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PTCB Exam > Medication 1-100 > Flashcards

Medication 1-100 Flashcards

(117 cards)

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1
Q

All of the following ingredients are contained in Mylanta regular strength except

A

calcium carbonate

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2
Q

which of the following is an adverse effect of duloxetine

A

Hypertension

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3
Q

A prescriber wishes to prescribe a beta-blocker for a patient diagnosed with hypertension; which of the following would be an appropriate medication

A

metoprolol

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4
Q

which of the following dosage forms is a semisolid dosage form in which the base contains more water than the skin and penetrates well into the skin

A

lotions

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5
Q

Which of the following is the brand name for herpes zoster vaccine

A

Zostavax

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6
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about taking bisphosphonates

A

The medication should be taken 30 minutes after the first meal, beverage, or medication of the day

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7
Q

Which of the following is the generic drug name for Novolog

A

Insulin aspart

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8
Q

Which condition is adalimumab indicated to treat

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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9
Q

Why are medications stored in opaque bottles

A

Drugs are sensitive to light

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10
Q

A generic drug with suffix- glitazone is indicated in treating which condition

A

Diabetes mellitus

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11
Q

Which of the following is not a class of HIV medication therapy

A

Antiprotozoals

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12
Q

How is Byetta administered

A

SC - Subsutaneously

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13
Q

Which of the following is the antidote for an overdose of warfarin

A

phytonadione

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14
Q

Which of the following medications is administered using a loading dose

A

azithromycin

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15
Q

Which route of administration will provide the highest blood concentration in the shortest time

A

Intravenous

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16
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication

A

Symptom or medical condition that indicates the inappropriateness of a form of treatment that would otherwise be advisable

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17
Q

Which dosage form is a clear, sweetened, flavored hydroalcoholic solution containing water and ethanol

A

Elixir

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18
Q

Which of the following is a rapid-acting insulin product

A

insulin lispro

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19
Q

Which antibiotic is recommended to be taken every 12 hours

A

ciprofloxacin

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20
Q

Which of the following drug classifications will decrease blood glucose levels

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

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21
Q

A patient is complaining of muscle spasms; which medication is an appropriate treatment

A

cyclobenzaprine

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22
Q

A patient is cautioned that the medication she was prescribed might cause nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, tinnitus, and even permanent deafness. What class of antibiotic was the patient likely prescribe

A

Aminoglycoside

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23
Q

What is the brand name for hydrocodone/ acetaminophen

A

Vicodin

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24
Q

Which of the following medications is used in the treatment of influenza

A

oseltamivir

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25
Which of the following is the generic name for Glucophage
Metformin
26
A patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is prescribed lithium. What should their therapeutic blood levels be
0.6 - 0.8 mg/ml
27
a patient is prescribed enoxaparin; how should it be administered
subcutaneously
28
A patient has been diagnosed with metastatic ovarian cancer; which of the following medications would be an appropriate treatment
cisplatin
29
a deficiency of which vitamin will result in the patient experiencing scurvy
vitamin c
30
Which is the concentration of normal saline solution
0.9%
31
Which of the following ingredients found in OTC medications is classified as an antitussive agent
dextromethorphan
32
often patients confuse the need for a decongestant with an antihistamine for their cold symptoms. Which of the following represents a decongestant
pseudoephedrine
33
Which of the following is not addressed under the pregnancy and lactation labeling ruling
pediatrics
34
which of the following is the brand name for escitalopram
lexapro
35
Which is the meaning of the prefix brady
slow
36
A prescription is written for the antibiotic Zithromax. The physician indicated "Voluntary Formulary" permitted on the prescription. Which of the following medications would be dispensed
Azithromycin
37
A patient is diagnosed with diabete mellitus type 1; which of the following medications would be prescribed?
lispro insulin
38
What is the indication for Victoza
Diabetes Mellitus
39
A prescription is written for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg. Which of the following would be appropriate directions for use
Take one tablet by mouth in the morning with orange juice
40
All of the following drugs are indicated for asthma except
isoniazid
41
For which of the following conditions is adrucil indicated
breast cancer
42
Which insulin has peak activity of 6- 10 hours
Neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin
43
Which of the following medications is indicated for systemic fungal infections
amphotericin B cholesteryl sulfate
44
which route should enoxaparin be administrated
Subcutaneously
45
What is the generic name for Januvia
sitagliptin
46
Which of the following medications could be used as a prophylactic for migraines
Inderal
47
Which of the following antiplatelet medications must be administered parenterally
abciximab
48
Which of the following medications is a colony- stimulating factor indication for anemia
epoetin alfa recombinant
49
which of the following medications should be tapered when discontinuing therapy
metoprolol
50
which of the following conditions is enoxaparin indicated
Deep vein thrombosis
51
What is the brand name for mupirocin
bactroban
52
A patient takes pseudoephedrine (sudafed) for nasal congestion; however, the patient has high blood pressure. This would be considered a drug- ____ interaction.
disease
53
How is Lovenox (enoxaparin) administered?
Subcutaneously
54
What do we call the administration of a medication into a patient's vein all at once rather than over several hours or days?
IV push
55
HIV is caused by which type of microorganism?
Viral
56
A patient overdoses on an opiate, and naloxone (Narcan) is given as an antidote to combat the effects of the opiate. Naloxone would then be considered a(n):
antagonist
57
Which of the following medications is a vitamin K antagonist that is used as an anticoagulant?
warfarin
58
All the following drug classifications may interact with oral contraceptives EXCEPT ________.
beta blockers
59
A patient has been diagnosed with advanced prostate cancer. Which medication would be an appropriate treatment?
leuprolide acetate injection
60
All the following are orally administered medications for the management of type 2 diabetes EXCEPT _______.
Humulin 70/30 insulin
61
A patient is taking warfarin 5 mg po qd. Which of the following products could the patient eat?
Oranges
62
Which type of drug interaction occurs when a medication works against the action of another medication?
Antagonism
63
Which of the following is an example of beta blocker?
metoprolol
64
What unit of measurement is used to indicate the strength of heparin?
International units
65
Which of the following medications does NOT possess antipyretic properties?
Tylenol
66
What term refers to the removal of drugs and metabolites by the kidneys through the urine?
Excretion
67
Which medication may decrease a patient's LDL cholesterol?
metoprolol
68
Which of the following will elevate blood glucose levels?
Thiazide diuretics
69
Which of the following products will decrease a patient's HDL?
Beta blockers
70
How much codeine is contained in one tablet of acetaminophen/codeine #3?
1/2 gr
71
Which of the following conditions is associated with the pancreas?
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
72
Which of the following is used to treat osteoarthritis?
Chondroitin
73
Which is the generic name for Namenda?
memantine
74
Which is the generic name for Levemir?
insulin detemir
75
Which therapeutic equivalent code is assigned to a medication in conventional dosage forms not presenting bioequivalence problems?
AA
76
Which dosage form is described as "solid particles dispersed in liquid vehicle?"
Suspensions
77
A patient has been diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following medications would be an appropriate treatment?
pantoprazole
78
A patient has been prescribed a fentanyl patch for severe chronic pain. How often should the patch be changed?
Every 3 days
79
Each of the following factors will affect the route of administration EXCEPT ________.
shape of the dosage form
80
Signs of physical instability that include precipitation, discoloration, haziness, gas formation, and microbial growth are associated with which dosage form?
Solutions, elixirs, and syrups
81
How many milligrams are in Nitrostat 1/150 gr?
0.4
82
Which of the following is the brand name for insulin glulisine?
Apidra
83
Which of the following is an example of drug duplication?
Calan and Isoptin
84
Which term refers to the substitution of one drug for another in the same therapeutic class?
Therapeutic interchange
85
All of the following medications are indicated for osteoporosis EXCEPT ________.
rivastigmine
86
Which of the following is the generic name for Taxotere?
docetaxel injection
87
Which body system is treated using metformin?
Endocrine
88
Methylphenidate is indicated for the treatment of ________.
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
89
A patient complains of seeing a green-blue halo. This is an example of a toxicity associated with which medication?
digoxin
90
Candesartan is the generic name for ________.
Altacand
91
Rhinitis medicamentosa is an adverse reaction associated with which drug classification?
Decongestants
92
Which of the following medications may require a patient to take a potassium supplement?
hydrochlorothiazide
93
What is the generic name for Dilantin?
phenytoin
94
Which of the following insulins have an onset of action of 15 minutes?
lispro insulin
95
Which of the following products is available as a transdermal patch?
fentanyl
96
Heparin is measured in ________.
units
97
Which of the following would require a potassium supplement?
furosemide
98
Which of the following is NOT a route of administration for bleomycin sulfate?
Infiltration
99
What is the brand name for enalapril?
Vasotec
100
Which of the following medication is indicated for glaucoma?
latanoprost ophthalmic
101
Which term defines the process of how drugs are handled in the body?
Pharmacokinetics
102
A diabetic patient may take which of the following dosage forms?
Emulsion
103
How is heparin administered to a patient?
Subcutaneously
104
A patient is allergic to sulfa medications. Which of the following medications found in the patient's profile should be brought to the attention of the pharmacist?
Bactrim DS
105
At which USP temperature classification should Zostavax be stored?
Freezer
106
Which of the following is an example of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
paroxetine
107
Which of the following is the generic name for Ativan?
lorazepam
108
If a patient is hypokalemic, her or she has which of the following?
Low potassium
109
The generic name for Estrace is ________.
estradiol
110
Which of the following is an example of a stool softener?
docusate
111
Which classification of antidepressants needs to be washed out of the body before a patient switches to another antidepressant?
MAOIs
112
A pharmacist compounds a sweetened, flavored product containing water and alcohol. This is most likely a(n) ________.
elixir
113
All of the following are abbreviations used to indicate various extended-release dosage forms EXCEPT ________.
ERF
114
What classification is citalopram?
SSRI
115
Each of the following would be an appropriate auxiliary label for doxycycline EXCEPT ________.
avoid dairy products
116
A patient has edema; which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?
spironolactone
117
Which is the generic name for Cordarone?
amiodarone

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