Mental health Flashcards

Condition and Presentation

1
Q

Anorexia nervosa

A

serious mental health disorder characterized by self-imposed starvation and a relentless pursuit of extreme thinness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Subtypes of anorexia

A

*. Restrictive Subtype: Characterized by minimal food intake and excessive exercise.

  • Bulimic Subtype: Involves episodic binge eating followed by behaviors like laxative use or induced vomiting.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ICD-11 Criteria:

A
  • Significantly Low Body Weight
  • Fear of Gaining Weight
  • Distorted Body Image
  • Restrictive Eating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

DMS-5 criteria

A
  • Restriction of Energy Intake
  • Intense Fear of Gaining Weight
  • Body Image Disturbance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Anorexia nervosa

A
  • more common in females
  • more common in dev countries
  • co-occurs with other psychiatric disorders, such as depression and anxiety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Signs and symptoms of anorexia

A

Hypotension
Bradycardia
Enlarged salivary glands
Lanugo hair (fine hair covering the skin)
Amenorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

BMI- AN vs Bulemia

A
  • bulemia may have normal BMI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AN blood investigations q

A
  • Deranged electrolytes - typically low calcium, magnesium, phosphate and potassium
  • Low sex hormone levels (FSH, LH, oestrogen and testosterone)
  • Leukopenia
  • Raised growth hormone and cortisol levels (stress hormones)
  • Hypercholesterolaemia
  • Metabolic alkalosis, either due to vomiting or use of diuretics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Managment of AN

A
  • CBT
  • MANTRA
  • SSRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When to admit patients for ano

A

USS test (sit-up, squat, and stand). Admission is also indicated if proximal muscle weakness suggests weak respiratory muscles.

If patients are very unwell the MARSIPAN checklist should be used to guide management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Refeeding syndrome

A

A potentially fatal disorder that occurs when nutritional intake is resumed too rapidly after a period of low caloric intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Symptoms of refeed syndrome

A

oedema, confusion and tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Electrolytes in refeed syndrome

A

Rapidly increasing insulin levels lead to shifts of potassium, magnesium and phosphate from extracellular to intracellular spaces‚ these need to be replenished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Managment of refeed syndrome

A
  • high-dose vitamins (eg. Pabrinex) before feeding commences
  • Monitoring with daily bloods and replenishing electrolytes early
  • Building caloric intake gradually with the help of a dietitian‚ NICE recommends that refeeding is started at no more than 50% of calorie requirement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

cardiac symptoms assoicated with cardiac arrhythmias

A

Bradycardia and prolonged QTc are often seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Negative prognostic factors for ano

A
  • Presentation after the age of 20 years‚ difficult to reverse fixed beliefs
  • BMI <16 kg/m2
  • Marked anxiety when eating in front of others, which indicates issues with socialisation
  • Binging/vomiting responds less well to CBT than starvation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cautions of SSRI

A
  • Avoid in mania
  • Should be used with caution in children and adolescents
  • Sertraline is best for patients with ischaemic heart disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

SSRI side effects

A
  • GI upset
  • Anxiety and agitation
  • QT interval prolongation (especially associated with citalopram)
  • Sexual dysfunction
  • Hyponatraemia
  • Gastric Ulcer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Seretonin syndrome triad

A
  • mental status changes
  • autonomic hyperactivity
  • neuromuscular abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Managment of Seretonin syndrome

A

discontinuation of the offending drug and supportive care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

SNRIs side effects

A
  • Nausea
  • Insomnia
  • Increased heart rate
  • Agitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

NaSSAs side effects

A

Sedation
Increased appetite
Weight gain
Constipation/diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

TCA cautions

A
  • Contraindicated in those with previous heart disease
  • Can exacerbate schizophrenia
  • May exacerbate long QT syndrome
  • Use with caution in pregnancy and breastfeeding
  • May alter blood sugar in T1 and T2 diabetes mellitus
  • May precipitate urinary retention, so avoid in men with enlarged prostates
  • Uses the Cytochrome P450 metabolic pathway, so avoid in those on other CP450 medications or those with liver damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

TCA side effects

A

Urinary retention
Drowsiness
Blurred vision
Constipation
Dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

TCA toxicity signs

A

drowsiness, confusion, arrhythmias, seizures, vomiting, headache, flushing, and dilated pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Investigations of TCA overdose

A

blood tests (FBC, UE, CRP, LFTs), Venous Blood Gas, and an ECG to check for QT interval prolongation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Managment of TCA overdose

A
  • Supportive care based on patient symptoms
  • NAC or charcoal in 2-4 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cautions of MAO inhibitors

A

Cerebrovascular disease
Manic phase of bipolar disorder
Phaeochromocytoma
Severe cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Side effects of MOA inhib

A

Hypertensive reactions (‘cheese reaction’) with tyramine-containing foods (so patients need to avoid pickled herring, Bovril, Oxo, Marmite, cheese, salami).
Should also avoid broad bean pods as these contain dopa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

class A personality disorders

A
  • PARANOID PERSONALITY DISORDER
  • SCHIZOID PERSONALITY DISORDER
  • SCHIZOTYPAL PERSONALITY DISORDER
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

PARANOID PERSONALITY DISORDER

A

Characterised by a pervasive and enduring pattern of irrational suspicion and mistrust of others
Demonstrates hypersensitivity to criticism and potential slights
Exhibits reluctance to confide in others due to fear of information being used maliciously against them
Often preoccupied with unfounded beliefs about perceived conspiracies against themselve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Schizoid personality disorder

A

Characterised by an enduring pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression
Displays a pervasive lack of interest in or desire for interpersonal relationships, often preferring solitary activities
Shows an emotional coldness, detachment, or flattened affectivity
Often has few, if any, close relationships outside of immediate family

33
Q

Schizotypal personality disorder

A

Characterised by a chronic pattern of impaired social interactions, distorted cognitions and perceptions, and eccentric behaviours
Demonstrates inappropriate or constricted affect, and peculiar, eccentric or bizarre behaviour
Displays odd thinking and speech, such as magical thinking, peculiar ideas, paranoid ideation, and belief in the influence of external forces
Shares certain cognitive or perceptual distortions with schizophrenia, but maintains a more intact grasp on reality

34
Q

Class B personality disorders

A

ANTISOCIAL PERSONALITY DISORDER
BORDERLINE PERSONALITY DISORDER
HISTRIONIC PERSONALITY DISORDER
NARCISSISTIC PERSONALITY DISORDER

35
Q

ANTISOCIAL PERSONALITY DISORDER

A

Defined by a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others.
Individuals with this disorder exhibit a lack of empathy and frequently engage in manipulative, impulsive actions.
Manifestations include aggressive, unremorseful behaviour, and consistent irresponsibility, which often results in a failure to obey laws and social norms.
Children diagnosed with conduct disorder are at increased risk of developing this as they grow older. Prevention can be through parenting programmes, as well as trialling group-based CBT.

36
Q

BPD

A

Characterised by a recurring pattern of abrupt mood swings, unstable personal relationships, and self-image instability.
The propensity towards self-harm is commonly observed in these patients.
Relationships often fluctuate between extremes of idealisation and devaluation, a process known as “splitting”.
There is often an inability to control temper and manage affective responses appropriately.
Also known as emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD) there may be a history of previous trauma, including sexual abuse.
Management is with dialectical behavioural therapy (DBT).

37
Q

Histronic personality disorder

A

Predominantly characterised by attention-seeking behaviours and excessive displays of emotion.
Individuals may display inappropriate sexual behaviours.
Their emotional expressions tend to be shallow, dramatic, and often perceived as exaggerated.
They often perceive relationships as being more intimate than they truly are, reflecting a distorted perception of interpersonal boundaries.

38
Q

Narcissistic personality disorder

A

Characterised by a persistent pattern of grandiosity, a strong need for the admiration of others, and a marked lack of empathy.
Individuals with this disorder often display a sense of entitlement and will exploit others to fulfil their own desires.
Tendency to be arrogant and preoccupied with personal fantasies and desires, often at the cost of disregarding others’ feelings and needs.

39
Q

Class C personality disorder

A

AVOIDANT PERSONALITY DISORDER
DEPENDENT PERSONALITY DISORDER
OBSESSIVE-COMPULSIVE PERSONALITY DISORDER

40
Q

OCD

A

Characterised by an excessive preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control, often at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency
Contrary to obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) is not associated with recurrent, intrusive thoughts or rituals
Indications may include strict adherence to routines, perfectionism to the point of dysfunction, and a persistent reluctance to delegate tasks to others
Symptoms are generally ego-syntonic, meaning the patient perceives them as rational and desirable, thereby differentiating OCPD from OCD, where symptoms are typically ego-dystonic and distressing to the individual.

41
Q

Dependant personality disorder

A

Characterised by a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of, leading to submissive and clinging behaviour
Individuals often lack self-confidence and initiative, relying excessively on others for decision-making
Patients may urgently seek new relationships as a source of care and support when existing ones end

42
Q

Avoidant personality disorder

A

Characterised by intense feelings of social inadequacy, fear of rejection, and hypersensitivity to criticism
* Patients often self-impose isolation to avoid potential criticism, despite a strong desire for social acceptance and interaction

43
Q

Bullimia nervosa

A

binge-eating episodes followed by compensatory behaviors, such as self-induced vomiting, laxative abuse, diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise

44
Q

epidemiology of Bulimia nervosa

A

Affects adolescents and young adults, with onset in late adolescence or early adulthood.
Prevalence: Lifetime 1-2% in women, less than 0.5% in men.
Female to male ratio: Approximately 10:1.
Relatively stable prevalence over the last few decades.

45
Q

Psychological symptoms of bulimia

A
  • Binge Eating: Loss of control, consuming large amounts of high-caloric food urgently.
  • Purging: Induced vomiting, laxative or diuretic misuse, and excessive exercise.
  • Body Image Distortion: Distorted perception despite maintaining normal or slightly above average weight.
46
Q

Physical symptoms of bulimia

A

Dental Erosion: Resulting from recurrent self-induced vomiting.
Parotid Gland Swelling: Resulting from recurrent self-induced vomiting.
Russell’s Sign: Scarring on the back of the hand or knuckles from repeated self-induced vomiting.
Amenorrhea: Present in 50% despite normal weight.
Excessive Vomiting Complications: Boerhaave syndrome or Mallory-Weiss tear.

47
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopath

A

Acute neurological syndrome resulting from a deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1).

Related to chronic alcohol abuse

48
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopath triad

A
  • mental status changes (confusion)
  • ataxia,
  • ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus.
49
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome symptoms

A
  • Profound anterograde amnesia
  • Limited retrograde amnesia
  • Confabulation (patients fabricate memories to mask their memory deficit)
50
Q

Investigations of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A
  • Thiamine level testing: Low levels are indicative of deficiency.
  • FBC
  • Urea and Electrolytes
  • Liver Profile
  • Clotting
  • Bone Profile
  • Magnesium
  • MRI can show typical changes in specific regions of the brain, as well as mamillary body atrophy in Korsakoff’s syndrome.
51
Q

Management of Wernicke’s encephalopath

A
  • find underlying issue
  • Thiamine supplementation
52
Q

Management of Korsakoff’s syndrome

A
  • thiamine suplements
  • rehab (+alcohol support)
  • managment of patient’s environment
53
Q

Transient global amnesia (TGA)

A

sudden, transient neurological condition primarily characterized by acute disruption of both short-term and long-term memory.

54
Q

epidemiology of TGA

A

middle-aged and elderly individuals

55
Q

Features of TGA

A
  • Sudden onset of memory loss
  • retrograde amnesia
  • anterograde amnesia
  • confusion/ dejavu
    *preserved personality
    *motor skills normal
  • Spontaneous resolution of symptoms, typically within 24 hours
56
Q

TGA investigations

A
  • Brain CT or MRI
  • EEG
  • Neuropsychological tests
  • Blood tests: To exclude metabolic causes such as hypoglycemia or electrolyte imbalance
57
Q

Managment of TGA

A
  • Reassurance:
  • Supervision
  • Follow-up: A neurological review is advised, especially if episodes are recurrent.
  • There are no specific pharmacological treatments for TGA.
58
Q

TGA and DVLA

A

No need to inform

59
Q

criteria to be detained mental health act

A
  • They must have a mental disorder
  • There must be a risk to their health/safety or the safety of others
  • There must be a treatment (however this can include nursing care, not just drugs)
60
Q

MHA Section 2

A
  • Admission for mental health assessment and treatment for up to 28 days,
  • non-renewable.
  • The application for admission is initiated by an Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the patient’s nearest relative.
  • This section necessitates the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom must be ‘approved’ under Section 12(2) of the MHA
61
Q

MHA section 3

A
  • Permits admission for treatment lasting up to 6 months, with the provision for renewal.
  • Mandates the involvement of an AMHP and two doctors, both of whom should have examined the patient within the last 24 hours.
62
Q

MHA section 4

A
  • Designed for emergencies when applying Section 2 would cause an unnecessary delay.
  • Requires the recommendation of a single doctor and the involvement of either an AMHP or the nearest relative.
  • The patient can be detained for a maximum of 72 hours, typically followed by a transition to Section 2.
63
Q

MHA Section 5(2)

A

Holding power which enables a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in the hospital for a period of 72 hours.

64
Q

MHA section 5(4)

A

Section 5(4) is comparable to a Section 5(2) but is enacted by registered nurses and has a duration of 6 hours.

65
Q

Section 17a

A

Allows for a Supervised Community Treatment (also known as a Community Treatment Order).

66
Q

Section 135

A

Court order enabling the police to enter a property to escort a person to a Place of Safety (either the police station or, more commonly, an Accident and Emergency Department (A&E)).

67
Q

Section 136

A

Provides police officers the authority to take an individual, who seems to be suffering from a mental disorder and is in a public place, to a Place of Safety.

68
Q

Investigations for paracetamol overdose

A

Full Blood Count (FBC)
Urea and Electrolytes
Clotting Screen
Liver Function Tests
Venous Blood Gas - Severe metabolic acidosis
Paracetamol level

69
Q

Managment of paracetamol overdose

A

Charcoal
NAC

70
Q

Classificiations of paracetamol overdose

A

Acute overdose - excessive amounts in less than 1 hour, usually in context of self-harm)
Staggered overdose - excessive amounts of paracetamol ingested over longer than 1 hour, usually in context of self harm)
Therapeutic excess - excessive paracetamol taken with intent to treat pain or fever and without self-harm intent, ingested at dose greater than licensed daily dose (more than 75mg/kg/24 hours).

71
Q

OCD managment

A
72
Q

Postpartum psychosis

A

serious psychiatric disorder that typically develops within the first two weeks following childbirth

73
Q

Postpartum psychosis syptoms

A

Paranoia
Delusions
Capgras delusions - misidentification syndrome characterised by the belief by the patient that the close person is replaced by an imposter who looks physically the same
Hallucinations
Manic episodes
Depressive episodes
Confusion

74
Q
A
75
Q

Managment of postpartum psychosis

A
  • Antipsychotic medications - olanzapine and quetiapine are safe to take while breastfeeding
  • Mood stabilisers in some instances
76
Q

Schizophrenia

A

hronic or relapsing and remitting form of psychosis characterized by positive symptoms (such as hallucinations, delusions, thought disorders) and negative symptoms (including alogia, anhedonia, and avolition)

77
Q

Criteria for Schizophrenia

A

ICD-11 Criteria: Symptoms present for at least 1 month, causing significant impairment.

DSM-5 Criteria: Symptoms persist for at least 6 months, encompassing at least one month of active-phase symptoms (must include one prominent ‘ABCD’ symptom).

78
Q

Subtypes of schizophrenia

A

Paranoid Schizophrenia: Characterized by delusions and hallucinations, often with a persecutory theme.

Catatonic Schizophrenia: Features motor disturbances and waxy flexibility.

Hebephrenic Schizophrenia: Marked by disorganized thinking, emotions, and behavior.

Residual Schizophrenia: Residual symptoms persist after a major episode.

Simple Schizophrenia: Characterized by a gradual decline in functioning without prominent positive symptoms.

79
Q
A