Mesa ERJ175 Aircraft Study Guide Flashcards
(331 cards)
1
Q
Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance
A
To the extent necessary to comply with an RA (Resolution Advisory)
2
Q
LOC Back Course approaches using IESS
A
Not Authorized
3
Q
AC POWER
A
2 IDGS (integrated drive generators) - 115VAC, 400 Hz, 40KVA
APU Generator - 115VAC, 400 Hz, 40KVA
1 AC GPU (Ground Power Unit) - 115VAC, 400 Hz, 40KVA
1 RAT (Ram Air Turbine) - 115VAC, 400 Hz, 40KVA
1 inverter - 250V
4
Q
1 IDG can power both AC buses
A
On ground and in flight
5
Q
APU can power both AC buses
A
On ground
In flight up to FL330
6
Q
GPU can
A
Power both AC buses
7
Q
IDGS (Integrated Drive Generators)
A
Primary AC power source
One on each engine
AUTO - system logic controls contactor
OFF - opens contactor
DISC - mechanically disconnects the CSD (constant speed drive) from IDG
Flight crew can not reconnect the IDG only MX
Amber light when accompanied by EICAS oil message indicates IDG disconnect is required
8
Q
APU
A
Secondary power source
9
Q
Required for APU start
A
BATT 1 and 2 or BATT 1 and the DC GPU are required for APU start
10
Q
BATT 1 is used to control
A
APUs FADEC
11
Q
BATT 2 is isolated from the network during APU start to exclusively power the
A
APU START BUS
12
Q
Minimum must be noted during safety and power on checklist to consider APU start
A
22.0 VDC
13
Q
Minimum required to close the battery contactor
A
18 VDC
14
Q
Minimum BATT 2 temperature for start
A
-20C
15
Q
AC GPU (Ground Power Unit)
A
Secondary AC power source
Can be turned ON via three different buttons
* One located on the AC GPU panel
* One located opposite the FWD lav
* One located in cockpit on the overhead panel
CAS message, master caution flasher and aural warning will occur should the parking brake be released and the AC or DC GPU is still connected.
AVAIL - GPU is properly connected and power requirements are satisfied.
IN USE - powering AC system
16
Q
What is the AC electrical system’s priority?
A
Onside (IDG)
Inside (APU)
Outside (GPU)
Cross-side (Other IDG)
17
Q
Inverter
A
Converts DC Power to AC Power. Powers the AC STANDBY BUS when normal AC power source is not available.
18
Q
RAT (Ram Air Turbine)
A
Emergency AC power source
No altitude or airspeed restriction for deployment
Automatically deploys if both AC buses lose power during flight to supply the ESS BUSES
Manual deployment ( approx 8 sec) the aircraft’s batteries provide power
A minimum of 130 knots airspeed is required
Below 130 knots
* RAT will provide power only to AC ESS
* BATTS will provide power to DC ESS and AC STANDBY
* As airspeed decreases, load shedding occurs until AC ESS is no
longer powered.
19
Q
DC ELECTRICAL POWER
A
3 TRUs - 28VDC, 300A
2 batteries - 24VDC, 27AH
1 DC GPU - 28VDC
20
Q
TRUs (Transformer Rectifier Units)
A
Primary DC power source
Converts 115VAC into 28VDC
Each works in isolation from the other
21
Q
How many networks make up the electrical system on the airplane? Why?
A
2 independent networks
Redundancy and fault isolation
22
Q
What happens if a power generating source fails?
A
Bus ties automatically connect to provide no system degradation.
23
Q
What components power the AC system?
A
2 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG) APU Inverter Ram Air Turbine (RAT) AC GPU receptacle
24
Q
DC HOT BUS 1
A
Engine 1A/2A fire extinguisher Engine fuel shutoff valve 1 Hydraulic shutoff valve 1 Engine 1 oil level indication Courtesy/Service Lights DC ceiling lights
25
DC HOT BUS 2
```
Engine 1B/2B fire extinguisher
Engine fuel shutoff valve 2
Hydraulic shutoff valve 2
Engine 2 oil level indication
CMC
Panel Refuel
Water and waste system
```
26
What components power the DC system?
2 NiCad batteries
3 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU)
DC GPU receptacle
27
How does the IDG maintain a stable power output?
A Constant Speed Drive (CSD) attaches the IDG to the accessory gear box.
28
What monitors and controls the IDGS?
Each has a generator control unit (GCU)
29
Can one IDG supply the entire electrical system?
Yes
30
What will cause the Amber IDG light on the overhead panel to illuminate?
High oil temperature
| Low oil pressure
31
If an IDG is manually disconnected can it be reconnected by the flight crew?
No, this is a maintenance function.
32
What is the primary purpose of the AC generators?
To power the AC BUSES and AC ESS BUS which...
| Power the 3 TRUs, 1, 2 and ESS
33
What is the purpose of the TRUs?
To convert 115 VAC to 28 VDC
34
Can the APU replace a failed IDG?
Yes
35
How is it known that the AC GPU is plugged in and the outside GPU panel button displays IN USE?
Ground service bus is in use
| Cockpit GPU button will display AVAIL even though the ground service bus is in use
36
If the airplane is using the AC GPU and the APU is started what should the pilot be sure to do?
Deselect the GPU button before the next GPU connection.
37
What will charge the batteries?
Any AC Power Source
38
How long will the aircrafts batteries last with no recharging?
10 minutes
39
What is the purpose of the DC GPU receptacle?
For APU start when batteries<22.0 VDC, or
| If battery temp is colder than -20 degrees C.
40
What is the minimum battery temp for APU start?
-20C
41
What is the minimum battery voltage to close the battery buss-ties?
18 volts
42
What battery is used for the APU start?
BATT 2 powers the APU Start Bus
| BATT 1 powers the FADEC & EICAS for monitoring
43
What is the purpose of the inverter?
Converts 28 VDC from the batteries to 115 VAC to power the AC STANDBY BUS when an AC source is not available.
44
What is on the AC STANDBY BUS?
Engine exciters 1A and 2A
45
What powers the RAT?
Airflow turns the RAT propeller which spins the turbine inside
46
When will the RAT deploy?
Automatically deploys if AC BUSES are not powered
| Manually by the pilot
47
How long after deployment before the RAT will supply power?
8 seconds
48
Is there a total loss of power during the 8 second RAT deployment?
No, batteries supply power to the DC ESS BUSES and AC STANDBY BUS
49
What does the RAT power?
ESS BUSES
50
What is the minimum airspeed for the RAT?
130 knots
| Load shedding occurs below this speed
51
When is the RAT icon displayed on the electrical synoptic page?
When the RAT is deployed
52
What manages the electrical system?
4 integrated control centers (ICC)
| 2 secondary Power Distribution Assemblies (SPDA)
53
What is an ICC?
An electrical control device, which provides power distribution and protection for electrical loads.
54
What is an SPDA?
An electrical load -management unit that distributes electrical loads to aircraft systems according to distribution logic and performs BITs on many components.
55
Can the flight crew reset the ICC and SPDA remote electronic CBS?
ICC CBs can only be reset by maintenance
| SPDA CBs can be reset via the MCDU
56
How many fuel tanks does the airplane have?
2 integral tanks
57
Where is the fuel tank temperature taken?
Left tank
58
What is the primary ejector pump?
Venturi pump with no moving parts and no electrical power used by the respective engine.
Powered by motive flow.
59
What types of fuel pumps are in each wing?
Primary ejector pump
ACMP
DCMP
3 scavenge pumps
60
What is the main purpose of the ACMP?
Backup pump in case of primary ejector pump failure.
Engine start.
Crossfeed operations.
61
What is the purpose of the DCMP?
• Used for APU or engine start if AC power or the ACMP is not available
62
What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?
Maintains fuel level in the collector box
63
What pump(s) is used once an engine is started?
• Associated primary ejector pump
64
What is the purpose of the collector box?
* Keeps the fuel pumps submerged
| * Ensures constant fuel flow to the respective engine
65
What is the surge/vent tank?
* Collects fuel during wing-down maneuvers and returns it to the main tanks once the wings are level
* Equalizes tank pressure with atmosphere in flight and during refueling
66
Can fuel be transferred from tank-to-tank or be dumped overboard?
No
67
What happens when the crossfeed switch is selected to LOW 1?
Crossfeed valve is opened
| • Commands the ACMP 2 to 'ON' to provide fuel from the right tank to both engines
68
What is the only way to close the engine fuel SOV?
• Pull the associated engine fire extinguishing handle
69
When will the FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL EICAS be presented?
* 660 lbs of fuel remaining in the associated tank
| * Fuel low level caution (gauge indications turn yellow only) occurs at 1320 lb. in associated tank.
70
What airplane systems have fire detection and protection?
* Engines
* APU
* Cargo Compartments
* Lavatories
71
Are the cockpit and cabin protected from fire?
* Yes
* Cockpit 1 hand-held Halon fire extinguisher
* Cabin 3 hand-held Halon Fire extinguishers (1 fwd & 2 aft), one water extinguisher (aft, aircraft right)
72
How are the engines and APU protected from fire?
* Engines 2 Halon fire bottles
| * APU 1 Halon fire bottle dedicated to the APU only
73
Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?
Yes
74
What is the power source for engine and APU fire detection and protection?
* Engine Detection DC ESS
* Engine Protection HOT BATT
* APU Detection DC ESS
* APU Protection DC ESS
75
Describe the engine and APU fire detection system.
* Engine 8 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops) per engine
| * APU 2 pneumatic fire detectors (2 loops)
76
Describe the fire test
• Press and hold the test button on the overhead panel for a minimum of 3 seconds, but no more than 10 seconds if the APU is running or it will automatically shut down the APU.
• Aural warnings
o Fire bell
o Triple chime
```
• Visual indications
o Overhead panel
Fire handle 1
Fire handle 2
Cargo smoke (FWD) extinguisher button
Cargo smoke (AFT) extinguisher button
APU extinguisher button
APU EMER STOP (top half of button)
o Glareshield
Master warning light (left)
Master warning light (right)
```
```
• EICAS
o ENG 1 FIRE (CAS message)
o ENG 2 FIRE (CAS message)
o CARGO FWD SMOKE (CAS message)
o CARGO AFT SMOKE (CAS message)
o APU FIRE (CAS message)
o FIRE (Engine 1 ITT gauge)
o FIRE (Engine 2 ITT gauge)
```
77
What happens when an engine fire handle is pulled?
* Closes respective engine fuel SOV
* Closes respective engine hydraulic SOV
* Closes respective engine bleed SOV
78
What is the indication of an APU fire?
* Fire bell
* Red stripe in the EMER STOP button
* APU FIRE is displayed on the EICAS
79
Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire is detected?
Only on the ground
80
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is pushed after a fire has been detected?
APU shuts off immediately without a 1 minute cool down.
APU fuel SOV closes.
APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates
81
What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is not pushed after a fire has been detected?
After one minute the APU FIRE EXTG button illuminates.
82
Will the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge?
No
83
How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments?
3 detectors in the FWD compartment.
| 2 detectors in the AFT compartment.
84
What happens to the forward cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected?
Recirculating fan shuts off.
| Ventilation outflow valve closes.
85
What is the purpose of this. (Recirculating fan shuts off and ventilation valve closes) if smoke detected?
Prevents oxygen from entering the compartment.
| Prevents Halon agent from escaping into the aircrafts cabin.
86
How many extinguishing bottles are installed for the cargo compartments?
2 bottles used for both compartments.
| 1 high-rate bottle and 1 low-rate bottle
87
What is the difference between the high-rate bottle and the low-rate bottle?
high-rate bottle saturates the compartment immediately.
| Low-rate bottle maintains saturation over a duration of time.
88
How long will the low-rate bottle remain active in the compartment?
60 minutes
89
Can one bottle be used for one compartment and the other bottle for the other compartment?
No, only one compartment may be selected (fwd or aft)
90
What happens when a cargo extinguishing button is pushed if smoke has been detected?
High rate bottle discharges immediately.
Low rate bottle discharges after one minute if airplane is in flight.
If airplane is on the ground the low rate bottle will NOT automatically discharge.
91
During flight, can the low rate bottle be discharged before the minute is up?
Yes, by pushing the extinguishing button again.
92
How can the low rate bottle be discharged if the airplane is on the ground?
The extinguishing button must be pushed again.
93
Can cargo extinguishing be used if no smoke is detected?
Yes, the high rate bottle extinguishing button must be pushed twice, once to arm the bottle and once to discharge the bottle.
The low rate bottle automatically discharges after one minute if in flight.
94
How are the lavs protected from fire?
Heat sensitive extinguishers in the lav waste bins automatically discharge if a predetermined temperature is reached.
95
What kind of APU is on the aircraft?
Sundstrand APS 2300
96
Describe the APU
* Constant speed
* Single-stage impeller with a 2-stage axial-flow turbine
* Independent oil system
97
What controls the APU?
A dedicated FADEC
98
What battery is used for the APU start?
* BATT 2 powers the starter
| * BATT 1 powers the FADEC and EICAS for monitoring
99
What is the fuel source for the APU?
* Right fuel tank
| * Left fuel tank through the crossfeed valve
100
What fuel pump is used for APU start?
Batteries 'ON' only DC fuel pump in right tank
AC powered airplane ACMP 2
Right engine running Ejector fuel pump
101
Will the APU shutdown automatically if speed and acceleration rate isn't reached in starting cycle time?
Yes
102
What does moving the APU start switch to 'OFF' do?
* Initiates normal APU shutdown
* 1-minute cool down
* No pneumatics (electrics only for 1 minute)
103
Can the APU shutdown be cancelled?
Yes, by moving the START switch back to ‘ON’ before the 1 minute cool down is over.
104
How is the APU shutdown immediately?
APU emergency stop button
No 1 minute cool down period
105
What will happen if batteries are turned OFF during the
| 1 minute cool down period?
APU will shut down immediately
106
When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur?
```
Ground
• overspeed
• underspeed
• FADEC critical fault
• Fire
• overheat
• high oil temperature
• low oil pressure
• sensor failure
```
Flight
• overspeed
• underspeed
• FADEC critical fault
107
Can the APU be started after a critical fault?
No
108
What systems use hydraulic power?
```
Flight controls
Spoilers
Landing gear
Nose wheel steering
Wheel brakes
Thrust reversers
```
109
How many hydraulic systems are on the airplane?
3 independent systems
| HYD 1, HYD 2, and HYD 3
110
Can hydraulic fluid be transferred between each system?
No
111
How many hydraulic pumps are on the airplane?
6 total. 2 Engine driven, 4 AC motor pumps.
112
What are the basic components of the hydraulic systems?
- Pumps
- Accumulator
- Reservoir
113
What is the purpose of the accumulator?
- Maintain constant pressure covering transient demands
| - Helps to avoid pump cavitation
114
When will ACMP 1 or 2 automatically activate on the ground?
Ground
- Flaps greater than zero AND
- Thrust lever set to takeoff, or
- Groundspeed greater than 50 kts
Flight
- Engine failure or EDP failure
- Flaps > 0
115
What are some important items controlled by HYD 2 system?
Landing gear
Nose wheel steering
Onboard brakes
116
What is the PTU?
Power Transfer Unit.
| Mechanical pump that uses HYD 1 power to provide HYD 2 pressure.
117
What is the primary purpose of the PTU?
To allow landing gear retraction and extension in the event of an engine 2 or EDP 2 failure.
118
When will the PTU automatically activate?
During takeoff and landing with flaps >0,if
- Engine 2 fails, or
- EDP 2 fails
119
How is single engine taxi possible if nose wheel steering is on HYD 2?
Releasing the parking brake activates ACMP 2
120
What is the primary purpose of HYD 3 system?
Backup for flight controls
121
Why does HYD ACMP 3A pump switch have an ON position and HYD ACMP 3B have an AUTO position?
HYD ACMP 3A pump is primary and has no automation.
HYD ACMP 3B pump is a backup and automatically activates if HYD ACMP 3A fails.
122
What, if any, HYD ACMP will function if the RAT is the only power source?
HYD ACMP 3A only
123
In an electrical emergency what provides hydraulic pressure to flight controls until the RAT comes online?
HYD 3 accumulator.
| After 8 seconds the RAT will power ACMP 3A.
124
In an electrical emergency can HYD 3 system power requirements overload the RAT?
No. A flow litter valve is used to reduce flow and limits pump electrical power to prevent a RAT stall.
125
What does the AMS use bleed air for?
WHEEEP
- Water Pressure
- Hot air leak detection
- ECS heating and cooling
- Engine Start
- Engine and wing anti ice
- Pressurization
126
How many AMS controllers are installed?
1 controller with 2 channels which control the respective on-side system.
127
What happens if a channel fails?
The remaining channel is able to control the entire AMS.
128
What provides air for the AMS?
- Engine Bleeds
- APU Bleed
- External pneumatic source
129
What is bleed air used for?
WEEE
- Water pressurization
- Engine Start
- Engine and wing anti ice
- ECS (heating and cooling)
130
What is external pneumatic air used for?
- ECS on the ground
| - Engine start on the ground
131
Where is the external ground source panel located?
Lower fairing between the wings
132
What is the primary use for APU bleed air?
- ECS on the ground
- Engine starting on the ground
- Electrical source
133
Can Engine bleed air flow-back to the APU?
No. A check valve prevents flow-back
134
Where is bleed air tapped from the engines?
6th Stage and 10th stage compressors (EBV and HSV respectively)
System alternates between valves to regulate an adequate and safe pressure
135
What is the normal pressure for any engine operation?
45 psi
136
What is the purpose of the pre-cooler?
Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS
137
What cools the pre-cooler?
Ground N1 fan
| Flight N1 fan or ram air
138
What does the Overheat Detection System (ODS) observe?
Engine bleeds and packs.
APU bleed.
Plumbing for the wing and engine anti ice system.
139
Do both loops have to function in order to detect on overheat condition?
Yes, but if one fails the other will work alone to detect the overheat
140
How many ECS packs are on the airplane? What provides air for the packs?
2 independent packs (1 & 2).
| Each engine provides bleed air to its respective pack.
141
Can a single pack provide adequate temperature control and pressurization?
Yes, up to FL310
142
Can a single bleed source power both packs?
Yes, through the crossbleed valve
143
What is the ratio of fresh air to recirculated air?
52% fresh air to 48% recirculated air
144
When are the recirculation fans commanded off?
Cockpit switch
Smoke detected in the recirculated bay
DUMP button is pressed
Respective pack is commanded off
145
What keeps the 3 avionic E-BAYs cool?
FWD & CTR E-BAY. 3 fans each pull air from cabin to bay
AFT E-BAY Natural air flow from cabin to bay
146
What is the Emergency RAM Air Ventilation activated?
Both packs commanded or failed OFF below 25,000 ft. MSL (via left side and electronically controlled).
Ram air pressure greater than cabin pressure (via right side)
147
How many channels on the Cabin Pressure Control (CPC)?
2 channels, one active and one in standby mode
148
Where does the CPC get Landing Field Elevation?
FMS or can be manually selected
149
What happens when the dump button is pressed?
Commands both ECS packs OFF.
| Opens OFV and raises the cabin to 12,400 ft. at a rate of 2000fpm.
150
Can the cabin altitude be raised higher than 12,400 ft?
Yes, by using manual mode.
| Cabin altitude will rise due to natural leak.
151
In manual mode will the cabin depressurize in flight?
No
152
What is the bleed system priority in flight?
Onside engine
Opposite engine
APU (if available)
153
If the engine and APU bleed air are available simultaneously, which has priority.
APU has priority if
Aircraft on the ground
Wheel speed is < 50 knots
Opposite engine bleed pressure is not enough for engine start
154
When will the crossbleed valve automatically open?
Only one side bleed source is available.
Engine 2 start in the air.
Engine 1 start in the air if APU is not available.
155
What are some things that will close the ECS packs?
- Any engine start if the APU is the bleed source.
- Engine start on the ground.
- Respective bleed system duct leak.
- Bleed air source not available for the pack.
- TL set to max Takeoff
- REF A/I Set to ALL on takeoff
- REF ECS set to OFF on MCDU (APU is OFF)
156
When are the ECS packs recovered?
TL not MAX, and
Airplane is 500 AFE with both engines operating
Airplane is > 9700 MSL with one engine operating
157
What happens if smoke is detected in the recirculation bay?
Both recirculation fans deactivate.
Cargo recirculation fan deactivates
Cargo outflow valve closes
158
Where does the CPCS get cruise flight level & landing elevation from?
FMS before takeoff or CPCS calculates using ambient pressure.
LFE may be manually inputted
159
What color is the LFE on the EICAS?
Green FMS input
| Cyan Manual input (an M will be in front of LFE)
160
What is the ABORT mode?
Cabin is scheduled back to the takeoff altitude if
- Airplane stops climbing and begins a descent, and
- Airplane has not climbed > 5,000 AFE or>10,000 MSL.
161
What sources are used for anti-icing and de-icing?
Bleed air heat and electric heat
162
What uses bleed air for ice protection?
The engine lips and 3 outboard slats
163
What uses electric heat for ice protection?
- Smart probes
- Total Air Temperature probes
- Windshields
- Water lines
- Pressurization static port
164
If an engine fails, does the opposite wing and engine receive ice protection?
Yes, the crossbleed valve opens to provide symmetrical ice protection for both wings. The failed engine's lip is not heated.
165
How many ice detectors must be working to have icing detection?
1. There are 2 for redundancy.
166
How long will the de-icing system remain on after icing is no longer detected?
5 minutes
167
If ICING on the MCDU is set to OFF and on takeoff roll icing conditions are encountered, will the de-icing system turn on?
Not until 1700ft or 2 minutes after takeoff, whichever occurs first.
168
Can the APU be used to provide bleed air for de-icing?
No
169
What is protected from ice and rain?
- Engine inlets
- Wing leading edge (slats)
- Windshields
- Smart probes and total air temp probes
- Water and waste drain systems
170
Is the ice protection system automatic?
Yes, under normal conditions
171
Can the pilot override the automatic system?
Yes
172
How is ice detected in flight?
- 2 ice detectors
- Vibrating sensor element that changes frequency when ice builds up around it.
- Once ice is detected, the sensor element heats, the ice melts, the normal vibrating characteristics are restored, and the heating process stops. The cycle repeats as ice rebuilds on the probes.
173
What compressor Stage is bleed air tapped for anti-icing operations?
10th High Stage Valve (HSV)
174
How is bleed air directed for pneumatic anti-ice?
- Engines Independent
| - Wings Onside bleed
175
What happens if there is a single bleed source failure?
The crossbleed automatically opens
176
How should the MCDU be set if there are icing conditions present on the ground?
ALL
177
What does selecting ALL on the MCDU provide?
Engine anti-ice ON when engines are running
| Wing anti-ice ON at 40 KTS wheel speed
178
If ALL is selected on the ground, at what point will the anti-ice system become automatic?
1700 feet AGL or 2 minutes after takeoff, whichever happens first.
179
How does the failure of one of the two power sources affect the windshield heating system?
On ground Inhibited.
| In flight Left side is heated (right heats if left has failed).
180
What does the TIMER selection on the windshield wiper switch do?
Activates the associated wiper in 8 second intervals
181
What happens if the wiper is operated on a dry windshield?
The wiper will stop.
| To reset wiper move switch to OFF
182
When do the smart probes heat?
When an engine is running
183
Is there a test for the anti-ice system?
Yes, but maintenance performs this test
184
How should the aircraft be configured for de-icing?
- Bleeds OFF
- Packs OFF
- Stab Trim Full nose down
- Flaps UP
- Engines and APU. ON or OFF
185
What types of engines are on the aircraft?
* Two General Electric CF-34-8E5
| * Hi-bypass, 2-spool, axial-flow, turbo-fan
186
How much thrust do the engines produce?
• 13,800-14,200 lbs (ISA)
187
Describe N1 spool
* Single-stage fan
| * 4-stage LP turbine
188
Describe N2 spool
* 10-stage compressor (gas generator)
| * 2-stage HP turbine
189
How many igniters per engine?
2 per engine
190
How many igniters activate for engine start?
* Ground 1 igniter ( switch in AUTO )
| * Flight 2 igniters ( switch in AUTO )
191
What happens when the ignition switch is selected to OVRD?
• Activates both igniters on the ground or in flight
192
Can the igniters be turned off during flight?
* The switch may be moved to the OFF position but the FADEC disregards the command
* The OFF position is used for dry motoring on the ground only
193
What controls the engine?
* a two channel FADEC
| * One channel is active and the other channel remains in standby as a backup.
194
Is only one FADEC channel used every flight?
No,they automatically alternate with each engine start.
195
What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge represent during approach? When does it appear?
* The minimum N1 for bleed requirements in icing conditions
| * Configured for landing<1200’ RA, when anti-ice is ON
196
What sources are available for engine starting?
* APU
* Ground source (huffed cart or air bottle)
* Opposite Engine (crossbleed start)
* Windmill start
197
Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?
Only on the ground for a hot start, hung start or no light off
198
What will the FADEC automatically do in case of a start on the ground?
* FADEC will not allow FF if ITT>120C
| * FADEC will automatically dry motor engine and introduce fuel when ITT<120C
199
Describe the engine start sequence
* Start switch momentarily to START:
* 7% N2. Ignition
* 20% N2. Fuel flow
* 20% N2+5sec. Light off
* 50% N2. Ignition Off
* 50% N2. Starter Cutout
```
Engine stabilizes:
• N1 27%
• ITT. 460C
• N2 62%
• FF 550 lbs/hr
• Oil pressure >25 psi
```
200
What does WML mean on the engine indication?
Windmilling engine
| The FADEC has detected a flame-out and is attempting an auto re-light, or an assisted start has been commanded
201
What provides under speed and over speed protection?
FADEC via FMU
| Apx. 52% N2 and 102 N2 repectively
202
What happens after 3 over speed detection events?
FADEC will not relight the engine
203
What heats the fuel and cools the engine oil?
Fuel/Oil heat exchanger
204
What is ATTCS? what controls it ?
Automatic take off thrust control system
Provides max thrust and Reverse thrust
FADEC controlled
205
What will trigger and ATTCS event?
N1 difference > 15% between engines
Engine failure during TOGA
Wind shear detected
206
When is thrust reverse available?
WOW (weight on wheels)
207
What happens if a thrust reverse inadvertently deploys?
FADEC limits respective engine thrust to IDLE
208
What engine thrust rating may only be used for 10 minutes
TO-1
TO-RSV
GA
GA-RSV
209
What is FLEX?
Reduced TO thrust based on assumed temperature
| Tells FADEC that is warmer than it will reduce the thrust
210
Can the FLEX thrust be reduced lower than CLB thrust?
No
211
What is the only primary flight control that is not FBW (Fly-By-Wire)?
Ailerons
212
What is the difference between normal mode and direct mode?
There are no higher level functions available in direct mode.
213
What are the higher level functions associated with pitch?
- Gain on airspeed
- Elevator thrust compensation
- AOA limiting
214
What are the higher level functions associated with yaw?
- Gain on airspeed (as airspeed increases, rudder deflection decreases)
- Yaw damp
- Turn coordination
215
What is the priority for the trim system?
- Back-up
- Captain
- First Officer
- Autopilot
216
How is roll controlled?
Ailerons and multi-function spoilers (outer 3 spoilers on each wing)
217
How many spoilers are on each wing? What are their functions?
5
- 3 outboard multi-function spoilers are used to assist in roll control, as speed brakes, and as ground spoilers.
- 2 inboard spoilers are only used as ground spoilers.
218
When will the speed brakes automatically close even if the lever shows deployed?
- Slat/Flaps selected to 2 or greater
- Airspeed < 180 kts.
- TLA > 70°
219
What is the flap/slat extension/retraction sequence?
- Slats extend first
| - Flaps retract first
220
Will loss of airspeed data cause the flight controls to go into 'DIRECT' mode?
Yes
221
Can a FCM override pilot input?
No, the pilot always has supreme control
222
What happens to artificial feel if flight controls are disconnected?
Artificial feel is felt at ½ the normal load
223
How are the flight controls trimmed?
- For Roll and Yaw: Ailerons and Rudder surface are repositioned to a new 'neutral position'
- For Pitch: Horizontal Stabilizer
224
Will the multi-function spoilers function in 'DIRECT' mode?
Yes, for roll only and at a default fixed gain
225
Will the speed brakes / ground spoilers function in 'DIRECT' mode?
No
226
What happens to the flight control system when the RAT is the only AC power source?
- Horizontal stab trim operates at LO SPEED
- Slat / flap system operates at LO SPEED
- Slat / flap position is limited to '3' to allow adequate airspeed for the RAT
227
How is landing gear extended and retracted?
Electrically commanded hydraulically actuated
228
When will the aural warning for the landing gear sound?
IF the gear is not down and locked and
<700 RA and low TLA or
Any altitude with flaps set > 5
229
Can the landing gear aural warning be silenced by pushin the LG WRN INHIB?
only if both RA have failed
230
What are three landing gear extension modes?
Normal LG lever DOWN
Electric override Bypasses PSEM to directly command selector valve
ALT gear extension Manual up-lock release opens free fall sequencing valve
231
What is the purpose of the DN lOCK RLS button on the landing gear lever?
Mechanically release the landing gear lever lock
| Lock protects accidental landing gear retraction w/ WOW
232
What keeps the gear locked in position?
Extended downlock spring
| Retracted Uplock hooks
233
Describe landing gear indications?
Green Down and Locked
White Up and locked
Amber In transit
Red Gear postion and Lever disagreement (20sec)
234
How do the landing gear door actuate?
Mechanically
235
How are the brakes commanded?
Brake by wire
electrically commanded hydraulically actuated
Pedal position transducers send break request to the BCM
236
What protections are provided for braking?
Touchdown 3 seconds WOW or > 50 knts wheelspeed
Anti-skid >10 knots
Locked-wheel 33% differential, > 30 knts
237
How many applications will the parking/emergency brake provide?
6 applications
238
What stops the wheel from spinning during retraction?
Main gear BCM applies brakes after weight-off-wheels
Nose gear Snubbers in the nose bay stop the wheels
239
Which hydraulic system controls the nose wheel steering?
HYD 2
240
What are the limits for the nose wheel steering?
Angles varies with ground speed
UP to 40 knts +76
41 to 100 knts Decreases liberals from 76 to 7 degrees.
241
Where can O2 pressure be read?
* MFD 'STATUS' page (corrected for temperature)
| * At the O2 cylinder panel (un-corrected for temperature)
242
Do the cockpit crew and the passengers share the same emergency oxygen?
• No, the cockpit crew uses an O2 cylinder and the cabin passengers use O2 chemical generators
243
Once the chemical O2 generators are started can they be shut off?
No
244
What is the minimum O2 for a cockpit crew?
* 2 crew "Cyan for 2"
| * 3 crew "Green for 3"
245
What activates when the flight deck O2 masks are removed from their storage unit?
* Flow of O2
* Mask microphone
* Flight deck speakers
246
What happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed while the flight deck O2 masks are not stowed?
* Stops flow of O2
* Deactivates mask microphone
* Deactivates flight deck speakers
247
What type of oxygen will the quick-donning cockpit crew masks provide?
* Emergency Pure oxygen with positive pressure
* 100% Pure oxygen at all altitudes
* Normal Oxygen/air mixture (ratio depends on cabin altitude)
248
During preflight how would you know if the cockpit crew O2 has been over pressurized?
• The green blow-out disc would be missing on the forward right side of the fuselage
249
What is the O2 duration for the following?
* Passenger O2 12 min
* Flight Attendant cylinder 30 min
* PBE 15 min
250
When will the passenger O2 masks automatically deploy?
• Cabin altitude of 14,000 MSL
251
Can the O2 door dispensing units be opened manually if it fails to automatically deploy?
• Yes, via a Manual Release Tool (MRT) located at each FA station
252
What does the PBE provide?
* Pressurized O2 and protection from smoke, fumes, and fire up to 41,000' for at least 15 minutes
* Blue indication: Good
* Pink indication: Bad
* Vacuum loss: Bad (even with a blue indication)
253
How many portable O2 cylinders are installed in the cabin?
* 2, one in the FWD section and 1 in the AFT section
| * 2 masks per cylinder
254
What is the aircraft height?
32’ 4”
255
What is the aircraft wingspan?
93’ 11”
256
What is the aircraft length?
103’ 11”
257
What is the turn radius for the aircraft?
53’ 8” (Tail clearance is 54’ 4”)
258
What emergency equipment is located on the flight deck?
```
PBE 1
Halon 1
Flashlight 2
Life Vest 3
O2 mask 3
Crash Ax 1'
Escape Ropes 2
```
259
What emergency equipment is located in the cabin?
- PBEs (3)
- Halon fire extinguishers (3)
- Water fire extinguisher (1)
- Flashlights (2)
- Megaphone (1)
- Life vests (2)
- MRTs (2)
- Portable O2 bottles (2)
- First aid kits (2)
- EEMK (1)
- AED (1)
- Portable ELT (1)
260
The originating/receiving checklist requires Logbook, Forms and Manuals to be checked? What are you looking for?
```
Mx log can
MEL and CDL
QRH
FMS Guide
Airworthiness and Registration
Two Normal checklists; Two Emergency Procedures checklists (EPC)
Cold Weather...,Lightning Strike...,and CAT II checklists
TOLD cards
Told Cards
```
261
Will the cockpit dome light illuminate on an unpowered airplane?
Only if the FA panel courtesy light switch is in AUTO
262
How are the emergency lights charged?
4, ELPUs, emergency Light Power Units, charged off the DC BUS 1.
263
How long will the emergency lights stay illuminated?
10 minutes
264
When will the emergency lights automatically illuminate?
Provided the switch is in AUTO, if the DC Busses lose power OR
airplanes electrical power is turned off.
265
Where does the FA check the portable water quantity and waste service tank system?
AFT Flight Attendant panel
266
What does a Waste Service Tank light mean on the aft flight attendant panel? Tank Full light?
75 % full
| Full
267
What does fault light mean on the aft FA panel?
- A fault in the FWD or AFT drain valve
| - Water level indication is not available
268
Where is door information presented?
MFD Status page
269
What is the purpose of a vent flap on the main cabin or service doors?
- A load is applied to the vent flap/locking mechanism making a door difficult to open as cabin pressure increases.
- To relieve residual cabin pressure prior to opening the main cabin or service doors.
270
What happens if a pilot selects EMER on the audio panel
- A red light on the Cabin Light rainbow illuminates.
| - 3 hi-lo chimes sound in the cabin.
271
When is the emergency escape slide automatically disarmed?
Main cabin or service door opened from outside the aircraft
272
What indications are present to confirm whether or not the escape slides are Armed and Disarmed?
- Armed RED ‘ARMED’ appears above the respective door handle.
- Disarmed GREEN ‘DISARMED’ appears above the respective door handle.
273
When will the reinforced cockpit door latch automatically open?
30 seconds after the FA EMER CALL button has been pushed if the INHIBIT button has not been pushed by the flight crew
274
What happens if the flight crew pushes the INHIBIT button?
The automatic function is inhibited for 500 seconds.
275
What are the cockpit door blow out panels?
Unfolding panels in the cockpit door that help equalize pressure between the cockpit and cabin during a decompression.
Door retains full ballistic and impact characteristics if panels unfold.
276
How is the DVDR activated?
- Turned on through the MCDU
- Automatically turns on when engine is running
- Automatically turns OFF with WOW and engines not running
277
How many DVDRs are installed?
2 ---- 1 FWD 1 AFT
278
How long will the DVDR record?
2 hours of voice and radio communications
| 25 hours of flight date in GMT
279
Can the CVR be erased?
Yes the airplane must be on the ground with parking brake set
280
What pressurizes the potable water storage tank?
Engine or APU bleed air
281
If the AC GPU is to be used to power the aircraft what should be see on the GPU panel?
Ensure AVAIL is displayed and not IN USE
282
How many displays and instruments are on during initial AC power up?
DUs 2 & 3
IESS and clock
MDCU 2
CCD 1
283
Which displays can be reverted? Which displays can't be reverted?
- MFD can be reverted to either EICAS or PFD.
| - PFD and ECIAS can't be reverted
284
Explain the AUTO function of the EDS REVERSIONARY panels
- EICAS Failure each MFD displays EICAS
- PFD Failure respective MFD displays associated PFD
- MFD Failure No auto reversion
285
Explain the PFD, MFD, EICAS selections on the EDS REVERSIONARY panel
- PFD Respective PFD will display on the MFD
- MFD MFD can't be reverted
- EICAS EICAS displays on the associated MFD
286
How many ADS (air data systems) are installed and how are they assigned?
5 installed
- ADS 1 Captain
- ADS 2 FO
- ADS 3 Standby
- ADS 4 IESS
- ADS 5 Flight Controls
287
What happens if ADS 1 or 2 fails?
- ADS 3 automatically becomes the source.
- If ADS 3 fails, then the respective x-side ADS is used
(ADS 1 reverts to ADS 2)
288
What happens if the ADS button is pushed?
- The respective onside ADS reverts to ADS 3.
- The respective onside ADS reverts to the X-side ADS if the button is pushed a second time.
- The respective onside ADS returns if the button is pushed a third time unless the respective side is already failed.
289
Is there an automatic reversion for an IRS failure?
No, it must be manually reverted
290
What happens if the IRS button is pushed?
The respective IRS to the X-side IRS source
291
How would the pilot know if the ADS or IRS reversion button has been pushed?
An ADS or IRS flag would be displayed on the associated PFD
292
What is the primary flight instrument if both IRS's fail?
IESS
293
What type of approach is prohibited using the IESS?
LOC BC
294
When will the EICAS de-clutter?
30 second after slats and flaps are up and all systems parameters are normal
295
What is the function of the EICAS FULL button?
Inhibits the automatic de-clutter of the EICAS
296
When will the EICAS display all of its information?
- When the gear is down, flaps are extended, or spoilers are deployed under normal conditions.
- APU running
297
What color is the course needles CDI when using the FMS, VOR/LOC, and x-side data?
FMS Magenta
VOR/LOC Green
X-side info Yellow
298
What runways are included in the databse on the EGPWS?
Runways > 3500 ft with a published approach
299
How long until impact with terrain alert on the EGPWS?
Red 30 sec
| AMBER 60 sec
300
When should the GND PROX TERR INHIB button be pushed?
Cancel unwanted terrain alerts when operation at airports not the in EGPWS database
301
What will generate a wind shear caution? Warning?
Caution Increasing headwind and/or updrafts.
Warning Decreasing headwind, increasing tailwind and or
downdrafts.
302
What is policy for wind shear encounters?
- Caution Captain/crew discretion
- Warning Firewall thrust and climb in current configuration
until warning ceases.
303
How is the pilot alerted during wind shear?
Caution Amber wind shear flag on PFD/aural “CAUTION,
WINDSHEAR”.
Warning RED wind shear flag on PFD/aural “WINDSHEAR,
WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”.
304
Will the autopilot deactivate during wind shear guidance?
Yes
305
How long will the wind shear alerting last?
Until 1500’ RA
306
Will the wind shear alerting system function if both radar altimeters and/or EGWPS inop?
No
307
What is checked when the TO config. button is pressed?
Parking Brake Off
Spoilers Stowed (not deployed)
Flaps Set for takeoff
Pitch trim Set for takeoff
308
What does a red ATT or HDG flag on the PFD indicate?
Attitude or heading reference can't be determined by the associated IRS
309
What does a red X on the ASI, Altimeter, or VSI indicate?
Airspeed, altitude, or VSI can't be determined
310
What is the function of the GND PROX GS INHIB button?
To cancel unwanted glide slope alerts below 2000 ft
311
When will the FGCS automatically select half-bank? What is the bank angle?
FL250
| 17 degrees
312
What is the FPA?
- Flight Path Angle is a pilots selectable pitch attitude of climb or descent.
- FGCS adjust thrust and pitch to maintain path angle and airpseed
313
What does the TOGA button do?
On ground Activates TO guidance cross bars
| In flight Activates Go around guidance
314
What does the takeoff guidance crossbars do?
- Maintain extended runway center line.
| - Maintain pitch guidance according to slat/flap setting.
315
When is the TOGA mode deactivated?
Another vertical mode selected
Autopilot activated
TCS is pressed
316
When will the FD automatically display?
TOGA pressed
Autopilot is activated
Wind shear detection
317
What is the function of the TCS button?
- Allows manual override of the autopilot
- When released, airplane maintains new altitude (provided ALT was the active vertical mode) but will return to previous lateral mode (except ILS, autopilot will recapture the LOC/GS)
318
What will disengage the autopilot?
```
AP button GP is pushed
Any manual pitch trim is activated
Either AP/TRIM DISC button is pushed
Stick shaker activated
Windshear escape guidance is activated
Flight controls in direct mode
Aileron or elevator controls disconnected
Overpowering the yoke
Internal system failures
Internal system failures
```
319
Can the yaw damp be deactivated if the autopilot is on?
Yes, it is independent of the autopilot
320
When will the auto throttles engage on the ground? in flight?
- On ground AT TO(GP) is armed and TLA > 50 degrees
In flight AT(GP) is armed and airplane > 400 ft agl
321
Will the auto throttles compensate for gusty wind conditions?
Yes up to 5 knots
322
What will disengage the auto throttles?
AT is pushed
TLA difference > 8 degrees
TL at idle with WOW or wheel spinning
Internal system failure
323
What is SPDe? What mode uses SPDe?
- Speed on Elevator, thrust is fixed and pitch is adjusted to maintain airspeed (VS changes).
- FLCH uses SPDe for climbs and descents
324
What is SPDt? What mode uses SPDt?
- Speed on Thrust, thrust is adjusted to maintain selected airspeed.
- FPA, VS, GS, ALT, ASEL
325
What are the AT modes?
SPDe, SPDt, TO, GA, Hold, Retard @ 30 feet RA
326
What does the LIM and OVRD mean on the FMA?
LIM The selected vertical mode requires more or less
engine thrust than is available
OVRD The TL are being manually moved (no AP disengagement)
327
When is CRZ automatically selected?
- When +100 of selected altitude for 90 seconds
| - Desired airspeed must be achieved or it will reaming in CLB mode
328
What does the SRC button do?
Selects pilot or co-pilot as the data source for the AFCS
329
What does the red AP/TRIM DISC button on the yoke do?
- Disconnects the autopilot
| - Stops all trim actuation if button is pushed and held
330
What does the PREV button do?
Allows the capture of ILS/BC while still using the FMS as the basic NAV source provided the AUTO TUNE function is enabled on the MCDU and the approach is loaded in the FMS
331
Minimum runway width?
59 feet 2 inches
