiates the inflammatory process by increasing blood flow. As more blood flows to the damaged area, it carries with it, additional nutrients, immune substances, and immune cells that help in damage containment, and tissue repair
Histamines
372
The 2 types of agranulocytes : _______________ _______________
Monocytes Lymphocytes
373
_______________ are mildly phagocytic when found within blood vessels. However, they remain in the vascular channels only a short time. When they exit in they transform into macrophages, avid phagocytes capable of ingesting, pathogens, dead cells, and other debris found at sites of inflammation. Macrophages play a Chief role in many activities associated with specific immunity.
Monocytes
374
______________ include B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells. B cells and T cells provide a specialized type of defense, called the specific immune response. This mode of protection is custom-made and aimed at specific antigens. Its dual action includes humoral immunity and cellular immunity.
Lymphocytes
375
_______________ provide a generalized defense and respond whenever a potentially dangerous or abnormal cell is encountered. They killed by releasing potent chemicals that rupture the cell membrane of abnormal cells. NK cells are highly effective against cancer cells and cells harboring pathogens. These cells have the ability to kill over and over again before they die.
Natural killer cells
376
_______________ are the smallest formed elements found in the blood
Platelets
377
Clotting factors in platelets and injured tissue release ________________ , a substance that initiates clot formation
Thromboplastin
378
Lymph vessels from the right chest and arm join the _______________ in which this duct drains into the _______________ a major vessel in the cardiovascular system
Right lymphatic duct Right subclavian vein
379
Lymph from all other areas of the body enters the ________________ and drains into the _______________
Thoracic duct Left subclavian vein
380
After a brief stay in the vascular system, monocytes, enter tissue spaces and become highly phagocytic macrophages. In this form, they consume large numbers of pathogens, including bacteria, and viruses. After macrophages engulf, a pathogen, they process it in such a way that the highly specific antigenic properties of the pathogen are placed on the cell surface of the macrophage. Thus, the macrophage becomes an _____________________ . The APC awaits and encounter with a lymphocyte capable of responding to that specific antigen. When this occurs, the specific immune system begins, the operations required for the systemic destruction of the antigen.
Antigen presenting cell
381
2 types of lymphocytes : _______________ _______________
T cells B cells
382
___________________ is the component of the specific immune system that protects primarily against extracellular antigens, such as bacteria and viruses that have not yet entered a cell. It is mediated by the cells, which originate and mature in the bone marrow. During maturation, each B cell develops receptors for a specific antigen, and then enters the circulatory system upon an encounter with it specific antigen, the B cells produce a clone of cells called plasma cells. Plasma cells produce highly specific proteins, called antibodies. Antibodies travel throughout the body in plasma, tissue, fluid, and lymph. When an antibody encounters, it specific antigen, it attaches to it, and forms an antigen-antibody complex. After this, the antigen is an activated, neutralize, or tagged for destruction. After all antigens have been destroyed, memory B cells migrate to lymph tissue, and remain available for immediate recall, if the same antigen is encountered again.
Humoral immunity
383
_______________ is the component of the specific immune system that protects primarily against intracellular antigens, such as viruses and cancer cells. It is mediated by T cells these cells, originate in the bone marrow, but my great and mature in the thymus
Cellular immunity
384
4 types of T cells : _______________ _______________ _______________ _______________
Cytotoxic T cells (Tc) Helper T cells (Th) Suppressor T cells (Ts) Memory T cells (Tm)
385
The _______________ is the cell that actually destroys the invading antigen. It determines the antigen specific weakness, and uses this weakness as a point of attack to destroy it.
Cytotoxic T cell
386
The _______________ is essential to the proper functioning of both humoral and cellular immunity. That uses chemical messengers called cytokines to activate, direct, and regulate the activity of most of the other components of the immune system, especially B cells. If the number of cells is deficient, the immune system essentially shuts down and the patient becomes a victim of even the most harmless organisms.
Helper T cells
387
The _______________ monitor is the progression of infection. When infection resolves, the cells shut down the immune response. Finally like the humoral response, the cellular response also produces memory cells.
Suppressor T cells
388
The _______________ find their way to the lymph system and remain there long after the encounter with the antigen, ready for combat, if the antigen reappears
Memory T cells
389
_______________ is the branch of medicine that studies, blood cells, blood, clotting, mechanisms, bone marrow, and lymph nodes
Hematology
390
_______________ is any condition in which the oxygen carrying capacity of blood is deficient it is not a disease, but rather a symptom of various diseases. It results when there is a decrease in the number of circulating RBCs, the amount of hemoglobin, or in the volume of packed erythrocytes.
Anemia
391
RBCs fall within normal range for size
Normocytic
392
RBCs fall within normal range for amount of hemoglobin
Normochromic
393
RBCs that are excessively large
Macrocytic
394
RBCs that are excessively small
Microcytic
395
RBCs that have excessively low amounts of hemoglobin
Hypochromic
396
______________________ is an infectious disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus, which slowly destroys the immune system
Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)
397
What are the 2 diseases closely associated with AIDS: _______________ _______________
Kaposi sarcoma Pneumocystis pneumonia
398
An __________ is an acquired abnormal immune response
Allergy
399
A treatment called _______________ reduces the sensitivity of the patient to the offending allergen. This treatment involves repeated injections of highly diluted solution containing the allergen
Desensitization
400
_______________ is the failure of the body to distinguish accurately between self and non-self. The immune system attacks the antigens found on its own cells to such an extent at the tissue injury results.
Autoimmunity
401
_______________ is an auto immune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction. Muscles of the limbs and eyes, and those affecting speech and swallowing are usually involved.
Myasthenia gravis
402
__________ is an abnormal accumulation of fluids in the intercellular spaces of the body. A major cause is a decrease in the blood, protein level, especially albumin, which controls the amount of plasma, leaving the vascular channels. Other causes include poor, lymph, drainage, high sodium intake, increased, capillary, permeability, and heart failure.
Edema
403
_______________ is a hereditary disorder in which the blood clotting mechanism is impaired
Hemophilia
404
There are 2 main types of hemophilia : __________ __________
Hemophilia A Hemophilia B
405
Hemophilia ___ , is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII
A
406
Hemophilia ___ , is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor IX
B
407
_______________ is one of the acute infections caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. It is usually found in young adults and tends to appear an early spring and fall. Saliva and respiratory secretions have been implicated as significant infectious agents hence the name kissing disease. Sore throat, fever, in large cervical lymph nodes, characterize this disease.
Infectious mononucleosis
408
____________ is an ontological disorder of the blood forming organs, characterized by an overgrowth of blood cells. With this condition, malignant cells, replace healthy, bone marrow cells. The disease is generally characterized by the type of leukocyte population affected : granulocytic (myelogenous) or lymphatic
Leukemia
409
________ leukemia, the cells are highly embryonic (blastic) with few, mature forms, resulting in severe anemia, infections, bleeding disorders, and is life-threatening
Acute
410
__________ is a malignant disease of the lymph system, primarily the lymph nodes. It usually begins with a painless enlargement of lymph nodes, typically on one side of the neck, chest, or under arm.
Hodgkin lymphoma
411
Condition of marked variation in the size of erythrocytes when observed on a blood smear
Anisocytosis
412
Presence of a viable bacteria circulating in the blood stream, usually transient in nature
Bacteremia
413
Destruction of a transplanted organ or tissue by the recipients immune system
Graft rejection
414
Condition that occurs following bone marrow transplant in which the immune cells in the transplant bone marrow produce antibodies against the hosts tissues
Graft versus host disease
415
Any disorder caused by abnormalities in the hemoglobin molecule
Hemoglobinopathy
416
Destruction of RBCs, with a release of hemoglobin that diffuses into the surrounding fluid
Hemolysis
417
State of being protected against infectious diseases
Immunity
418
Immunity produced by the persons on immune system
Active immunity
419
Immunity in which antibodies or other immune substances formed in one individual are transferred to another individual to provide immediate, temporary immunity
Passive immunity
420
Any disease of the lymph nodes
Lymphadenopathy
421
Malignant neoplastic disorder of lymphatic tissue (not related to Hodgkin disease)
Lymphosarcoma
422
Serious, life-threatening, bloodstream infection that may arise from other infections throughout the body, such as pneumonia, urinary tract, infection, meningitis, or infections of the bone or G.I. tract ; also called blood infection or blood poisoning
Septicemia
423
Laboratory test to detect the presence of antibodies, antigens, or immune substances
Serology
424
Blood test that measures the amount of antibodies in blood ; commonly used as an indicator of a moon status
Titer
425
Test to determine the presence of pathogens in the bloodstream
Blood culture
426
Test that enumerates the distribution of WBCs in a stained blood smear by counting the different kinds of WBCs, and reporting each as a percentage of the total examined
Differential count (diff)
427
Measurement of the distance the RBCs settle to the bottom of a test tube under standardized conditions ; also called sed rate
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
428
Measurement of the amount of hemoglobin found in a whole blood sample
Hemoglobin value
429
Measurement of the percentage of RBCs in a whole blood sample
Hematocrit (Hct)
430
Nonspecific rapid serological test for infectious mononucleosis ; also called the heterophile antibody test
Monospot
431
Test that measures the length of time it takes BLOOD to clot. It screens for deficiencies and some clotting factors and monitors the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy (heparin) ; also called activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
432
Test that measures the time it takes for the PLASMA PORTION of blood to clot. It is used to evaluate portions of the coagulation system ; also called pro time
Prothrombin time (PT)
433
Mathematical calculation of the size, volume, and concentration of hemoglobin for a RBC
Red blood cell indices
434
Test used to assess the absorption of radioactive vitamin B12 by the digestive system
Schilling test
435
Radiographic examination of lymph nodes, after injection of a contrast medium
Lymphadenography
436
Radiographic examination of lymph vessels or tissues, after injection of a contrast medium
Lymphangiography
437
Drawing in or out by suction
Aspiration
438
Procedure using a syringe with a thin aspirating needle, inserted to withdraw a small sample of bone marrow fluid for microscopic evaluation (usually the pelvic bone and rarely the sternum)
Bone marrow aspiration
439
Removal of a small core sample of tissue from bone marrow for examination under a microscope and possibly for analysis using other tests
Bone marrow biopsy
440
Removal of the first lymph node that receives drainage from cancer containing areas, and the one most likely to contain malignant cells
Sentinel node biopsy
441
Removal of a lymph vessel
Lymphangiectomy
442
Infusion of blood or blood components into the bloodstream
Transfusion
443
Transfusion prepared from the recipients own blood
Autologous transfusion
444
Transfusion prepared from another individual, who is blood is compatible with that of the recipient
Homologous transfusion
445
Grafting of living tissue from its normal position to another site or from one person to another
Transplantation
446
Harvesting, freezing, and reinfusing the patients on bone marrow to treat bone marrow hyperplasia following cancer therapy
Autologous bone marrow transplantation
447
Transplantation of bone marrow from one individual to another to treat aplastic, anemia, leukemia, and immunodeficiency disorders
Homologous bone marrow transplantation
448
The 3 types of muscle tissue C: _______________ _______________ _______________
Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle Smooth muscle
449
_______________ also called voluntary or striated muscle, our muscles who’s action is under voluntary control. Some examples of voluntary muscles are muscles that move the eyeballs, tongue, and bones.
Skeletal muscles
450
_______________ is found only in the heart. It is unique for its branched, interconnections, and makes up most of the wall of the heart. Cardiac muscle shares similarities with both skeletal and smooth muscles. Like Skelton muscle it is striated, but it produces rhythmic involuntary contractions, like smooth muscle.
Cardiac muscle
451
_______________ also called involuntary or visceral muscles, our muscles, whose actions are involuntary. They are found principally in the visceral organs, walls of arteries and respiratory passages, and urinary and reproductive ducts. The contraction is controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
Smooth muscles
452
Any body part attached to a main structure
Appendage
453
Place of union between 2 or more bones ; also called joint
Articulation
454
Spongy or porous structure, as found at the end of long bones
Cancellous
455
Ligaments that cross each other forming an X within the notch between the femoral condyles
Cruciate ligaments
456
Moves closer to the midline
Adduction
457
Moves away from the midline
Abduction
458
Decreases the angle of a joint
Flexion
459
Increases the angle of a joint
Extension
460
Move the bone around its own axis
Rotation
461
Turns the palm down
Pronation
462
Turns the palm up
Supination
463
Move the sole of the foot inward
Inversion
464
Move the sole of the foot outward
Eversion
465
Elevates the foot
Dorsiflexion
466
Lowers the foot (points the toes)
Plantar flexion
467
In __________ attachments, muscle fibers arise directly from bone
Fleshy
468
In __________ attachments, the connective tissue convergence at the end of the muscle to become continuous and indistinguishable from the periosteum
Fibrous
469
4 principal types of bones : _______________ _______________ _______________ _______________
Short bones Irregular bones Flat bones Long bones
470
_______________ or somewhat cube shaped. They consist of a core of spongy bone, also known as cancellous bone, enclosed in a thin surface layer of compact bone.
Short bones
471
_______________ include the bones that cannot be classified as short or long because of their complex shapes
Irregular bones
472
________________ or exactly what their name suggests. They provide broad services for muscular attachment or protection for internal organs
Flat bones
473
_______________ are found in the appendages of the body, such as the legs, arms, and fingers
Long bones
474
The _______________ is a dense white fibrous membrane that covers the remaining surface of the bone
Periosteum
475
An infant skull contains and unossified membrane or soft spot lying between the cranial bones, called a ______________
Fontanel
476
The 3 bones that are fused together to form a single bone called the innominate (hip) bone : __________ __________ __________
Ilium Ischium Pubis
477
Freely movable joints are called __________
Diarthroses
478
Only slightly movable joints are called ___________
Amphiarthroses
479
Immovable joints are called ___________
Synarthroses
480
Joints that allows movement are called ______________
Synovial joints
481
_______________ fracture : bone is broken, but no external wound exists
Closed fracture (simple)
482
_______________ fracture : involves a broken bone and an external wound that leads to the site of fracture (fragments of bone protrude through the skin)
Open fracture (complete)
483
_______________ fracture : a broken bone has injured an internal organ, such as when a broken rib pierces a lung
Complicated fracture
484
_______________ fracture : the bone has broken or splintered into pieces
Comminuted fracture
485
_______________ fracture : the bone is broken, and one end is wedged into the interior of another bone
Impacted fracture
486
_______________ fracture : the lining of fracture does not completely transverse the entire bone
Incomplete fracture
487
_______________ fracture : the broken bone does not extend through the entire thickness of the bone, one side of the bone is broken and one side of the bone is bent
Greenstick fracture - refers to the new branches on a tree that bend rather than break - Also known as an incomplete fracture
488
_______________ fracture : a break at the lower end of the radius, occurs just above the rest. It causes displacement of the hand, and usually occurs as a result of flexing a hand to cushion a fall.
Colles fracture
489
_______________ fracture : a minor fracture in which all portions of the bone are in perfect alignment, and is seen on radiographic examination as a very thin hairline between the two segments, but not extending entirely through the bone
Hairline fracture
490
_______________ is a chronic inflammation of bones, resulting in thickening and softening of the bones. That can occur in any bone, but most commonly affects the long bones of the legs, the lower spine, the pelvis, and the skull.
Paget disease (osteitis deformans)
491
_______________ is a common metabolic bone disorder in the elderly, and is characterized by decreased bone density that occurs when the rate of bone resorption exceeds the rate of bone formation.
Osteoporosis
492
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, either to the right or left is called ______________
Scoliosis (C-shaped curvature of the spine)
493
An abnormal curvature of the upper portion of the spine is called ______________
Kyphosis Humpback Hunchback
494
An abnormal inward curvature of a portion of the lower portion of the spine is called _____________
Lordosis Swayback
495
_______________ is an inflammation of a joint, usually accompanied by pain, swelling, and changes in structure
Arthritis
496
_________________ a systemic disease characterized by inflammatory changes in joints and their related structures, results in crippling deformities
Rheumatoid arthritis
497
_______________ is the most common type of connective tissue disease. Cartilage destruction and new bone formation at the edges of joints are the most common pathologies seen with this.
Osteoarthritis (degenerative joint disease)
498
_______________ is a metabolic disease caused by the accumulation of uric acid crystals in the blood. These crystals may become deposited and joints and soft tissue near joints, causing painful, swelling, and inflammation.
Gouty arthritis (gout)
499
__________________ a genetic disease characterized by gradual atrophy and weakening of muscle tissue. There are several different types
Muscular dystrophy
500
malignancies that originate from bone, fat, muscle, cartilage, bone marrow, and cells of the lymphatic system are called ______________
Sarcomas
501
3 major types of sarcomas include : _______________ _______________ _______________
Fibrosarcoma Osteosarcoma Ewing sarcoma
502
Stiffening and immobility of a joint as a result of disease, trauma, surgery, or abnormal bone fusion
Ankylosis
503
Painful condition resulting from compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel
Carpal tunnel syndrome
504
Lameness, limping
Claudication
505
Fibrosis of connective tissue in the skin, facia, muscle, or joint capsule that prevents normal mobility of the related tissue or joint
Contracture
506
Use of electrical stimulation to record the strength of muscle contractions
Electromyography
507
Increase the severity of a disease or any of its symptoms
Exacerbation
508
Tumor of tendon sheath or joint capsule, commonly found in the wrist
Ganglion cyst
509
Effusion of blood into a joint cavity
Hemarthrosis
510
Loss of muscular tone, or a diminished resistance to passive stretching
Hypotonia
511
Primary malignant tumor that infiltrates the bone in red bone marrow
Multiple myeloma
512
Bony outgrowth that occasionally develops on the vertebrae in my exert pressure on the spinal cord ; also called bone spur
Osteophyte
513
Perceived sensation, following amputation of a limb, that the limb still exists
Phantom limb
514
Replacement of a missing part by an artificial substitute, such as an artificial extremity
Prosthesis
515
Form of osteomalacia and children caused by vitamin D deficiency
Rickets
516
Fragment of necrosed bone that has become separated from surrounding tissue
Sequestrum
517
Any slipping of a vertebrae from its normal position in relationship to the one beneath it
Spondylolisthesis
518
Degeneration of the cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae and related tissue
Spondylosis
519
Tearing of ligament tissue that may be slight, moderate, or complete
Sprain
520
To exert physical force in a manner that may result in injury, usually muscular
Strain
521
Partial or incomplete dislocation
Subluxation
522
Congenital deformity of one or both feet, in which the foot is pulled downward and laterally to the side ; also called club foot
Talipes Equinovarus
523
Series of radiographs taken after injection of contrast material into a joint cavity, especially the knee or shoulder, to outline the contour of the joint
Arthrography
524
Radiographic procedures that use low energy x-ray absorption to measure bone mineral density
Bone density test
525
Radiographic examination of the intervertebral disc structures by injecting and contrast medium
Discography
526
Radiography of the five lumbar vertebrae, and the fused, sacral vertebrae, including Anteroposterior, lateral, and oblique views of the lower spine
Lumbosacral spinal radiography
527
Radiography of the spinal cord after injecting a contrast medium to identify and study spinal distortions caused by tumors, cysts, herniated intervertebral discs, and other lesions
Myelography
528
Procedure that reduces a bone to its normal position
Reduction
529
Reduction procedure, where fractured bones are realigned by manipulation rather than surgery
Closed reduction
530
Reduction procedure, that treats bone fractures by placing the bone in their proper position using surgery
Open reduction
531
Applications of a solid, stiff dressing formed with plaster of Paris or other material to a body part to immobilize it during the healing process
Casting
532
Application of an orthopedic device to an injured body part for immobilization, stabilization, and protection during the healing process
Splinting
533
Use of weights and pulleys to align or immobilize a fracture and facilitate the healing process
Traction
534
Partial or complete removal of an extremity, due to trauma or circulatory disease
Amputation
535
Puncture of a joint space, using a needle to remove accumulated fluid
Arthrocentesis
536
Surgical breaking of an ankylosed joint to provide movement
Arthroclasia
537
Visual examination of the interior of a joint and its structures, using a thin, flexible, fiber, optic scope, called an arthroscope that contains a magnifying lens, fiber, optic light, and miniature camera that projects images on a monitor
Arthroscopy
538
Implanting or transplanting bone tissue from one part of the body, or from another person, to serve as a replacement for damaged or missing bone tissue
Bone grafting
539
Excision of bursa
Bursectomy
540
Excision of the posterior arch of a vertebrae
Laminectomy
541
Surgery repeated to correct problems of a previously unsuccessful surgery for to replace a worn out prosthesis
Revision surgery
542
Revision surgery are often required to correct bone infection, misalignments of bones, broken, prosthesis, and fractures of the bone around the prosthesis
Bone revision surgery
543
Excision of a sequestrum
Sequestrectomy
544
Excision of a synovial membrane
Synovectomy
545
Surgical procedure to replace a hip joint damaged by a degenerative disease, commonly arthritis
Total hip replacement
546
Mineral salts that carry in electrical charge in solution
Electrolytes
547
Fluid that passes from the blood through the capillary walls of the glomeruli of the kidney
Filtrate
548
Products of cellular metabolism that contain nitrogen
Nitrogenous waste
549
Sequence of arithmetic contraction of smooth muscle of a hollow organ to force material forward and prevent backflow
Peristaltic waves
550
Serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic cavity and covers most of the organs within the cavity
Peritoneum
551
Liquid portion of blood, composed, primarily of water, and containing dissolved proteins, nutrients, lipids, and various waste products
Plasma
552
Fluid containing sperm and secretions from the prostate and other structures of the male reproductive system
Semen
553
Androgenic hormone responsible for the development of male sex organs, including the penis, testicles, scrotum, and prostate
Testosterone
554
The bladder has small folds called _________ that expand as the bladder fills
Rugae
555
A triangular area at the base of the bladder called the ___________ is delineated by the openings of the ureters and the urethra
Trigone
556
_______________ occurs in the renal corpuscle, or plasma, containing water, electrolytes, sugar, and other small molecules is forced from the blood within the glomerulus into Bowman capsule to form filtrate
Filtration
557
______________ begins as filtrate travels through the long, twisted pathway of the tubule. Most of the water and some of the electrolytes and amino acids are returned to the peritubular, capillaries, and re-enter the circulating blood
Reabsorption
558
_______________ is the final stage of your information. Substances are actively secreted from the blood in the peritubular capillaries into the filtrate in the renal tubules. Waste products, such as ammonia, uric acid, and metabolic products of medication‘s are secreted into the filtrate to be eliminated in urine
Secretion
559
_______________ is a disorder in which bacteria invade the renal pelvis and kidney tissue, commonly a result of a bladder infection that ascended to the kidney via the ureters. When the infection is severe, lesions, form in the renal pelvis, causing bleeding.
Pyelonephritis (kidney infection or complicated urinary tract infection)
560
Glomerular walls become inflamed, is called ________________
Glomerulonephritis
561
Stones may form in any part of the urinary tract, but most arise in the kidney, a condition called ________________
Nephrolithiasis
562
Stones lodged in the ureters cause intense throbbing pain called _________
Colic
563
______________________ is a treatment in which renal calculi are pulverized using concentrated ultrasound waves called shock waves that are directed at the stones from a machine outside the body
Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL)
564
____________________ is a procedure in which a small incision is made in the skin, and an opening is formed in the kidneys. A nephroscope is inserted into the kidney to locate and remove the stone. If the stone is large than an ultrasonic and electrohydraulic probe is used to break the stone into smaller fragments, which are than more easily removed. And the frosting me to may be inserted in remain in place during healing.
Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL)
565
_____________________ is a procedure where a ureteroscope is passed through the urethra and bladder, and into the ureter where the basket collects the stone. For larger stones, it may be necessary to break them into smaller pieces using an endoscope fitted with a laser beam before the fragments are removed. no incision is required.
Ureteroscopic stone removal
566
_______________, the prostate gland enlarges & it decreases the urethral lumen and complete voiding of urine becomes difficult. Urine that remains in the bladder commonly becomes a breeding ground for bacteria. Bladder infection and ultimately kidney infection may result.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia Nodular hyperplasia Benign prostatic hypertrophy
567
Bladder infection
Cystitis
568
________________ , is a procedure in which a resectoscope is inserted through the urethra and a small loop chips away some of the obstructing tissue of the prostate. At the conclusion of surgery that urethra and bladder are irrigated to remove the small chips.
Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
569
Failure of the testes descend into the scrotal sac prior to birth is called _______________
Cryptorchidism
570
_________________ , the tubular portion of the nephron is injured by a decrease in blood supply, or after the ingestion of toxic chemicals
Acute tubular necrosis
571
Absence of urine production or urinary output
Anuria
572
Retention of excessive amounts of nitrogen compounds in the blood ; also called uremia
Azotemia
573
Blockage at base of the bladder that reduces or prevents urine from passing into the urethra
Bladder neck obstruction
574
Renal failure that occurs over a period of years, in which the kidneys lose their ability to maintain volume and composition of body fluids with normal dietary intake
Chronic renal failure
575
Painful or difficult urination, commonly described as a burning sensation while urinating
Dysuria
576
Condition in which kidney function is permanently lost
End stage renal disease
577
Involuntary discharge of urine ; also called incontinence
Enuresis
578
Abnormal passage from a hollow organ to the surface or from one organ to another
Fistula
579
Involuntary delay in initiating urination
Hesitancy
580
Abnormal dilation of the renal pelvis and the calyces of one or both kidneys due to pressure from accumulated urine that cannot flow past an obstruction in the urinary tract.
Hydronephrosis
581
Loss of large amounts of plasma, proteins, usually albumin by way of urine, due to increased permeability of the glomerular membrane
Nephrotic syndrome
582
Excessive or frequent urination after going to bed
Nocturia
583
Diminished capacity to form and pass urine, resulting in an efficient excretion of the end products of metabolism
Oliguria
584
Inherited disease in which sacs of fluid called cysts develop in the kidneys
Polycystic kidney disease
585
Disorder caused by the failure of urine to pass through the ureters to the bladder, usually due to impairment of the valve between the ureter and bladder or obstruction of the ureter
Vesicoureteral reflux
586
Rapidly developing malignant neoplasm of the kidney that usually occurs in children
Wilms tumor
587
Congenital, absence of one or both testes ; also called anorchia or anorchism
Anorchidism
588
Failure to form or ejaculate semen
Aspermia
589
Inflammation of the skin covering the glans penis
Balanitis
590
Malformation in which the urethra opens on the dorsum of the penis
Epispadias
591
Repeated inability to initiate or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual intercourse
Erectile dysfunction
592
Accumulation of serous fluid in a saclike cavity, especially the testes and associated structures
Hydrocele
593
Developmental anomaly, in which the urethra openings on the underside of the penis, or an extreme cases on the perineum
Hypospadias
594
Stenosis or narrowing of preputial orifice, so that the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis
Phimosis
595
Inability to produce offspring
Sterility
596
Swelling and distention of veins of the spermatic cord
Varicocele
597
Screening test that assesses the rectal wall surface for lesions or abnormally firm areas that might indicate cancer
Digital rectal examination
598
Endoscopy of the urinary bladder for evidence of pathology, obtaining biopsies of tumors or other growths, and removal of polyps
Cystoscopy
599
Endoscopy of the kidneys, using a specialized three channel endoscope that enables visualization in irrigation of the kidney
Nephroscopy
600
Endoscopy of the urethra, using a specialized endoscope typically for lithotripsy or TURP
Urethroscopy
601
Test that determines the amount of urea nitrogen, a waste product of protein metabolism, present in a blood sample
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
602
Test that determines the causative organism of a disease and how the organism responds to various antibiotics
Culture and sensitivity
603
Blood test used to detect prostatic disorders, especially prostatic cancer
Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
604
Test that analyzes a semen sample for volume, sperm, count, motility, and morphology to evaluate, fertility or verify sterilization after a vasectomy
Semen analysis
605
Battery of tests performed on a urine specimen, including physical observation, chemical tests, and microscopic evaluation
Urinalysis
606
Radiographic examination of the urinary bladder using a contrast medium
Cystography
607
Procedure that assesses volume and pressure in the bladder at various stages of filling, using saline and a contrast medium introduced into the bladder through a catheter
Cystometrography
608
Radiographic examination of the kidneys and urinary tract after IV injection of a contrast medium
Intravenous pyelography
609
Radiological examination of the bladder and urethra performed before, during, and after voiding using a contrast medium to enhance imaging
Voiding cystourethrography
610
Medical procedure used to filter toxic substances from the patient’s bloodstream, such as excess electrolytes in nitrogenous waste
Dialysis
611
Method of removing waste substances from the blood by shutting it from the body, passing it through an artificial kidney machine, where it is filtered, and then returning the dialyzed blood to the patient’s body
Hemodialysis
612
Removal of toxic substances from the body by perfusing the peritoneal cavity with a warm sterile chemical solution
Peritoneal dialysis
613
Fixation of a floating or mobile kidney
Nephropexy
614
Removal of one or both testes
Orchidectomy
615
Incision of a urethral stricture
Urethrotomy
616
Excision of all, or a segment of the vas deferens
Vasectomy
617
_____________ , the initial menstrual period, occurs at puberty and continues approximately 40 years except during pregnancy
Menarche
618
The average pregnancy lasts approximately ____________ and is followed by childbirth
9 months
619
Up to the third month of pregnancy, the product of conception is referred to as the _____________ and after the third month up to birth, the unborn offspring is referred to as the ____________
Embryo Fetus
620
Absence of menses
Amenorrhea
621
Labor occurs in 3 stages : ____________ ____________ ____________
Stage of dilation Stage of expulsion Placental stage, or afterbirth
622
Menstrual pain and tension
Dysmenorrhea
623
Irregular uterine bleeding between menstrual periods
Metrorrhagia
624
______________ is a disorder with signs and symptoms that range from complaints of headache and fatigue to mood changes, anxiety, depression, uncontrollable, crying, spells, and water retention
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)
625
Profuse or prolonged bleeding during regular menstruation
Menorrhagia Hypermenorrhea
626
_______________ the presence of functional endometrial tissue in areas outside of the uterus. The endometrial tissue develops into what are called implants, lesions, or growths, and can cause pain, infertility, and other problems.
Endometriosis
627
____________________ is a general term for inflammation of the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, adjacent pelvic structures, and is usually caused by bacterial infections
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
628
_______________ is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Gonorrhea
629
_______________ is caused by infection with the bacterium Treponema pallidum and is characterized by three distinct phases. The first phase includes a primary store that develops at the point where the organism enters the body. The second phase produces a variety of symptoms that make diagnosis of the disease difficult. The third phase is the latent phase whereby the disease may remain dormant for years
Syphilis
630
_______________ is caused by infection with the bacterium chlamydia trachomatis
Chlamydia
631
_______________ causes red blister like painful lesions that closely resemble the common fever, blister, or cold sore that appears on the lips in around the mouth
Genital herpes
632
_______________ caused by the human papillomavirus
Genital warts
633
___________________ is caused by the protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis
Trichomoniasis
634
Accessory parts of a structure
Adnexa
635
Congenital, absence, or closure of a normal body opening, such as the vagina
Atresia
636
Malignant neoplasm of the uterus, or at the site of an ectopic pregnancy
Choriocarcinoma
637
Contraceptive device consisting of a hemisphere of thin rubber bonded to a flexible ring ; inserted into the vagina together with spermicidal gel or cream up to 2 hours before coitus so that the spermatozoa cannot enter the uterus, thus preventing conception
Contraceptive diaphragm
638
Ovarian scar tissue that results from rupturing of a follicle during ovulation, and becomes a small yellow body that produces progesterone after ovulation
Corpus luteum
639
Occurrence of pain during sexual intercourse
Dyspareunia
640
Inflammation of the mucous lining of the cervix uteri
Endocervicitis
641
Benign uterine tumor is composed of muscle and fibrous tissue
Fibroids Myomas
642
Inability or diminished ability to produce offspring
Infertility
643
Use of hormones to suppress ovulation and prevent contraception
Hormonal contraception
644
Birth control pills contain estrogen and progesterone and varying proportions
Oral contraceptive pills
645
Scanty or infrequent menstrual flow
Oligomenorrhea
646
Region between the vulva and anus that constitutes the pelvic floor
Perineum
647
Period during which secondary sex characteristics begin to develop, and the capability of sexual reproduction is attained
Puberty
648
Pause in the fallopian tube
Pyosalpinx
649
Turning or state of being turned back, especially in an entire organ such as the uterus being tipped from its normal position
Retroversion
650
Painful spasm of the vagina from contraction of its surrounding muscles
Vaginismus
651
Termination of pregnancy before the embryo or fetus is capable of surviving outside of the uterus
Abortion
652
Premature separation of a normal situated placenta
Abruptio placentae
653
Membrane, continuous with and covering the fetal side of the placenta, that forms the outer surface of the umbilical cord
Amnion
654
Common abnormality of delivering in which the fetal buttocks or feet present first rather than ahead
Breech presentation
655
Congenital condition, characterized by physical malformations and some degree of mental retardation
Down syndrome, trisomy 21
656
Difficult labor, which may be produced by the large size of the fetus or the small size of the pelvic outlet
Dystocia
657
Most serious form of toxemia during pregnancy
Eclampsia
658
Pregnancy in which the fertilized ovum does not reach the uterine cavity but becomes implanted on any tissue other than the lining of the uterine cavity, such as a Fallopian tube, an ovary, the abdomen, or even the cervix uteri
Ectopic pregnancy
659
Pregnant woman
Gravida
660
Woman who has been pregnant more than once
Multigravida
661
Woman who was delivered more than one viable infant
Multipara
662
Woman who has given birth to one or more valuable infants
Para
663
Process of giving birth
Parturition
664
Measurement of pelvic dimensions to determine whether the head of the fetus will be able to pass through the bony pelvis during the delivery process
Pelvimetry
665
Condition in which the placenta is attach near the cervix and ruptures prematurely, with spotting as the early symptom
Placenta previa
666
Woman pregnant for the first time
Primigravida
667
Woman who has given birth to one viable infant, her first child, indicated by the notation para I on the patient’s chart
Primipara
668
Period of 42 days after childbirth and expulsion of the placenta and membranes, during which the reproductive organs usually return to normal
Puerperium
669
Transabdominal puncture of the amniotic sac under ultrasound guidance, using a needle and syringe to remove amniotic fluid
Amniocentesis
670
Delivery of pressurized air or gas into a cavity, chamber, or organ to allow visual examination, remove an obstruction, or apply medication
Insufflation
671
Test for patency of the uterine tubes made by transuterine insufflation with carbon dioxide
Tubal insufflation
672
Visual examination of the vagina and cervix with an optical magnifying instrument called a colposcope
Colposcopy
673
Sampling of placental tissue from prenatal diagnosis of potential genetic defects
Chorionic villus sampling
674
Removal of a sample of uterine endometrium for microscopic study
Endometrial biopsy
675
Psychological study used to detect abnormal cells sloughed from the cervix and vagina, usually obtain during routine pelvic examination
Papanicolaou test (pap)
676
Radiographic examination of the breast to screen for breast cancer
Mammography
677
Radiography of the uterus and uterine tubes, following injection of a contrast medium
Hysterosalpingography
678
Surgery design to correct an unsuccessful procedure that has created a cosmetic problem or poses a health risk
Breast implant revision
679
Suturing the cervix to prevent it from dilating prematurely during pregnancy, does decreasing the chance of a spontaneous abortion. The sutures are removed prior to delivery.
Cerclage
680
Incision of the head abdomen and uterus to remove the fetus
Cesarean birth C-section
681
Surgical closure of the vagina canal
Colpocleisis
682
Excision of a cone shaped piece of tissue, such as mucosa of the cervix, for histological examination
Conization
683
Sampling of fetal blood drawn from the umbilical vein and performed under ultrasound guidance
Cordocentesis
684
Process of freezing tissue to destroy cells
Cryosurgery
685
Widening of the cervical canal with a dilator in scraping of the uterine endometrium with a curette
Dilation and curettage
686
Repair of a lacerated vulva or an episiotomy
Episiorrhaphy
687
Incision of the perineum from the vaginal orifice, usually done to prevent tearing of the tissue and to facilitate childbirth
Episiotomy
688
Excision of the uterus
Hysterectomy
689
Hysterectomy where the service, ovaries, and a Fallopian tubes remain
Sub total hysterectomy
690
Hysterectomy where the cervix removed, but the ovaries and fallopian tubes remain
Total hysterectomy
691
Total hysterectomy, including uterus, service, fallopian tubes, and ovaries
Total hysterectomy plus bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
692
Plastic or metal object placed inside the uterus to prevent implantation of a fertilized egg in the uterine lining
Intrauterine device (IUD)
693
Excision of a small primary breast tumor, and some of the normal tissue that surrounds it
Lumpectomy
694
Surgical reconstruction of the breasts to change the size, shape, or position
Mammoplasty
695
Breast enlargement to increase breast size or to replace one that has been surgically removed
Mammoplasty augmentation
696
Breast reduction to reduce the size of a large, pendulous breast
Mammoplasty reduction
697
Excision of the entire breast
Mastectomy
698
Excision of the entire breast, nipple, areola, and the involved overlying skin
Total mastectomy (simple mastectomy)
699
Excision of the entire breast, including the lymph nodes in the under arm (axillary dissection)
Modified radical mastectomy
700
Excision of the entire breast, all under arm, lymph nodes, and chest wall muscles under the breast
Radical mastectomy
701
Excision of a myomatous tumor, generally uterine
Myomectomy
702
Reconstruction of a breast that has been removed because of breast, cancer or other disease
Reconstructive breast surgery
703
Common breast reconstruction technique in which a balloon expander is inserted beneath the skin and chest muscle, saline solution is gradually injected to increase size, and the expander is then replaced with a more permanent implant
Tissue expansion reconstructive breast surgery
704
Surgical creation of a skin flap using skin and fat from the lower half of the abdomen, which is passed under the skin to the breast area. The abdominal tissue is shaped into a natural looking breast and sutured into place.
Transverse rectus abdominous muscle flap (TRAM)
705
Excision of an ovary and fallopian tube
Salpingo-oophorectomy
706
Procedure that ties the fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy
Tubal ligation
707
________________ , is known as the master gland, because it regulates many body activities, and stimulates other glands, to secrete their own specific hormones
Pituitary gland
708
Acting in opposition ; mutually opposing
Antagonistic
709
Hormone produced by pancreatic alpha cells that increases the blood glucose level by stimulating, deliver to change stored glycogen to glucose
Glucagon
710
Simple sugar that is the end product of carbohydrate digestion
Glucose
711
Chemical substances produced by specialized cells in the body that are released slowly in minute amounts directly into the bloodstream
Hormones
712
Hormone produced by pancreatic beta cells to ask to remove glucose from the blood by promoting it storage and tissues as glycogen
Insulin
713
Agent that mimics the effects of the sympathetic nervous system
Sympathomimetic
714
Structure, organ, or tissue, to which something is directed
Target
715
When hypothyroidism develops during adulthood, it is known as __________
Myxedema
716
When hyperparathyroidism is generalized and all bones are affected, this disorder is known as ______________________ - renal symptoms and kidney stones may develop
Von Recklinghausen disease
717
_______________ is a relatively uncommon. Chronic disorder caused by a deficiency of cortical hormones, results when the adrenal cortex is damaged or atrophied. Atrophy of the adrenal glands is probably the result of an autoimmune process in which circulating adrenal antibodies slowly destroy the gland. The gland usually suffers 90% destruction before clinical signs of adrenal insufficiency appear. Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex interferes with the body‘s ability to handtool internal and external stress. In severe cases, the disturbance of sodium and potassium metabolism may be marked by depletion of sodium and water through urination, resulting in severe chronic dehydration.
Addison’s disease
718
_______________ is a cluster of symptoms, produced by excessive amounts of cortisol, adrenocorticotropic, hormone, or both circulating in the blood. There is an alteration in carbohydrate and protein, metabolism, and electrolyte balance. Overproduction of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids cause blood sugar concentrations to remain high, depleting tissue proteins. In addition, sodium retention causes increased fluid and tissue that leads to edema. These metabolic changes produce weight gain and may cause structural changes, such as a moon shaped face, grossly exaggerated head, and trunk, and pencil, thin arms, and legs. Causes of this excess secretion include. : - Long-term administration of steroid drugs in treating such a diseases - Adrenal tumor resulting in excessive production of cortisol - Cushing disease, a pituitary disorders caused by hypersecretion of ACTH from an adenoma in the anterior pituitary gland
Cushing syndrome
719
_______________ is a medullary tumor or neoplasm in which it produces excessive amount of epinephrine and norepinephrine
Pheochromocytoma
720
As fat is metabolized, ketones are produced and enter the blood causing a condition called _____________
Ketosis
721
_______________ is usually diagnosed and children and young adults and was previously called juvenile diabetes. The body does not produce sufficient insulin. Treatment include injection of insulin to maintain a normal level of glucose in the blood.
Type 1 diabetes
722
_______________ is the most common form and is distinctively different from type one. It’s onset was typically later in life, but it has become more prevalent in children as the incidence of obesity has increased. Risk factors include a family, history of diabetes and obesity. And type two diabetes, the body is deficient in producing sufficient insulin, or the body cells are resistant to insulin action and target tissues. Hyperglycemia that results may cause cell starvation and overtime. May damage the kidneys, eyes, nerves, or heart. Treatment includes exercise, diet, weight, loss, and if needed insulin or oil, antidiabetic medication’s. Oral antidiabetic medication‘s activate the release of pancreatic insulin or improve the body’s sensitivity to insulin.
Type 2 diabetes
723
_______________ may occur in women who are not diabetic, but develop diabetes during pregnancy. They develop an inability to metabolize carbohydrates with resultant hyperglycemia. This most often resolves after childbirth.
Gestational diabetes
724
Chronic metabolic disorder, characterized by a gradual, marked enlargement and thickening of the bones of the face and jaw. This is caused by overproduction of growth hormone.
Acromegaly
725
Increased formation and secretion of urine
Diuresis
726
Presence of glucose in the urine or abnormal amount of sugar in the urine
Glycosuria
727
Multisystem auto immune disorder, characterized by pronounce hyperthyroidism, usually associated with enlarged thyroid gland and exophthalmos
Graves’ disease
728
Excessive distribution of body hair, especially in women
Hirsutism
729
Excessive amount of calcium in the blood
Hypercalcemia
730
Excessive amount of potassium in the blood
Hyperkalemia
731
Abnormal increase in the volume of circulating fluid (plasma) in the body
Hypervolemia
732
Abnormal condition of low sodium in the body
Hyponatremia
733
Tumor of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas
Insulinoma
734
Total pituitary impairment that brings about a progressive and general loss of hormonal activity
Panhypopituitarism
735
Small chromaffin cell tumor, usually located in the adrenal medulla
Pheochromocytoma
736
Crisis of uncontrolled hypothyroidism caused by the release into the bloodstream of increased amount of thyroid hormone
Thyroid storm Thyroid crisis Thyrotoxic crisis
737
Masculine, or having characteristics of a man
Virile
738
Masculinization in a woman or development of male secondary sex characteristics in the woman
Virilism
739
Test that measures the degree of forward displacement of the eyeball as seen in Graves’ disease
Exophthalmometry
740
Test that measures blood glucose levels after a 12 hour fast
Fasting blood glucose
741
Test that measures the body’s ability to metabolize carbohydrates by administering a standard dose of glucose and measuring glucose levels in the blood and urine at regular intervals
Glucose tolerance test (GTT)
742
Test that determines insulin levels in serum by administering insulin and measuring blood glucose levels in blood at regular intervals
Insulin tolerance test
743
Test that measures the concentration of thyroxine in a blood sample
Protein bound iodine
744
Test that detects an increase or decrease in thyroid function
Thyroid function test
745
Test that measures calcium to detect a bone and parathyroid disorders
Total calcium
746
Microdissection of a tumor, using a binocular surgical microscope for magnification
Microneurosurgery of the pituitary gland
747
Excision of one or more of the parathyroid glands, usually to control hyperparathyroidism
Parathyroidectomy
748
Removal of the pineal body
Pinealectomy
749
Excision of the thymus gland
Thymectomy
750
Excision of the thyroid gland
Thyroidectomy
751
Method of choice for removing a fibrous, nodular thyroid
Partial thyroidectomy
752
Removal of most of the thyroid to relieve hyperthyroidism
Subtotal thyroidectomy
753
Carry or move, inward or toward a central structure
Afferent
754
Protective mechanism that block, specific substances found in the bloodstream from entering delicate brain tissue
Blood brain barrier
755
Network of nervous tissue found in the brain and spinal cord
Central nervous system
756
Carry or move away from a central structure
Efferent
757
Additional sheath external to myelin that is formed by Schwann cells and found only on axons in the peripheral nervous system
Neurilemma
758
Chamber or cavity of an organ that receives or hold of fluid
Ventricle
759
The brain and spinal cord receive limited protection, from 3 coverings called meninges, which include: __________ __________ __________
Dura mater Arachnoid Pia mater
760
_______________ provides a sample of CSF for analysis and helps identify various types of meningitis and encephalitis
Lumbar puncture
761
_______________ is an inflammation of the nerve root associated with the spinal column
Radiculopathy Radiculitis
762
_______________ refers to any functional abnormality of the cerebrum caused by disorders of the blood vessels of the brain
Cerebrovascular disease
763
The 3 major types of strokes are : _______________ _______________ _______________
Ischemic stroke Intracerebral hemorrhage Subarachnoid hemorrhage
764
stroke symptoms that resolved within 24 hours are known as ________________
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
765
Thrombolytic medication is usually administered within _______ of symptom onset, when ischemic stroke is diagnosed
3 hours
766
_______________ include any medical condition, characterized by sudden changes in behavior or consciousness, as a result of uncontrolled electrical activity in the brain. Characterized by sudden burst of abnormal electrical activity in neurons, resulting in temporary changes in brain function.
Seizure disorders
767
_______________ , only a portion of the brain is involved. There is a short alteration of consciousness of about 10 - 30 seconds with repetitive unusual movement and confusion.
Partial seizures
768
_______________ , the entire brain is involved. The most common type of this seizure is the tonic clonic seizure also called the grand mal seizure. In the tonic phase, the entire body becomes rigid ; in the clonic phase there is uncontrolled jerking. Recovery may take minutes to hours and usually leaves a patient week.
Generalized seizure
769
In _______________ , tonic-clonic seizures follow one after another without an intervening period of recovery. It is a life-threatening emergency that involves the whole cortex and emergency medical attention.
Status epilepticus
770
_______________ is a progressive neurological disorder affecting the portion of the brain responsible for controlling movement. As neurons degenerate, the patient develops uncontrollable nodding of the head, decreased speed of movement, tremors, large joint, stiffness, and a shuffling gait. Muscle rigidity causes facial expressions to appear fixed and mask-like with unblinking eyes. Sometimes the patient exhibits “pill rolling” and which they inadvertently rubs the thumb against the index finger.
Parkinson disease Shaking palsy
771
__________________ is a progressive, degenerative disease of the central nervous system. It is characterized by inflammation, hardening, and finally loss of myelin throughout the spinal cord and brain. As myelin deteriorates, the transmission of electrical impulses from Wonder onto another, is impeded.
Multiple sclerosis
772
_________________ is a progressive neurological disorder that causes memory loss in serious mental deterioration. Small lesions called plaques develop in the cerebral cortex and disrupt the passage of electrical chemical signals between cells. The clinical manifestations include memory, loss and cognitive decline. There is also a decline in social skills and the ability to carry out activities of daily living. Most patients undergo personality, emotional, and behavioral changes. As the disease progresses loss of concentration and increased fatigue, restlessness, and anxiety are common.
Alzheimer’s disease
773
_______________ includes any array of physiological disorders, syndromes, and behavioral patterns that cause alterations in mood, behavior, and thinking.
Mental illness
774
____________ refers to a serious mental disorder commonly characterized by false beliefs, despite overwhelming evidence to the contrary. The patient’s speech is usually incoherent and disorganized and behavior is erratic.
Psychosis
775
____________ is a mental disorder caused by an emotion experience in the past that overwhelmingly interferes or affects a present emotion
Neurosis
776
In ability to comprehend auditory, visual, special, olfactory, or other sensations, even though the sensory sphere is intact
Agnosia
777
Weakness, debility, for loss of strength
Asthenia
778
Lack of muscle coordination in the execution of voluntary movement
Ataxia
779
Premonitory awareness of an approaching physical or mental disorder ; peculiar sensation that precedes seizures
Aura
780
Developmental disorder characterized by extreme withdrawal and an abnormal absorption in fantasy, usually accompanied by an inability to communicate even on a basic level
Autism
781
Injury to the head in which the Dura mater remains intact and brain tissue is not exposed
Closed head trauma
782
Abnormally deep unconsciousness with absence of voluntary response to stimuli
Coma
783
Injury to the brain, occasionally with transient loss of consciousness as a result of injury or trauma to the head
Concussion
784
Any sudden and violent contraction of one or more muscles
Convulsion
785
Broad term that refers to cognitive deficit, including memory impairment
Dementia
786
Inability to learning process written language despite adequate intelligence, century ability, and exposure
Dyslexia
787
Autoimmune condition that causes acute inflammation of the peripheral nerves in which the myelin sheath on the axons are destroyed, resulting in decreased nerve impulses, loss of reflux, response, and sudden muscle weakness
Guillain-Barré syndrome
788
Painful, acute infectious disease of the posterior root ganglia of only a few segments of the spinal cord or cranial nerves ; also called shingles
Herpes zoster
789
Inherited disease of the CNS characterized by quick involuntary movements, speech disturbances, and mental deterioration
Huntington chorea
790
Accumulation of fluid in the ventricles of the brain, causing increased cranial pressure (ICP), thinning of brain tissue, and separation of cranial bones
Hydrocephalus
791
Abnormal inactivity or lack of response to normal stimuli ; also called sluggishness
Lethargy
792
Non-psychotic mental illness that triggers feelings of distress and anxiety and impairs normal behavior
Neurosis
793
Paralysis, usually partial, and commonly characterized by weakness and shaking or uncontrolled tremor
Palsy
794
Facial paralysis caused by a functional disorder of the seventh cranial nerve, associated with herpes virus
Bell palsy
795
Type of paralysis that affects movement and body position, and sometimes speech and learning ability
Cerebral palsy
796
Loss of voluntary motion in one or more muscle groups with or without loss of sensation
Paralysis
797
Paralysis of one side of the body, typically as the result of a stroke ; also called unilateral paralysis
Hemiplegia
798
Paralysis of both lower limbs, typically as a result of trauma or disease of the lower spinal cord
Paraplegia
799
Paralysis of both arms and legs, typically as a result of trauma or disease of the upper spinal cord
Quadriplegia
800
Major emotional disorder in which contact with reality is lost to the point that the individual is incapable of meeting challenges of daily life
Psychosis
801
Defect in which the neural tube fails to close during embryogenesis (tissue that forms the brain and spinal cord in the fetus)
Spina bifida
802
Form of spina bifida in which the spinal cord develops properly, but the meninges protrude through the spine
Meningocele spina bifida
803
Quadriplegia can result from an injury at the ____or___ vertebrae
C4 C6
804
Paraplegia can result from an injury at the ___or___ vertebrae
T6 L1
805
Most severe form of spina bifida, in which the spinal cord and meninges protrude through the spine
Myelomeningocele
806
Form of spina bifida in which one or more vertebrae are malformed and the spinal cord is covered with a layer of skin
Occulta myelomeningocele
807
Sensation of numbness, prickling, tingling, or heightened sensitivity
Paresthesia
808
Inflammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord caused by a virus, commonly resulting in spinal in muscle deformity and paralysis
Poliomyelitis
809
Acute encephalopathy and fat infiltration of the brain, liver, and possibly the pancreas, heart, kidney, spleen, and lymph nodes
Reye syndrome
810
Severe pain in the leg along the course of the sciatic nerve felt at the base of the spine, down the thigh, and radiating down the leg due to a compressed nerve
Sciatica
811
Temporary loss of consciousness, due to the sudden decline of blood flow to the brain ; also called fainting
Syncope
812
Syncope due to a drop in blood pressure brought on by the response of the nervous system to abrupt emotional stress, pain, or trauma
Vasovagal syncope
813
General type of seizure characterized by the loss of consciousness and stiffening of the body followed by rhythmic, jerking movements
Tonic-clonic seizure
814
Temporary interference with blood supply to the brain lasting from a few minutes to a few hours
Transient ischemic attack
815
Recording of electrical activity in the brain, whose cells emit distinct patterns of rhythmic electrical impulses
Electroencephalography (EEG)
816
Recording of electrical signals that occur in a muscle when it is at rest and during contraction to assess nerve damage
Electromyography (EMG)
817
Needles puncture of the spinal cord to extract spinal fluid for diagnostic purposes, introduced anesthetics agents into the spinal cord, or remove fluid to allow other fluids to be injected ; also called spinal puncture & spinal tap
Lumbar puncture
818
Test that measures the speed at which impulses travel through a nerve
Nerve conduction velocity
819
Series of chemical, microscopic, and microbial tests, used to diagnose disorders of the central nervous system, including viral and bacterial infections, tumors, and hemorrhage
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
820
Precise method of locating in destroying sharply circumscribed lesions on specific, tiny areas of pathological tissue in deep seeded structures of the central nervous system ; also called stereotaxy or stereotactic surgery
Stereotactic radiosurgery
821
Partial destruction of the thalamus to treat intractable pain, involuntary movements, or emotional disturbances
Thalamotomy
822
Transection of a nerve tracked in the brain stem or spinal cord
Tractotomy
823
Technique that cuts a circular opening in the skull to reveal brain tissue and decrease intercranial pressure
Trephination
824
Interruption of the function of the vagus nerve to relieve peptic ulcer
Vagotomy
825
The eye is a globe shaped organ composed of 3 distinct tunics : _______________ _______________ _______________
Fibrous tunic Vascular tunic Sensory tunic
826
Adjustment of the eye for various distances so that images fall on the retina of the eye
Accommodation
827
Clearness or sharpness of a sensory function
Acuity
828
Tissues or structures in the body adjacent to or near a related structure
Adnexa
829
Being loosely joined or connected together to allow motion between the parts
Articulating
830
Any fluid or semifluid of the body
Humor
831
Series of intricate communicating passages
Labyrinth
832
Substance that does not allow the passage of light ; not transparent
Opaque
833
Fluid that very closely resembles spinal fluid, but found in the cochlea
Perilymph
834
Light-sensitive pigment in the retinal cones and rods that absorb light and initiates the visual process ; also called visual pigment
Photopigment
835
Ability to bend light rays as they pass from one medium to another
Refractive
836
Layer or coat of tissue ; also called membrane layer
Tunic
837
In the central portion of the retina is a highly sensitive structure, called the ____________
Macula
838
If aqueous humor fails to drain from the eye at the rate at which it is produced, a condition called _________ results
Glaucoma
839
The ear canal is a slender tube lined with glands that produce a waxy secretion called _____________
Cerumen
840
The _______________ connects the middle ear to the pharynx
Eustachian tube
841
_______________ refers to the orientation of the body relative to gravity. It allows an individual to maintain posture in orientation while at rest.
Static equilibrium
842
_______________ refers to maintaining body position in response to movement
Dynamic equilibrium
843
__________________ is the medical specialty concerned with disorders of the eye
Ophthalmology
844
_______________ is the medical specialty concerned with disorders of the ear, nose, and throat
Otolaryngology
845
Error of refraction
Ametropia
846
Farsightedness
Hyperopia Hypermetropia
847
A form of farsightedness is called _______________ , in which a defect associated with the aging process
Presbyopia
848
In another form of ametropia called ________________ , the cornea or lens has a defective curvature. This curvature causes light rays to diffuse over a larger area of the retina rather than being sharply focused.
Astigmatism
849
_______________ are opacities that form on the lens and impaired vision. These opacities are commonly produced by protein that slowly builds up overtime until vision is affected.
Cataracts
850
_______________ is characterized by increased intraocular pressure caused by the failure of aqueous humor to drain from the I threw a tiny duct called the canal of Schlemm. The increased pressure of the optic nerve destroys it, and vision is permanently lost.
Glaucoma
851
An instrument that measures intraocular pressure
Tonometer
852
_______________ is a condition in which one eye is misaligned with the other, and the eyes do not focused simultaneously when viewing an object. The misalignment may be in any direction. The deviation may be a constant condition, or may arise intermediately with stress, exhaustion, or illness.
Strabismus
853
_______________ what is a deterioration of the macula, the most sensitive portion of the retina. The macula is responsible for central, or straightahead vision required for reading, driving, detail, work, and recognizing faces.
Macular degeneration
854
_______________ is an inflammation of the middle ear. This infection may be caused by a virus or bacterium.
Otitis media
855
The usual treatment for children with recurrent ear infections is the use of _________________________
Pressure equalizing tubes (eustachian, ear tubes)
856
_______________ is a disorder characterized by an abnormal hardening of bones of the middle ear that cause hearing loss. The ossicle most commonly affected is the steepest, the bone that attaches to the oval window of the cochlea.
Otosclerosis
857
In melanoma where the lesion is on the iris of the eye, an _______________ is performed
Iridectomy
858
In melanoma of the choroid, _______________ is necessary
Enucleation (removal of the effected eye)
859
Severe congenital deficiency in color perception ; also called complete color blindness
Achromatopsia
860
Small hard tumor developing on the eyelid, somewhat similar to a sebaceous cyst
Chalazion
861
Inflammation of the conjunctiva with vascular congestion, producing a red or pink eye ; may be secondary to viral, bacterial, fungal infections, or allergy
Conjunctivitis
862
Medial movement of the 2 eyeballs so that they are both directed at the object being viewed
Convergence
863
Measurement of refractive error
Diopter
864
Eversion, or outward turning, of the edge of the lower eyelid
Ectropion
865
State of normal vision
Emmetropia
866
Inversion or inward turning of the edge of the lower eyelid
Entropion
867
Abnormal overflow of tears
Epiphora
868
Protrusion of one or both eyeballs
Exophthalmos
869
Localized, circumscribed, inflammatory swelling of one of the several sebaceous glands of the eyelid, generally caused by bacterial infection ; also called stye
Hordeolum
870
Visual distortion of objects
Metamorphopsia
871
Impaired vision in dim light ; also called night blindness
Nyctalopia
872
Involuntary eye movements that appear jerky and may reduce vision or be associated with other, more serious condition that limit vision
Nystagmus
873
Edema or hyperemia of the optic disc, usually associated with increased Intra cranial pressure ; also called choked disc
Papilledema
874
Unusual intolerance and sensitivity to light
Photophobia
875
Loss of accommodation of the crystalline lens associated with aging process
Presbyopia
876
Any disorder of retinal blood vessels
Retinopathy
877
Disorder that occurs in patients with diabetes, and his manifested by small hemorrhages, edema, formation of new vessels on the retina, leading to scarring and eventually loss of vision
Diabetic retinopathy
878
Chronic, contagious form of conjunctivitis common in the southwestern United States that typically lead to blindness
Trachoma
879
Area within which objects may be seen when the eye is in a fixed position
Visual field
880
Complete deafness
Anacusis
881
Blocking of sound waves as they pass through the external and middle ear
Conduction impairment
882
Inflammation of the inner ear that usually results from an acute febrile process
Labyrinthitis
883
Disorder of the labyrinth that leads to progressive loss of hearing
Ménière disease
884
Condition caused by the destruction of hair cells, the organ is responsible for hearing, caused by sounds that are “too loud, too long, or to close”
Noise induced hearing loss
885
Infection of the external auditory canal
Otitis externa
886
Impairment of hearing resulting from old age
Presbyacusis
887
Tubes that are inserted through the tympanic membrane, commonly to treat chronic otitis media
Pressure equalizing tubes (PE tubes)
888
Perception of ringing, hissing, or other, sounds in the ears or head when no external sound is present
Tinnitus
889
Hallucination of movement, or a feeling of spinning or dizziness
Vertigo
890
Measurement of hearing acuity at various sound wave frequencies
Audiometry
891
Test that uses different water temperatures to assess the vestibular portion of the nerve of the inner ear to determine if nerve damage is the cause of vertigo
Caloric stimulation test
892
Method of assessing and recording eye movements by measuring the electrical activity of the extraocular muscles
Electronystagmography
893
Measurement of the blood pressure of the retinal vessels
Ophthalmodynamometry
894
Evaluation of intraocular pressure by measuring the resistance of the eyeball to identification by an applied force
Tonometry
895
Part of an eye examination that determines the smallest letters that can be read on a standard chart at a distance of 20 feet
Visual acuity test
896
Examination of the angle of the anterior chamber of the eye to determine ocular motility and rotation, and diagnose and manage glaucoma
Gonioscopy
897
Visual examination of the interior of the eye, using a handheld instrument, called an ophthalmoscope, which has various adjustable lenses for magnification and a light source to illuminate the interior of the eye
Ophthalmoscopy
898
Visual examination of the internal auditory canal, and the tympanic membrane using an otoscope
Otoscopy
899
Procedure that assesses the ability of the tympanic membrane to move in response to a change in air pressure
Pneumatic otoscopy
900
Evaluation of refractive errors of the eye, by projecting your light into the eye and determining the movement of reflected light rays
Retinoscopy
901
Radiographic imaging procedures of the nasolacrimal glands and ducts
Dacryocystography
902
Assess his blood vessels and their leakage in and beneath the retina after injection of fluorescein dye. The dye circulates, while photographs of the vessels within the eye are obtained.
Fluorescein angiography
903
Exercises intended to improve eye-movement or visual tracking that use training glasses, prism glasses, or tented/colored lenses
Orthoptic training
904
Cosmetic surgery that removes fatty tissue above and below the eyes that commonly form as a result of the aging process or excessive exposure to the sun
Blepharoplasty
905
Artificial hearing device that produces useful hearing sensations by electrically stimulating nerves inside the inner ear
Cochlear implant
906
Formation of an opening between the anterior chamber and the suprachoroidal space for the draining of aqueous humor in glaucoma
Cyclodialysis
907
Removal of the eyeball from the orbit
Enucleation
908
Removal of the contents of the eye, while leaving the sclera and cornea intact
Evisceration
909
Surgical opening of a cavity within the mastoid process
Mastoid antrotomy
910
Corrective surgery for a deformed or excessively large or small pinna
Otoplasty
911
Method of treating Cataracts by using ultrasonic waves to disintegrate a cloudy lens, which is the aspirated and removed
Phacoemulsification
912
Incision of the cornea for treatment of nearsightedness or astigmatism
Radial keratotomy
913
Surgical formation of an opening in the sclera
Sclerostomy
914
Method used to evaluate sound conduction, using a vibrating tuning fork
Tuning fork test
915
Tuning for test that evaluates bone conduction VS air conduction of sound
Rinne tuning fork test
916
Tuning fork test that evaluates bone conduction of sound in both ears at the same time
Weber tuning fork test
917
Reconstruction of the eardrum, commonly due to perforation
Tympanoplasty Myringoplasty