MEDICINE Flashcards

(44 cards)

1
Q

Chronic myeloid leukemia is associated with

A

Philadelphia chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Presentation chronic myeloid leukemia

A

Presentation (60-70 years)

anaemia: lethargy

weight loss and sweating are common

splenomegalymay be marked → abdo discomfort

an increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation +/- thrombocytosis

decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

may undergo blast transformation (AML in 80%, ALL in 20%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Light’s criteriastate that a pleural effusion is an exudate if:

A

-Effusion lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level greater than 2/3 the upper limit of serum LDH
Pleural fluid LDH divided by serum LDH >0.6
Pleural fluid protein divided by serum protein >0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ITP labs

A

Isolated thrombocytopenia [low platelets]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ITP management

A

first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone
pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used
it raises the platelet count quicker than steroids, therefore may be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Features of myeloma

A

CRABBI
High Ca
Renal impairment
Anaemia
Bleeding
Bony pain/ fractures
Infectiom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Roleux formation
Heinze bodies
Howell jolly
Schistocytes

A

Roleux formation - myeloma
Heinze bodies - G6PD
Howell jolly - post splenectomy / hyposplenic disorder
Schistocytes - fragmented rbcs seen in metallic hv or hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Nefrotic syndrome in children and young adults

A

Minimal change glamorillo nefrightens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mx salicylate od

A

urinary alkalinization with IV bicarbonate
haemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Von Willebrand Disease features

A

Most common inherited bleeding disorder
Autosomal dominant
epistaxis and menorrhagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

VWD labs

A

prolonged bleeding time
APTT may be prolonged
factor VIII levels may be moderately reduced
defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the high risk characteristics of symptomatic pneumothorax?

A

haemodynamic compromise (suggesting a tension pneumothorax)
significant hypoxia
bilateral pneumothorax
underlying lung disease
≥ 50 years of age with significant smoking history
haemothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of pneumothorax

A

<2cm - Conservative
> 2cm ambulatory device or needle drajn
High risk characteristics and > 2cm- chest drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis:

A

Haemophilus influenzae (most common)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella spp.
Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CA125
CA199
CA153

A

CA 125 Ovarian cancer
CA 19-9 Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3 Breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CA125
CA199
CA153

A

CA 125 Ovarian cancer
CA 19-9 Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3 Breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bleomycin side effects

A

Lung fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Anthracyclines (doxorubicin)

A

Cardiomyopathy

19
Q

Vincristine side effects

A

Peripheral neuropathy

20
Q

Carcinormbryonic antigen associated with

A

Colorectal cancer

21
Q

Monitoring parameters for statins

A

LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months

22
Q

Monitoring parameters for ACEi

A

U&E prior to treatment
U&E after increasing dose
U&E at least annually

23
Q

Amiodarone monitoring parameters

A

TFT, LFT, U&E, CXR prior to treatment
TFT, LFT every 6 months

24
Q

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome features

A

Autosomal dominant condition
hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract
pigmented freckles

25
What is beta thalassemia
 disorders characterised by a reduced production rate of either alpha or beta chains thalassemia major, thalassemia intermedia, and thalassemia minor. Disproportionate microcytic anaemia - think beta-thalassaemia trait Hypersplenomegaly and gallstones. mostly found in thalassemia major and intermedia patients. beta thalassemia major usually present within the first two years of life with severe anaemia, poor growth, and skeletal abnormalities during infancy.
26
What size the P450 system
Enzymes that metabolise stuff Inducers increase activity leading to increased clearance of certain drugs Inhibitors decrease clearance of drugs
27
P450 inducers
CRAP GPs - because crap GPs induce rage ;) Carbamazepine, Rifampicin, Alcohol (chronic), Phenytoin, Griseofulvin, Phenobarbitone, Sulphonylureas (also St. John's Wort and smoking)
28
P540 inhibitors
SICKFACES.COM - I remember the alcoholic binge part because a hangover = sick face! Sodium valproate, Isoniazid, Cimetidine, Ketoconazole, Fluconazole, Alcohol (binge), Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin, Sulphonamides, Ciprofloxacin, Omeprazole, Metronidazole
29
When is acetylcysteine used in paracetamol OD
Plasma paracetamol concentration above graph there is a staggered overdose patients who present 8-24 hours after ingestion of an acute overdose of more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol even if the plasma-paracetamol concentration is not yet available patients who present > 24 hours if they are clearly jaundiced or have hepatic tenderness, their ALT is above the upper limit of normal
30
Management b12 deficiency
if no neurological involvement 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin 3 times each week for 2 weeks, then once every 3 months if a patient is also deficient in folic acid then it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid precipitating subacute combined degeneration of the cord
31
Features b12 deficiency
macrocytic anaemia sore tongue and mouth neurological symptoms the dorsal column is usually affected first (joint position, vibration) prior to distal paraesthesia neuropsychiatric symptoms: e.g. mood disturbances
32
Labs in haemochromatosis
transferrin saturation > 55% in men or > 50% in women raised ferritin (e.g. > 500 ug/l) and iron low TIBC
33
Hepatitis A Features
Prodromal phase; flu-like symptoms, gastrointestinal symptoms (such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal right upper quadrant discomfort), and occasionally headache, cough, pharyngitis, constipation, diarrhoea, itch, and urticaria. Usually, there are no specific signs on examination. Icteric phase; jaundice, pale stools, and dark urine (if there is cholestasis), pruritus, fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting — symptoms often improve once jaundice occurs. Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and hepatic tenderness are often present on examination. Convalescent phase; includes malaise and hepatic tenderness
34
Hepatocellular carcinoma features
hard/craggy mass longer history of abnormal liver function blood tests as this cancer occurs most commonly in patients with chronic liver disease.
35
CKD stages
1 Greater than 90 ml/min, with some sign of kidney damage on other tests (if all the kidney tests* are normal, there is no CKD) 2 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage (if kidney tests* are normal, there is no CKD) 3a 45-59 ml/min, a moderate reduction in kidney function 3b 30-44 ml/min, a moderate reduction in kidney function 4 15-29 ml/min, a severe reduction in kidney function 5 Less than 15 ml/min, established kidney failure - dialysis or a kidney transplant may be needed
36
Subacute thyroiditis / known as De Quervain's thyroiditis phases
phase 1 (lasts 3-6 weeks): hyperthyroidism, painful goitre, raised ESR phase 2 (1-3 weeks): euthyroid phase 3 (weeks - months): hypothyroidism phase 4: thyroid structure and function goes back to normal
37
De Quervain's thyroiditis ix
thyroid scintigraphy: globally reduced uptake of iodine-131
38
Graves disease features
eye signs (30% of patients) exophthalmos ophthalmoplegia pretibial myxoedema thyroid acropachy, a triad of: digital clubbing soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet periosteal new bone formation
39
Graves disease antibodies
TSH receptor stimulating antibodies (90%) anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies (75%)
40
Graves disease causes tender or non tender goitor
Non tender
41
COPD stable management
SABA/SAMA -> non steroid responsive add LABA+LAMA -> steroid responsive LABA + ICS Triple therapy if remains unresponsive LABA+ LAMA+ ICS
42
Lights criteria
Pleural fluid protein / Serum protein >0.5 Pleural fluid LDH / Serum LDH >0.6 Pleural fluid LDH > 2/3 * Serum LDH upper limit of normal
43
Diagnosis of asthma
Patients >= 17 years patients should be asked if their symptoms are better on days away from work/during holidays. If so, patients should be referred to a specialist as possible occupational asthma all patients should have spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test all patients should have a FeNO test Children 5-16 years all children should have spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test a FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test Patients < 5 years - diagnosis should be made on clinical judgement
44
Local anaesthetic toxcity mx
IV 20% lipid emulsion