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mental health MCQ Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is considered the current best talking therapy for a person with alcohol addiction?

A. 12 step Alcoholic Anonymous program
B. Cognitive behaviour therapy
C. Disulfiram
D. Motivational Interviewing

A

B. Cognitive behaviour therapy

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2
Q
  1. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal include:

A. Euphoria, hyperactivity, insomnia
B. Depression, hypotension, excessive thirst
C. Disorientation, somnolence, hyperactivity
D. Nausea and vomiting, diaphoresis and tremors

A

D. Nausea and vomiting, diaphoresis and tremors

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3
Q
  1. A common effect of CNS stimulants is:

A. Hypertension
B. Anorexia
C. Sedation
D. Hypophrasia

A

A. Hypertension

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4
Q
  1. The nurse is leading a group for persons who have a dual diagnosis. The nurse would use which of the following approaches?

A. Supportive and gentle confrontation
B. Intense confrontation with all patients
C. Expecting patients to attend all meetings
D. Focus on the mental illness first, then the substance abuse problem

A

D. Focus on the mental illness first, then the substance abuse problem

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5
Q
  1. A person with major depression and alcohol abuse states” When I stop drinking, I feel depressed” Which response from the nurse is best.

A. “Maybe you need a change in medication”
B. “It is not unusual to feel that way”
C. “Alcohol is a depressant and increases feelings of depression in someone who is already depressed.
D. “Don’t be discouraged; depression takes a long time to feel better”.

A

C. “Alcohol is a depressant and increases feelings of depression in someone who is already depressed.

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6
Q
  1. Co-existing disorder is a term used to describe:

A. Someone who is drug dependent
B. Anyone who has an alcohol and drug disorder problem
C. Someone who has more than one disorder at the same time
D. Someone who has a substance use disorder

A

B. Anyone who has an alcohol and drug disorder problem

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7
Q
  1. Alcohol has an immediate effect on body systems and functions because it

A. Is absorbed through the highly permeable membranes in the mouth
B. Is not digested and enters directly into the blood via the stomach and duodenum
C. Stimulates the nervous system which in turn stimulates other systems in the body
D. Is highly concentrated and is treated like a foreign substance

A

B. Is not digested and enters directly into the blood via the stomach and duodenum

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8
Q
  1. One drink usually does not cause any symptoms in a person. More than one standard drink per hour usually causes symptoms. Why is there no physiological effect with just one drink?

A. Alcohol dilutes in the water content of the body making its concentration, and effect, less
B. The first drink is usually passed quickly to the kidneys and eliminated as urine
C. There is not enough alcohol in one drink to cause any symptoms
D. The liver effectively metabolises alcohol if it is consumed in small quantities.

A

D. The liver effectively metabolises alcohol if it is consumed in small quantities.

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9
Q
  1. Alcohol can be measured in the blood ___________ post consumption

A. Immediately
B. 10 – 20 minutes
C. 30 – 40 minutes
D. 1 hour

A

C. 30 – 40 minutes

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10
Q
  1. What physiological effects can methamphetamine use cause?

A. Sedation, increased appetite, weight gain
B. Methamphetamine causes sleep so someone can forget about their worries
C. Insomnia, aggression, irritability, suicidal behaviour, strength psychosis
D. A decrease in metabolic rate resulting in decreased respirations and hypothermia

A

C. Insomnia, aggression, irritability, suicidal behaviour, strength psychosis

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11
Q
  1. What is the most common anxiety disorder?

A. Depression
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Drug induced anxiety
D. Panic disorder

A

B. Generalized anxiety disorder

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12
Q
  1. Which are the 3 main terms used to describe the cognitive triangle?

A. Thoughts, emotions and actions
B. Thoughts, feelings and behaviour
C. Attitudes, feelings and actions
D. Thoughts, emotions and behavior

A

B. Thoughts, feelings and behaviour

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13
Q
  1. A decrease in which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in depression:

A. GABA, Acetylcholine and aspartate
B. Norepinephrine and serotonin
C. Somatostatin, substance P and glycine
D. Glutamate, histamine and opioid peptides

A

B. Norepinephrine and serotonin

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14
Q
  1. When an individual’s stress response is sustained over a long period of time, the endocrine system involved results in:

A. Decreased resistance to disease
B. Increased Libido
C. Decreased blood pressure
D. Increased inflammatory response

A

A. Decreased resistance to disease

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15
Q
  1. Which is not a symptom of Generalised Anxiety Disorder?

A. Irritability
B. Feeling on edge
C. Low mood
D. Sleep disturbance

A

C. Low mood

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16
Q
  1. Which is not a general treatment for panic disorder?

A. De-sensitization
B. Anxiolytic
C. Antipsychotic injection
D. CBT

A

C. Antipsychotic injection

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17
Q
  1. Countertransference is:

A. An unconscious process where unresolved thoughts & feeling are directed from the nurse to the client.
B. A conscious process where unresolved thoughts & feelings are directed from the nurse to the client.
C. An unconscious process where unresolved thoughts & feelings are directed to the nurse from the client.
D. A conscious process where unresolved thoughts & feelings are directed to the nurse from the client

A

A. An unconscious process where unresolved thoughts & feeling are directed from the nurse to the client.

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18
Q
  1. The initial effect of stress on the human body is to:

A. Immobilize the functioning of body systems
B. Produce an alarm reaction
C. Constrict the airways in the lungs
D. Adapt with defensive countermeasures

A

B. Produce an alarm reaction

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19
Q
  1. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) belong to which group of psychotropic drugs?

A. antipsychotics
B. mood-stabilisers
C. anxiolytics
D. antidepressants

A

D. antidepressants

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20
Q
  1. Maria has been admitted to the inpatient mental health unit with an elevated mood. What is the nurse’s priority for the initial plan of care?

A. Place her in seclusion
B. Place her on one-to one supervision
C. Ensure Maria has a calm and quiet environment
D. Medicate Maria with a sedative

A

C. Ensure Maria has a calm and quiet environment

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21
Q
  1. The following signs of lithium toxicity include which of the following?

A. Sedation, fever, restlessness
B. Psychomotor agitation, insomnia, increased thirst
C. Elevated WBC count, sweating, confusion.
D. Nausea , diarrhoea

A

D. Nausea , diarrhoea

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22
Q
  1. Severe pathological mood swings, from hyperactivity and euphoria to sadness and depression, occur in:

A. Depressive disorder
B. Dysthymic disorder
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Cyclothymic disorder

A

D. Cyclothymic disorder

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23
Q
  1. A person’s blood lithium level is 1.8 mmol/L. The nurse evaluates this lab value to indicate which of the following about the level?

A. It is under the therapeutic treatment level
B. It is within the therapeutic treatment level.
C. It is at the maintenance treatment level
D. It is at the toxic blood level

A

D. It is at the toxic blood level

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24
Q
  1. A 22-year-old female is admitted to the ward following a suicide attempt. She has a 2-week history of depression as well as a history of harmful use of multiple substances and anorexia nervosa. What is your first nursing priority?

A. Administering the Beck depression scale
B. Contracting for eating behaviour
C. Safety
D. Socialization

A

C. Safety

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25
Q
  1. ECT may be used to treat:

A. Cyclothymic disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Epilepsy
D. Dysthymic disorder

A

B. Major depressive disorder

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26
Q
  1. A person who has bi-polar disorder, manic phase, is exhibiting all of the following behaviours. Which behaviour should a nurse select as most important to address first?

A. Pacing the ward
B. Rapid speech
C. Distractibility
D. Impulsiveness

A

D. Impulsiveness

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26
Q
  1. A persons with gradual occurring global impairments of cognitive functioning, memory and personality is most likely to have:

A. Alzheimer’s type dementia
B. Age related cognitive decline
C. Dyskinesia
D. Vascular dementia

A

A. Alzheimer’s type dementia

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27
Q
  1. During a mental status examination, the nurse evaluates a person’s thought content by determining if the person:

A. Has any delusions.
B. Has slowness or rapidity of speech.
C. Is having visual or auditory hallucinations.
D. Has had a change in appetite or difficulty sleeping.

A

A. Has any delusions.

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28
Q

In planning care for a person who has a mood disorder in the manic phase, which intervention is most important?

A. Encouraging self-expression
B. Providing reality orientation
C. Reducing environmental stimuli
D. Facilitating attendance at group meetings

A

C. Reducing environmental stimuli

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29
Q

Nurses who work with service users, when giving care and treatment, should?

A. make themselves aware of a patient’s culture.
B. find out a person’s culture from the patient or their relatives.
C. wherever possible deliver care that is culturally sensitive and acceptable to the person.
D. not bother to find out a person’s culture, people who live in this country should adopt the culture of where they live.

A

C. wherever possible deliver care that is culturally sensitive and acceptable to the person.

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30
Q
  1. A young Maori man has been admitted to the acute psychiatric unit in a mute state. He has been diagnosed as suffering from schizophrenia. However, his families feel it is “Maori sickness”. How can the staff best support the family?

A. Document the family’s concerns in the nursing notes
B. Arrange an appointment with the cultural advisory team
C. Inform the family that it is more likely to be schizophrenia
D. Ask the family to explain “Maori sickness”

A

B. Arrange an appointment with the cultural advisory team

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31
Q
  1. The multidisciplinary team’s main function is to:

A. Adopt professional approaches to treatment
B. Provide a culturally safe approach to caring for people
C. Acknowledge the differences between professional groups
D. Practice within the framework of community mental health

A

B. Provide a culturally safe approach to caring for people

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32
Q
  1. A Pacific worldview of health that revolves around the balance of 3 elements. These are:
    A. Mental, physical, God
    B. God, people, land
    C. Mental, God, culture
    D. Culture, family, God
A

B. God, people, land

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33
Q
  1. Being a NZ born Pacific young person and having to adapt to a Western culture may result in feelings of insecurity and loss of identity as they experience:

A. cultural diversity
B. cultural awareness
C. cultural conflict
D. cultural alienation

A

C. cultural conflict

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a shared value of Pacific people?

A. Humility
B. Reciprocity
C. Independence
D. Respect

A

C. Independence

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following Pacific islands are annexed by New Zealand?

A. Cook Islands, Fiji, Niue
B. Cook Islands, Samoa, Tokelau
C. Cook Islands, Tonga, Fiji
D. Cook Islands, Niue, Tokelau

A

D. Cook Islands, Niue, Tokelau

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36
Q
  1. Of the seven (7) identified Pacific ethnic groups in New Zealand which group has the largest population living in New Zealand?

A. Fiji
B. Islands
C. Samoa
D. Tonga

A

C. Samoa

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37
Q
  1. The leading cause of death in Pacific communities is cardiovascular disease. The most common risk factor associated with this is:

A. Obesity
B. Physical inactivity
C. Poor nutrition
D. Poor health literacy

A

A. Obesity

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38
Q
  1. The Seitapu framework uses a metaphor of a flower which helps health workers to become competent when working with Pacific people. The 4 petals represent:

A. Clinical theory, clinical practice, cultural awareness, cultural practice
B. Clinical theory, clinical practice, cultural sensitivity, cultural practice
C. Clinical theory, clinical practice, cultural theory, cultural practice
D. Clinical theory, clinical practice, cultural competency, cultural practice

A

C. Clinical theory, clinical practice, cultural theory, cultural practice

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39
Q
  1. Which person’s statement is evidence of the aetiology of major depressive disorder from a biological approach?

A. “My maternal grandmother was diagnosed with bipolar affective disorder.”
B. “My mood is 7 out of 10, and I won’t harm myself or others.”
C. “I am so angry that my father left our family when I was 6.”
D. “I just can’t do anything right. I am worthless. “

A

A. “My maternal grandmother was diagnosed with bipolar affective disorder.”

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following highlight to the nurse that the person may be grieving for a loss?

A. Sad affect, anger, anxiety and sudden changes in mood
B. Thoughts, feelings, behaviour and physiological complaints
C. Hallucinations, panic attacks and a sense of impending doom
D. Complaints of abdominal pain, diarrhoea and loss of appetite

A

A. Sad affect, anger, anxiety and sudden changes in mood

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41
Q
  1. Anhedonia refers to:

A. Loss of feelings of pleasure previously associated with activities
B. Low mood most of the day most days
C. Changes to calorie intake
D. Uneasiness

A

A. Loss of feelings of pleasure previously associated with activities

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following medical conditions has similar signs and symptoms as those seen in a major depressive episode?

A. Hypothyroidism
B. Cholecystitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Pancreatitis

A

A. Hypothyroidism

42
Q
  1. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) belong to which group of psychotropic drugs?

A. Antipsychotics
B. Mood-stabilisers
C. Anxiolytics
D. Antidepressants

A

D. Antidepressants

43
Q
  1. Which behaviour in a person from a major depressive episode would the nurse judge as a sign of improvement in the person’s condition? The person:

A. Asks to go home
B. Initiates interactions with others
C. Takes prescribed medications without objecting
D. Has fewer episodes of explosive outbursts

A

B. Initiates interactions with others

44
Q
  1. The most appropriate nursing intervention that would encourage a withdrawn, non-communicative person to talk would be to:

A. Focus on non-threatening subjects
B. Try to get the person to discuss their feelings
C. Ask simple questions that require answers
D. Sit with the person for short periods of time

A

C. Ask simple questions that require answers

45
Q
  1. Which instructions should a nurse include when teaching the family of a person diagnosed with major depression?

A. Explain that depression is a lifelong permanent illness
B. Explain that depression is an illness that can be treated
C. Describe how depression changes a person’s feelings forever
D. Describe how depression causes frequent disorganised thinking

A

B. Explain that depression is an illness that can be treated

46
Q
  1. A person approaches you as a member of the healthcare team and expresses suicidal ideas, saying that they feel desperate and hopeless, the best response would be to:

A. Reassure them that things will look better after some time has passed.
B. Remind them of their good fortune: a job, a family, a house, etc.
C. Steer the conversation to more cheerful topics.
D. Stay with the client’s feelings and accept their anger, guilt, despair, etc.

A

D. Stay with the client’s feelings and accept their anger, guilt, despair, etc.

47
Q
  1. A realistic outcome when educating service users about medications is for the service user to:

A. The onset, peak, and duration of each medication
B. Understand the physiological responses to the treatment
C. Assess the effectiveness of the medication in controlling symptoms
D. State the purpose, dose, and significant side effects of each medication

A

C. Assess the effectiveness of the medication in controlling symptoms

48
Q
  1. The most important piece of assessment data obtained by the nurse when completing medication history is:

A. History of medication non-compliance
B. Diagnosis of the client
C. Length of time on psychotropic medications
D. Adverse reactions to medications taken previously

A

D. Adverse reactions to medications taken previously

49
Q
  1. Which would indicate to the nurse that a person is experiencing an adverse reaction to Lithium Carbonate medication?

A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Vomiting and diarrhoea
C. Involuntary movements of mouth and jaw
D. Rigidity of posture

A

B. Vomiting and diarrhoea

49
Q
  1. A client has been taking clozapine (Clozaril) for 2 weeks. When the client says he has a sore throat and feels weak, the nurse would expect that the client is ordered

A. A white blood cell count
B. Liver function studies
C. Serum potassium level
D. Serum sodium level

A

A. A white blood cell count

50
Q
  1. Which type of medication from the following list can affect both the ‘positive’ and ‘negative’ symptoms of schizophrenia?
    A. Atypical antipsychotic medication
    B. Traditional antipsychotic medication
    C. Antiparkinsonian medication
    D. Antidepressant medication
A

A. Atypical antipsychotic medication

51
Q
  1. Benzodiazepines reduce anxiety by acting on which neurotransmitter?

A. GABA
B. Noradrenaline
C. Dopamine
D. Serotonin

A

A. GABA

52
Q
  1. A person is prescribed Lithium BD. You are reviewing the lab report of Lithium level taken that morning prior to administering her dose of Lithium. The Lithium level is 1.5 mq/L. Your response would be to?
    A. Administer the dose of Lithium
    B. Hold the dose of Lithium
    C. Give 8 Fluid oz. (236ml) of water with the Lithium
    D. Give the Lithium after supper
A

B. Hold the dose of Lithium

53
Q
  1. When the person is no longer ‘mentally disordered’ and is under compulsory assessment and treatment, what must occur?

A. Review of status
B. Review of rights that the client has
C. Review of section 29
D. Review and immediate discharge from the Act

A

D. Review and immediate discharge from the Act

53
Q
  1. The ‘Dopamine Hypothesis’ refers to:

A. A biological explanation for Schizophrenia
B. Dopamine levels that are increased causing Parkinson’s disease
C. Dopamine levels that are low causing depression
D. The body’s naturally occurring chemical similar to morphine

A

A. A biological explanation for Schizophrenia

54
Q
  1. A person is prescribed 60 mgs Fluclopenthixol IMI 3 weekly. The Fluclopenthixol vial contains 100mg/1ml. How many mls do you draw up to give?

A. 1ml
B. 0.6 mls
C. 6 mls
D. 0.3 mls

A

B. 0.6 mls

55
Q
  1. Robert is commenced on Risperidone he experiences extra-pyramidal side effects. He needs immediate intervention. Which of the following drugs is appropriate?

A.Olanzepine (Zyprexia)
B. Cogentin (Benztropine)
C. Epilim (Sodium Valproate)
D. Aropax (Paroxetine)

A

B. Cogentin (Benztropine)

56
Q
  1. If an individual is unwilling to seek out help and you believe they are at serious risk of harming themselves or others. You might consider applying to have their mental health assessed, even without their consent. You can do this if you are:

A. over 21 years of age, you have seen the person in the last three days and you believe they might have a mental disorder.
B. over 18 years of age, you have seen the person in the last seven days and you believe they might have a mental disorder.
C. over 18 years of age, you have seen the person in the last three days and you believe they might have a mental disorder.
D. over 16 years of age, you have seen the person in the last five days and you believe they might have a mental disorder.

A

C. over 18 years of age, you have seen the person in the last three days and you believe they might have a mental disorder.

57
Q
  1. In relation to New Zealand’s Mental Health Act what does ‘DAO’ stand for?

A. Duly Assessment Official
B. Duty Assessment Official
C. Duly Authorised Officer
D. Duty Authorised Officer

A

C. Duly Authorised Officer

58
Q
  1. If necessary, a DAO can under section ____ of the Act request Police assistance to take a proposed patient to a nominated place for the purposes of an examination.

A. Section 9
B. Section 111
C. Section 41
D. Section 11

A

C. Section 41

59
Q
  1. The Mental Health Act defines mental disorder as ————— state of mind where the person may be of serious risk to their own, or others’ health and safety.

A. Abnormal
B. Disordered
C. Dysfunctional
D. Confused

A

A. Abnormal

60
Q
  1. Section nine (9) of the New Zealand’s Mental Health Act is a:

A. Notice to attend an assessment
B. Application for assessment
C. Five (5) day assessment and treatment
D. Review of patient’s condition by a Judge

A

A. Notice to attend an assessment

61
Q
  1. Where an urgent assessment is required, under Section 111 the nurse can detain person for not more than _____ hours?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12

A

B. 6

62
Q
  1. If the person doesn’t agree with being under the act they can request a section___?

A. 29
B. 30
C. 9
D. 16

A

D. 16

63
Q
  1. What is the responsibility of the second health professional at the judicial review?

A. Provide a written report to assist the judge
B. Act as the power of attorney person
C. Be a witness to the judicial review process
D. Protect the person’s privacy

A

A. Provide a written report to assist the judge

64
Q
  1. What do we need to give the person a copy of at each stage of the Mental Health Act?

A. The person’s rights
B. The certificate of assessment
C. The mental health act section
D. The second health professional’s report

A

B. The certificate of assessment

65
Q
  1. Akathisia is a side effect of antipsychotic medication, what would you observe and the person report?

A. Lethargy
B. Euphoria
C. Restlessness
D. Fine tremor

A

C. Restlessness

66
Q
  1. Anhedonia refers to:

A. Loss of feelings of pleasure previously associated with activities
B. Low mood most of the day most days
C. Changes to calorie intake
D. Uneasiness

A

A. Loss of feelings of pleasure previously associated with activities

67
Q
  1. When the nurse is assessing whether or not the client’s ideas are logical and make sense, the nurse is examining which of the following?

A. Thought content
B. Thought process
C. Memory
D. Sensorium

A

B. Thought process

68
Q
  1. The medical model in psychiatry proposes that

A. The central nervous system and brain are the sites of physical malfunction leading to mental illness
B. The cause of mental illness is the combination of cognitive, behavioural and perceptual imbalance
C. Problematic behaviours can be changed by reinforcing positive behaviours
D. People who experience life difficulties also have distorted thinking and this causes them emotional distress

A

A. The central nervous system and brain are the sites of physical malfunction leading to mental illness

69
Q
  1. A hallucination is:

A. A fixed false belief
B. A sensory perception without a stimulus
C. Hearing strange things.
D. A disorganised thought

A

B. A sensory perception without a stimulus

70
Q
  1. Involuntary admission under the Mental Health (Compulsory Assessment and Treatment) Act, 1992 poses a dilemma between the ethical principles of beneficence and:

A. Autonomy
B. Honesty
C. Justice
D. Respect for human life

A

A. Autonomy

71
Q
  1. Steve told his nurse that the FBI is monitoring and recording his every movement and that microphones have been planted in the unit walls. Which action would be the most therapeutic response?

A. Confront the delusional material directly by telling Steve that this simply is not so
B. Tell Steve that this must seem frightening to him but that you believe he is safe here
C. Isolate Steve when he begins to talk about these beliefs
D. Tell Steve to wait and talk about these beliefs in his one-on-one counseling sessions

A

B. Tell Steve that this must seem frightening to him but that you believe he is safe here

72
Q
  1. Adam had stopped eating as he believed that his parents were poisoning his food.
    Delusional thinking may be described by which of the following definitions?
           A. Retreat into an inner fantasy world, socially isolating or withdrawing oneself and losing contact with reality
       B. False, fixed belief that is inconsistent with one’s social, cultural and religious beliefs and cannot be logically reasoned with
       C. Severe and debilitating illness with disorganised motor behaviour and the inability to relate to external stimuli
       D. False, fixed perception that one can see, hear, smell, touch or taste external stimuli, but is losing contact with reality
A

B. False, fixed belief that is inconsistent with one’s social, cultural and religious beliefs and cannot be logically reasoned with

73
Q
  1. Which question is an example of a strength based approach?

A. Why don’t you think your employer will give you time off?
B. How have you coped so far?
C. Do you think the medication is causing side-effects?
D. All the above

A

B. How have you coped so far?

74
Q
  1. As a nurse you spend time educating Steve’s family about acute symptom management. When he becomes upset or anxious, which of the following would you suggest is a helpful intervention?

A. Request that is admitted to hospital until the crisis is over
B. Encourage the use of learned relaxation techniques
C. Call the therapist to request a medication change
D. Wait until his anxiety worsens before talking to him

A

B. Encourage the use of learned relaxation techniques

75
Q
  1. Mental health rehabilitation has shifted to the concept of recovery-orientated rehabilitation because of:
    A. Emphasis on the goals of the service and of the staff who work in the service
    B. Working more closely with the client’s family and their part in the person’s illness
    C. Emphasis on the goals, outcomes and options of the person
    D. Redirecting rehabilitation towards a community focus
A

C. Emphasis on the goals, outcomes and options of the person

76
Q
  1. People have identified a number of factors that are important in aiding recovery. These factors include:

A. Participation by health professionals in problem solving
B. Involving the consumer’s family and significant others
C. Self-determination by the person
D. An intense rehabilitation program designed for the person

A

C. Self-determination by the person

77
Q
  1. The principle of ‘least restrictive alternative’ implies that:

A. The person has the right to be placed only in the community
B. Family’s needs are to be considered first before this principle is applied
C. Treatment can only commence when this principle is enforced
D. A person’s level of autonomy, acceptance and potential for harm have been taken into consideration

A

D. A person’s level of autonomy, acceptance and potential for harm have been taken into consideration

78
Q
  1. For assessment of the spiritual needs of depressed people, a nurse can ask questions about
    A. Freedom of choice
    B. The type of family involvement needed
    C. Suicidal ideation
    D. Sources of hope and comfort
A

D. Sources of hope and comfort

79
Q
  1. What does W R A P stand for?

A. Wellness Recovery Assessment Plan
B. Wellness Recovery Activity Program
C. Wellness Rehabilitation Action Plan
D. Wellness Recovery Action Plan

A

D. Wellness Recovery Action Plan

80
Q
  1. Recovery from mental health and substance use disorders is a process of change through which individuals strive to:

A. Become symptom free
B. Reach their full potential
C. Adhere to their medication regime
D. Reside in the community

A

B. Reach their full potential

81
Q
  1. For people with mental health issues, personal recovery involves:

A. Getting rid of symptoms
B. Restoring social functioning
C. Getting back to normal
D. Living a meaningful life

A

D. Living a meaningful life

82
Q
  1. What is the main principle of Solution-Focused Brief therapy (SFBT)?

A. Future focused
B. Cognitive focused
C. Emotion focus
D. Behaviour focused

A

A. Future focused

83
Q
  1. A risk assessment aims to determine the level of risk a person presents to themselves or to others by:

A. Understanding the person’s and family members perspective about their and others’ safety
B. Assessing longstanding risks alongside short term dynamic changes
C. Referring to the person’s medical notes about previous history of risk
D. all of the above

A

A. Understanding the person’s and family members perspective about their and others’ safety

84
Q
  1. A Mental State Exam includes the following:

A. Knowing the perspective of the person experiencing mental health problem
B. There is no definable test for mental health assessment
C. Blood test to determine lithium levels
D. Observation presenting issue, and risk

A

A. Knowing the perspective of the person experiencing mental health problem

85
Q
  1. Positive risk-taking includes:

A. Increasing risks of harm to self
B. Increasing risks of harm to self and others
C. Making attempts at change to improve life
D. Decreasing risk of harm to self

A

C. Making attempts at change to improve life

86
Q
  1. A person tells the nurse in confidence that he still has suicidal thoughts but doesn’t want anyone to know because he is being discharged that afternoon. Legally, the nurse’s best course of action is to:

A. Maintain the person’s right to confidentiality
B. Encourage the person to tell his community nurse
C. Discuss with other appropriate health team members
D. Keep in touch with the person after discharge to monitor progress

A

C. Discuss with other appropriate health team members

87
Q
  1. What is the most urgent question you can ask someone who tells you they are contemplating suicide?
    A. Why are you thinking of killing yourself?
    B. Have you got a plan?
    C. When do you plan to do it?
    D. Have you tried to commit suicide before?
A

B. Have you got a plan?

88
Q
  1. Requesting that an individual agree to a ‘no self-harm’ or ‘no suicide’ contract has been found by the Royal Australian and New Zealand College of Psychiatry to be:

A. Effective in reducing the incidence of deliberate self-harm
B. Effective in lowering an individual’s level of anxiety
C. Ineffective in reducing the incidence of deliberate self-harm
D. Effective in reducing excessive substance ingestion

A

C. Ineffective in reducing the incidence of deliberate self-harm

89
Q
  1. Which is the key symptom which might predict high-risk behaviour?

A. Intrusive thoughts
B. Negative thoughts
C. Command Hallucinations
D. Delusions

A

C. Command Hallucinations

90
Q
  1. In nurse practice, which is your best risk management tool?

A. Conducting an MSE
B. Asking the right questions
C. Therapeutic relationship
D. Involving the family/whanau

A

C. Therapeutic relationship

91
Q
  1. When conducting a risk assessment, which of these would be a situational factor?

A. The gender of the person
B. Command hallucinations
C. Passivity phenomenon
D. Relationship break-up

A

D. Relationship break-up

92
Q
  1. The most likely victims from harm by people with mental illness are:

A. The public
B. Whanau / family
C. Private property
D. Random strangers

A

B. Whanau / family

93
Q
  1. The whole person approach to assessment aims to:

A. Find out what the person is experiencing
B. Find out who is this person
C. Work with the person to assist them to gain understanding and meaning of their current situation.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

94
Q
  1. To embrace environmental, cultural, social, emotional, physical and spiritual aspects within nursing care would be best termed:

A. Disability awareness
B. Holistic approach
C. Interpersonal communication
D. Humanism

A

B. Holistic approach

95
Q
  1. Therapeutic communication includes:

A. Being sympathetic and non-judgmental.
B. Making valid judgments and being genuine.
C. Avoiding self-disclosure and hopefulness.
D. Having positive regard and being empathic

A

D. Having positive regard and being empathic

96
Q
  1. What is fundamental to emotional competence?

A. Assessing another person’s problems
B. Having self-awareness
C. Not getting upset in front of service users
D. Being able to document own level of competence

A

B. Having self-awareness

97
Q
  1. What are principles of a therapeutic relationship?

A. Open communication
B. Respect and Privacy
C. Working with a person’s priorities
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

98
Q
  1. Which of these relates to active listening?

A. Use distraction techniques
B. Developing an overall picture of what is being said
C. Listening to the radio
D. Encouraging the service user to listen to you

A

B. Developing an overall picture of what is being said

99
Q
  1. Which is not one of the first 5 key interpersonal skills?

A. Paraphrasing
B. Use of silence
C. Clarifying
D. Demonstration

A

D. Demonstration

100
Q
  1. Select the human communication trait that most contributes to building a therapeutic relationship?

A. Empathy
B. Physical language
C. Body language
D. Mental attitude

A

A. Empathy

101
Q
  1. Working in partnership involves:

A Doctors instructing nurses, working with family members and using diagnostic tools
B. Exploring with the person experiencing distress, working with the person and their family/Whanau and using coercion where necessary
C. Knowing the person’s problem, working with the person and their family/whanau and encouraging the person to take control
D. Using coercion when necessary, doctors instructing nursing interventions and knowing what is best for the person

A

C. Knowing the person’s problem, working with the person and their family/whanau and encouraging the person to take control

102
Q
  1. The most desirable way of working with mental health service users is to:
    A. Make decisions on the persons behalf
    B. Include the person in all decisions made
    C. Work with the family to promote health back in the community
    D. Work in line with colleagues perspectives
A

B. Include the person in all decisions made

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