Memory Items - Limits Flashcards

Limitzzzz (71 cards)

1
Q

Severe Turbulence Speed

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maneuvering Speed (VA)

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max Flaps Speed 5º (VFE)

A

195 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Max Flaps Speed 10º (VFE)

A

175 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Max Flaps Speed 15º (VFE)

A

165 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Max Flaps Speed 35º (VFE)

A

155 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Landing Gear Operating Speed (VLO)

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Landing Gear Extended Speed (VLE) doors closed

A

215 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ambient Temp Max (engine)

A

+50ºC or ISA +35ºC, whichever is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Engine Starter Cranking Limits

A

Start: 1, Max Time on: 70 Seconds, Followed by: 2 minutes off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

On the ground (taxi and takeoff roll to the point of lift-off):
_____________ or below when precipitation in any form is present, or fog with visibility of
one mile or less; also when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface
snow, ice, slush, or standing water may be ingested by the engines or freeze on engines,
nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

A

OAT is 10ºC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In flight (after lift-off to landing):
_____________ or below and _____________ is present in any form. Ice accretion on
aerodynamic surfaces is not considered to exist at temperatures of -40°C or below.

A

SAT is 5ºC, visible moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Engine intake bypass doors shall be ________ for engine operations in icing conditions

A

Open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Maximum crosswind component approved for takeoff and landing on a hard, dry, or wet
runway is ______.

A

32 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance between contents of main fuel tanks is ______ (This is an in-flight
limitation only.)

A

600 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Standby battery, Auxiliary battery and Main battery maximum loadmeter reading for
takeoff is

A

0.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Minimum battery temperature for takeoff is

A

-20ºC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maximum altitude with the landing gear and/or flap extended is

A

15,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Setting takeoff power prior to brake release, with the nose of the airplane more than ____ out
of wind, is prohibited for wind speeds greater than ____ knots.

A

45°, eight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tank 1 and tank 2 auxiliary pumps must be ____ for takeoff and landing.

A

on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maximum operating altitude

A

25,000 ft ASL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Maximum operating altitude for takeoff

A

10,000 ft ASL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Airplane maximum operating ambient temperature limit

A

+50°C or ISA +35°C, whichever is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Airplane minimum operating ambient temperature limit is _____.

A

-54°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Ambient temperature conditions on the ground shall be derived by reference to reported _____. Ambient temperature conditions in flight shall be derived by reference to indicated _____.
OAT, SAT
26
Inflight operation of the _____aft of the _____ gate is _____.
Power Levers, FLIGHT IDLE, prohibited
27
Maximum cabin pressure differential limit
5.95 psi
28
Maximum cabin pressure differential limit during takeoff and landing
0.5 psi
29
Bleed air must be _____ for takeoff whenever: • Tailwind component exceeds _____ knots • Takeoff is conducted with _____ power selected • _____ is suspected
off, ten, MTOP, Windshear
30
For landing, bleed air must be _____ whenever: • Tailwind component exceeds _____ knots • Reported _____ exceeds _____ • _____is suspected
off, ten, OAT, 39°C (100°F), Windshear
31
Takeoff in ______ mode is prohibited (AHRS)
BASIC, DG
32
Baggage Compartment Fire Extinguishing: Unless the _____ baggage compartments are empty, the airplane shall not be operated farther than _____ hour flying time from a suitable airport for landing.
forward and aft, one
33
_____ select switches on the Captain and First Officer ARCDU shall be _____ and the _____ switch on the observer's Audio Control Panel shall be _____, when using the flightdeck _____.
HOT MIC, OFF, INT/RAD, centered, speakers
34
APU is approved for _____ OPERATION ONLY.
GROUND
35
APU shall be _____ prior to takeoff
shutdown
36
APU shall not be operated _____ with _____ on board
unattended, passengers
37
APU shall not be operated during _____ refueling.
gravity (overwing)
38
To maintain steady electrical state, the APU _____ be started during _____.
shall not, refueling
39
APU ambient temperature limitations (max)
+50ºC or ISA +35ºC, whichever is lower
40
APU ambient temperature limitations (min)
-54ºC
41
When the APU has been shut down in _____ below _____ for greater than _____ hour, it must be preheated prior to start in accordance with applicable maintenance procedures.
outside air temperature, -35ºC, one
42
The APU Bleed Air shall be selected _____ when the aircraft is being _____.
off, deiced/anti-iced
43
APU starter cranking limits (Start 1)
Max Time on: 60 seconds, Followed By: 5 minutes off
44
APU starter cranking limits (Start 2)
Max Time on: 60 seconds, Followed By: Maintenance action required
45
(APU) Including the time taken for maintenance action following the second start attempt, a minimum of _____ minutes must elapse prior to the next start attempt.
30
46
During autopilot operation, the pilot shall be seated at the _____ with _____ secured.
controls, harness
47
Autopilot (coupled) and Flight Director (manual) approaches are approved from a nominal glideslope angle of _____ to maximum of _____.
2.5°, 4°
48
AFCS is approved for autopilot coupled approaches to _____ limits only.
CAT I
49
______ approaches are approved for _____ flap configurations.
Autopilot coupled, all
50
Use of Flaps _____, autopilot coupled is prohibited with _____
35°, one engine inoperative
51
Autopilot coupled approaches have been demonstrated in crosswind components up to _____ knots. _____.
18, This is not considered limiting
52
After takeoff or go-around, the minimum height for autopilot engagement is _____.
1,000 feet AFE
53
Autopilot shall be disengaged at or above _____ for: - HGS approaches flown in _____ mode - Approaches flown with an _____ - Approaches flown with Flap _____
1,000 feet AFE, AIII, inoperative engine, 0°
54
For coupled approaches, the autopilot shall be disengaged at or above _____.
200 feet AFE
55
Autopilot shall be disengaged in _____ icing.
severe
56
Autopilot shall be disengaged in _____ atmospheric turbulence
severe or extreme
57
Max Flaps Speed 0º (VFE)
Vmo-10kts
58
Maximum Tire Speed
182 KIAS
59
Maximum Alternate Gear Extension Speed
185 KIAS
60
Min Flaps Speed 5º (Vmin)
160 KIAS
61
Min Flaps Speed 0º (Vmin)
180 KIAS
62
Min Flaps Speed 15º (Vmin)
145 KIAS
63
Min Flaps Speed 10º (Vmin)
150 KIAS
64
Abort engine start if
- Engine ITT approaches or exceeds 920ºC - NH is not in the green arch within 70 seconds of selecting Condition Lever to START & FEATHER - Engine Oil Pressure fails to reach 44 psi by start SELECT switch reset
65
Takeoff Abort required when
- Takeoff warning horn - Failure of the A/F ARM message to illuminate on ED - Engine fire or failure - MASTER WARNING - Takeoff torque not obtained on either engine - Exceeding engine limitations - Windshear encounter - HGS failure, "TO WARN," or loss of HGS symbology during takeoff below 500 RVR when the runway centerline is not in sight
66
O2 required when either pilot detects a situation
- Which could introduce smoke or fumes in the flightdeck, shall state. "Smoke - Don mask," - Results in loss of cabin pressure above 10,000 MSL, shall state, "Oxygen - Don mask."
67
Max ramp weight
65, 400 lbs
68
Maximum takeoff weight
65,200 lbs
69
Maximum landing weight
62,000 lbs
70
Maximum zero fuel weight
58,000 lbs
71
Minimum structural design weight
31,753 lbs