Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

get in my brain > medicine > Flashcards

medicine Flashcards

(87 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Budd Chiari - triad?

A

Hepatic vein thrombosis - sudden onset abdominal pain, ascites, and tender hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Child-Pugh classification - used for? elements?

A

Cirrhosis severity -
Bilirubin
Albumin
Prothrombin time
Encephalopathy
Ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

High-output heart failure - causes?

A

2Ps, 2As, 2Ts

Pregnancy and Pagets
Anaemia and arteriovenous malformation
Thyrotoxicosis and thiamine (wet beri-beri)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Incontinence (“wet”), gait instability (“wobbly”), and cognitive changes (“wacky”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pro-kinetic anti-emetic?

A

Metoclopramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ECG features of hypokalaemia?

A

U waves
small or absent T waves (occasionally inversion)
prolong PR interval
ST depression
long QT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Investigation for unilateral sensorineural hearing loss?

A

MRI of internal acoustic meatus to exclude vestibular schwannoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Monitoring requirements for trastuzumab (Herceptin)?

A

Echo - monitoring of left ventricular ejection fraction through serial echocardiograms before and during treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia - artery?

A

Posterior cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most sensitive blood test for diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?

A

Serum lipase - do serum lipase and CT if serum amylase not concordant with clinical picture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Symptoms of anterior cerebral artery stroke?

A

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, lower extremity > upper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Symptoms of middle cerebral artery stroke?

A

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, upper extremity > lower
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Symptoms of posterior cerebral artery stroke?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
Visual agnosia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome? Artery?

A

Cerebellar signs (ataxia, nystagmus)
Ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss
Ipsilateral Horner’s
Contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss

PATH C (pain and temperature, Horner’s, cerebellar)
Posterior Inferior Cerebral Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Symptoms of Weber’s syndrome? Artery?

A

Ipsilateral CN III palsy
Contralateral weakness of upper and lower extremity

Trying to BBQ with weak side, looking away
Branches of PCA supplying midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Symptoms of lateral pontine syndrome? Artery?

A

Similar to lateral medullary syndrome (Ipsilateral: facial pain and temperature loss
Contralateral: limb/torso pain and temperature loss
Ataxia, nystagmus)
but also…
Ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness

PAT can C (but she can’t hear/move)
Anterior Inferior Cerebral Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Symptom of retinal/opthalmic artery stroke?

A

Amaurosis fugax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Symptom of basilar artery stroke?

A

Locked-in syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Symptoms of lacunar stroke?

A

Present with either isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss or hemiparesis with limb ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Symptoms of middle cerebral artery stroke?

A

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, upper extremity > lower
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Symptoms of Multiple System Atrophy?

A

Parkinsonism (rigidity > tremor)
Autonomic disturbance:
Erectile dysfunction: often an early feature
Postural hypotension
Atonic bladder
Cerebellar signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Symptoms of Progressive Supranuclear Palsy?

A

Postural instability and falls
Stiff, broad-based gait
Impairment of vertical gaze (down gaze worse than up gaze)
Speech disturbance
Parkinsonism (bradykinesia prominent)
Cognitive impairment (primarily frontal lobe dysfunction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Symptoms of Corticobasilar Degeneration?

A

Unilateral parkinsonism
Aphasia
Astereognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List types of motor neurone disease - UMN, LMN or both?

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis - mixed UMN/LMN (corticospinal tracts)
Primary Lateral Sclerosis - UMN (loss of Betz cells in cerebral cortex)
Progressive Muscular Atrophy - LMN mainly, distal to proximal (anterior horn cells)
Progressive Bulbar Palsy - bulbar palsy (CN IX-XII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Mammogram screening programme?
Ages 47-73, every 3 years
26
ECG features in hypothermia?
Bradycardia 'J' wave (Osborne waves) - small hump at the end of the QRS complex First degree heart block Long QT interval Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias
27
Drug given to reduce rate of CKD progression in ADPKD?
Tolvaptan
28
Medical management of subarachnoid haemorrhage?
Nimodipine to prevent vasospasm
29
Treatment pericarditis?
NSAIDs and colchicine
30
Treatment of chemically-mediated nausea?
Ondansetron, haloperidol, levomepromazine
31
Treatment of raised ICP nausea?
Cyclizine (also dexamethasone)
32
Treatment of reduced gastric motility nausea?
Metoclopramide, domperidone
33
Treatment of vestibular nausea?
Cyclizine
34
Treatment of visceral/serosal nausea?
Cyclizine, levomepromazine
35
Anti-emetic to use in Parkinson's?
Domperidone (Avoid metoclopramide, haloperidol, prochlorperazine)
36
Tumour lysis syndrome laboratory features?
Abnormality in at least two of following, 3 days before or 7 days after chemo: High uric acid (> 475umol/l or 25% increase) High potassium (> 6 mmol/l or 25% increase) High phosphate (> 1.125mmol/l or 25% increase) Low calcium (< 1.75mmol/l or 25% decrease)
37
Tumour lysis diagnostic criteria?
Lab features plus at least one of... Increased serum creatinine (1.5 times upper limit of normal) cardiac arrhythmia or sudden death seizure
38
Tumour lysis syndrome prophylaxis?
High risk: IV allopurinol or IV rasbirucase Low risk: PO allopurinol
39
ECG features of hyperkalaemia?
Tall peaked T waves Flattening or absence of P waves Broad QRS complexes
40
High risk of contrast-induced nephropathy - medication to hold?
Patients who are high-risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for a minimum of 48 hours and until the renal function has been shown to be normal
41
Prevention of contrast-induced nephropathy?
Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours pre- and post- procedure
42
DOAC of choice in renal impairment?
Apixaban (mostly faecally excreted - aPOOxaban) (LIVERoxaban dabigatURINE)
43
Glasgow-Imrie criteria - use and components?
Used to assess the severity and determine the prognosis of patients with acute pancreatitis * PaO2 * Age * Neutrophils (WBC) * Calcium * Renal Function (Urea) * Enzymes (LDH) * Albumin * Sugar (Glucose)
44
Hinchey classification used for?
Classifying acute diverticulitis
45
Alvarado score used for?
Predicting likelihood of acute appendicitis
46
Ranson criteria used for?
Predicting mortality in acute pancreatitis
47
Maddrey's score used for?
Determining whether steroids are indicated in alcoholic hepatitis
48
Rockall score used for?
Determining the risk of adverse outcomes in patients who have had an upper GI bleed (after endoscopy)
49
Glasgow-Blatchford score used for?
Determining whether upper GI bleed patients can be managed as outpatients
50
Salter-Harris classification - used for? Types?
Used to grade paediatric fractures that involve the growth plate I - Straight through II - Above growth plate III - Lower (below growth plate) IV - Through Everything V - cRush
51
Garden classification - used for? Types?
Classification of intracapsular neck of femur fractures Type I - incomplete, undisplaced, includes valgus impacted fractures Type II - complete, undisplaced Type III - complete, partially displaced (but still has boney contact) Type IV - complete, completely displaced
52
Colles' fracture - mechanism? displacement? deformity seen?
FOOSH, distal radius fracture, dorsal angulation/displacement, 'dinner fork deformity'
53
Smith fracture - mechanism? displacement? deformity seen?
Falling backwards onto palm of outstretched hand or falling onto flexed wrist, distal radius fracture, volar angulation/displacement, 'garden spade deformity'
54
Bennett's fracture - location? mechanism? X-ray finding?
Intra-articular fracture of the first metacarpal joint Impact on flexed metacarpal (fist fights) Triangular fragment at ulnar base of metacarpal
55
Monteggia's fracture - location? mechanism?
Dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint with an associated ulnar fracture FOOSH with forced pronation
56
Galeazzi fracture - location? mechanism?
Radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint FOOSH or direct blow to wrist
57
Pott's fracture - location? mechanism?
Bimalleolar ankle fracture Forced foot eversion
58
Barton's fracture - location? mechanism?
Distal radial fracture (i.e. Colles'/Smith) with associated radiocarpal dislocation Fall onto extended and pronated wrist
59
Medical management of Myasthenia Gravis?
For initial symptomatic relief - pyridostigmine (long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) Immunosuppression eventually required - prednisolone initially Azathioprine, cyclosporine, mycophenolate mofetil may also be used
60
Management of myasthenic crisis?
Plasmapheresis Intravenous immunoglobulins
61
plasmapheresis intravenous immunoglobulins
62
ARDS criteria for diagnosis?
Acute onset (within 1 week of a known risk factor) Pulmonary oedema: bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray ('not fully explained by effusions, lobar/lung collapse or nodules) Non-cardiogenic (pulmonary artery wedge pressure needed if doubt) pO2/FiO2 < 40kPa (300 mmHg)
63
Acromioclavicular joint injury - grades and management?
Rockwood classification I - VI Grade I and II injuries are very common and are typically managed conservatively including resting the joint using a sling. Grade IV, V and VI are rare and require surgical intervention. Grade III depends on individual circumstances. Basically, if coracoclavicular ligament disrupted --> consider surgery
64
Maintenance therapy for UC after severe relapse/>=2 exacerbations in the past year?
Oral azathioprine or oral mercaptopurine (check TPMT)
65
Induction for Crohn's? 1st line 2nd line Add-on therapy Refractory or fistulating Isolated peri-anal
1st line - glucocorticoids (topical/oral/IV) 2nd line - aminosalicylates Azathioprine or mercaptopurine can be used as add-on therapy Refractory or fistulating - infliximab Isolated peri-anal - metronidazole
66
Maintenance for Crohn's?
Azathioprine or mercaptopurine (check TPMT)
67
Types of shock? Which ones present with warm/cool peripheries?
Warm peripheries - SAN: Septic Anaphylactic Neurogenic Cold peripheries: Cardiogenic Haemorrhagic
68
Indications for starting bisphosphonate treatment?
1. Anyone with a BMD <-2.5 on DEXA 2. Anyone 75 or Over with a Fragility Fracture 3. Anyone on High Dose Corticosteroids (>7.5mg for >3months)
69
Initial treatment of acute limb ischaemia?
Analgesia (e.g. IV opioids), IV heparin and vascular review
70
Features of Type 1 Renal Tubular Acidosis?
Inability to secrete H+ in Hypokalaemia Renal stones Can be idiopathic or caused by RA, Sjogren's
71
Features of Type 4 Renal Tubular Acidosis?
Caused by hypoaldosteronism Hypokalaemia
72
Medical management of delirium?
1st line - haloperidol or olanzapine Parkinson's - atypical antipsychotics e.g. quetiapine/clozapine, lorazepam
73
Treatment of agitation and confusion in palliative care?
First choice: haloperidol Other options: chlorpromazine, levomepromazine In the terminal phase of the illness then agitation or restlessness is best treated with midazolam
74
Vitreous haemorrhage: Risk factors Causes Presentation Associated symptoms Fundoscopy
Risk factors - diabetes, bleeding disorders, anticoagulants Causes - proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment, ocular trauma Presentation - acute or subacute painless visual loss or haze (commonest) Associated symptoms - red hue in the vision, floaters or shadows/dark spots in the vision Fundoscopy - haemorrhage in the vitreous cavity
75
Differentiating causes of goitre - pain, hyper/hypothyroid, uptake scan? Hashimoto's De Quervain's Graves' Toxic multinodular goitre
Hashimoto's - firm, non-tender (usually), may be very brief hyperthyroid phase followed by hypothyroid, uptake scan varies De Quervain's - painful goitre, 3-6w hyperthyroid --> 1-3w euthyroid --> hypothyroid, reduced uptake Graves' - painless goitre, hyperthyroid, diffuse & homogenous increased uptake Toxic multinodular goitre - painless nodular, usually hyperthyroid, patchy uptake
76
Weber classification ankle fracture - A/B/C?
Related to the level of the fibular fracture: Type A - below the syndesmosis Type B - fracture starts at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis Type C - above the syndesmosis which may itself be damaged B and C = unstable Tibiofibular syndesmosis = fibrous joint in which two adjacent bones (tibia and fibula) are linked by (a strong membrane or) ligaments (x4)
77
Management of Weber A/B/C fractures?
First, immediate fracture reduction (usually under sedation in A&E) Conservative (below knee backslab): Weber A fractures or Weber B fractures without talar shift Those unfit for surgical intervention Surgical (ORIF): Weber C fractures Weber B fractures with talar shift Open fractures
78
Tarsal bones
Medial --> lateral starting at base of foot: Talus, Calcaneus, Navicular, Medial Cuneiform, Intermediate Cuneiform, Lateral Cuneiform, Cuboid (Tiger Cub Needs MILC)
79
Carpal bones
Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum, Pisiform Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate SLTPTTCH
80
Medical management of HOCM?
Amiodarone Beta-blockers or verapamil for symptoms Cardioverter defibrillator Dual chamber pacemaker (Endocarditis prophylaxis)
81
Psoriatic arthritis - X-ray findings?
Periarticular erosions and bone resorption Periostitis 'Pencil-in-cup' appearance
82
Alzheimer's - areas of brain affected?
Widespread cerebral atrophy mainly involving the cortex and hippocampus
83
Parkinson's - areas of brain affected?
Basal ganglia and substantia nigra
84
ARDS diagnostic criteria?
Criteria (American-European Consensus Conference) acute onset (within 1 week of a known risk factor) pulmonary oedema: bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray ('not fully explained by effusions, lobar/lung collapse or nodules) non-cardiogenic (pulmonary artery wedge pressure needed if doubt) pO2/FiO2 < 40kPa (300 mmHg)
85
Gold standard imaging for chronic pancreatitis?
CT with contrast to visualise calcification
86
Osteoarthritis first line management?
Paracetamol (+/- topical NSAIDs)
87
Cushing's - ABG abnormality?
Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

get in my brain (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions