MET Questions Flashcards by V T

Lowest layer of atmosphere is:
(a) Troposphere
(b) Tropopause
(c) Stratosphere

(a) Troposphere

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Height of Tropopause at equator is:
(a) 10-12 km
(b) 16-18 km
(c) 12-14 km

(b) 16-18 km

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Height of Tropopause at Poles is:
(a) 12-14 km
(b) 12-13 km
(c) 08-10 km

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Higher the surface temperature, ______ would be the tropopause:
(a) Higher
(b) Lower
(c) Same

(a) Higher

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Height of tropopause:
(a) Is constant
(b) Varies with altitude
(c) Varies with Latitude

(b) Varies with altitude

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Above 8 km the lower temperatures are over:
(a) Equator
(b) Mid Latitudes
(c) Poles

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Atmosphere is heated by:
(a) Solar Radiation
(b) Heat from earth surface
(c) From above

(a) Solar Radiation

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Tropos means:
(a) Turning
(b) Under current
(c) Convection

(a) Turning

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CO₂ and H₂O are also called:
(a) Green House Gases
(b) Rare Earth Gases

(a) Green House Gases

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Troposphere is generally:
(a) Stable
(b) Unstable
(c) Neutral

(a) Stable

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Stratosphere is:
(a) Unstable
(b) Neutral
(c) Stable

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Tropopause is discontinuous at about:
(a) 30° lat
(b) 40° lat
(c) 80° lat

(a) 30° lat

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Most of atmospheric mass is contained in:
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Heterosphere

(a) Troposphere

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Stratosphere extends from Tropopause to:
(a) 50 km
(b) 60 km
(c) 40 km

(b) 60 km

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The middle atmosphere layer with temperature inversion and stability is:
(a) Troposphere
(b) Tropopause
(c) Stratosphere

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Mother of Pearl clouds occur in:
(a) Mesosphere
(b) Thermosphere
(c) Stratosphere

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The temperature in ISA at 17 km is:
(a) -56.5°C
(b) -65.5°C
(c) -35.5°C

(a) -56.5°C

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By weight, approximate ratio of O₂ to N₂ in the atmosphere is:
(a) 1:3
(b) 1:4
(c) 1:5

(b) 1:4

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By volume, the approximate ratio of O₂ to N₂ in the atmosphere is:
(a) 1:3
(b) 1:4
(c) 1:5

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By volume, the proportion of CO₂ in the atmosphere is:
(a) 3%
(b) 0.3%
(c) 0.03%

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In ISA, the mean sea level temperature is:
(a) 15°C
(b) 10°C
(c) 25°C

(a) 15°C

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Maximum concentration of ozone is at a height of:
(a) 10-15 km
(b) 20-25 km
(c) 30-35 km

(b) 20-25 km

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Additional oxygen is needed while flying above:
(a) 5000 ft
(b) 7000 ft
(c) 10,000 ft

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CO₂ and H₂O keep the atmosphere:
(a) Warm
(b) Cool
(c) Have no effect

(a) Warm

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Noctilucent clouds occur in: (a) Thermosphere (b) Mesosphere (c) Stratosphere

(b) Mesosphere

Temperature at 2 km is 0°C. What is ISA deviation? (a) -5°C (b) -02°C (c) 03°C

(a) -5°C

Pressure at MSL is 1002.25 hPa. Find the ISA deviation (Actual - ISA): (a) -11 hPa (b) 10 hPa (c) 12 hPa

(a) -11 hPa

In actual atmosphere temp. at 19 km is -60°C. Find the ISA deviation: (a) 4.5°C (b) -6.5°C (c) -5.5°C

(b) -6.5°C

Nacreous clouds occur in: (a) Thermosphere (b) Mesosphere (c) Upper Stratosphere

The atmosphere up to 80 km has a nearly similar composition and is called the Homosphere. Its uniform composition is due to: (a) Pressure (b) Gravitation of earth (c) Mixing due to turbulence

Half of the atmospheric air mass is contained ______ below: (a) 20,000 ft (b) 15,000 ft (c) 10,000 ft

(b) 15,000 ft

In jet standard atmosphere, the Lapse Rate is: (a) 2°C/1000 ft (b) 2°C/km (c) 5°C/km

The rate of fall of temperatures with height, called: (a) Isothermal rate (b) Inversion Rate (c) Lapse Rate

In actual atmosphere, the lapse rate could: (a) Assume any value (b) Fall up to 8 km (c) Rise up to 50 km

(a) Assume any value

Tropical Tropopause extends from the equator to Lat. 35°–40°. Over India, it is at: (a) 20–21 km (b) 14–15 km (c) 16–16.5 km

Lapse rate in the troposphere is produced by ______ and in the stratosphere by ______: (a) Evaporation; condensation (b) Rising air; solar radiation (c) Terrestrial radiation; solar radiation (d) Solar radiation; convection

Most of the water vapor in the atmosphere is confined up to: (a) Stratosphere (b) 30,000 ft (c) Mid troposphere (d) Lower troposphere

(d) Lower troposphere

Negative lapse rate of temperature is: (a) Isothermal rate (b) Temperature rise with lowering height (c) Temperature rise with height (d) Temperature fall with height

(b) Temperature rise with lowering height

In ICAO ISA, the atmosphere is assumed to be isothermal: (a) In stratosphere (b) 11 to 16 km (c) 11 to 32 km

(a) In stratosphere

One of the characteristics of our atmosphere is: (a) Poor conductor of heat and electricity (b) Lapse rate is warmer than poles above 10 km (c) Lapse rate in the stratosphere is positive (d) Density is constant above 8 km

Heat transfer in the atmosphere is maximum due to: (a) Convection (b) Radiation (c) Sensible heat (d) Latent heat

(d) Latent heat

The knowledge of the height of tropopause is important for a pilot because: (a) Weather is mainly confined up to this level (b) Clouds rarely reach up to this height due to jet streams (c) Stratosphere starts at this height where all solar radiation are absorbed

(a) Weather is mainly confined up to this level

In ISA atmosphere, the tropopause occurs at a height of: (a) 8–10 km (b) 11 km (c) 16–18 km

(b) 11 km

Most of the transfer of heat in the atmosphere is due to: (a) Conduction and freezing (b) Convection and evaporation (c) Condensation, sublimation, and freezing (d) Sublimation and radiation

(b) Convection and evaporation

There is reversal of temperature in the atmosphere at 8 km because: (a) Lapse rate at poles is always higher than at equator (b) Lapse rate at equator is always higher than at poles (c) Lapse rate at equator is the same as at poles even above the poles (d) Lapse rate reverses at poles and becomes negative

(d) Lapse rate reverses at poles and becomes negative

Winds in a low-pressure area (a) Converge (b) Diverge (c) Go straight

(a) Converge

Low pressure is associated with (a) Good Weather (b) Bad Weather (c) None

(b) Bad Weather

In a high-pressure area winds are (a) Normal (b) Strong (c) Weak

Flying from Low to High an altimeter would read (a) Over (b) Under (c) Constant

(b) Under

Isallobars are lines of equal (a) Pressure (b) Temperature Tendency (c) Pressure Tendency

(a) Pressure

What kind of barometer is an altimeter (a) Aneroid (b) Mercury (c) Alcohol

(a) Aneroid

A region between two Lows and two Highs is (a) Depression (b) Secondary Low (c) Col

Bad weather and better visibility are associated with (a) High (b) Low (c) Col

(b) Low

The relationship between height and pressure is made use of in the construction of (a) Altimeter (b) ASI (c) VSI

(a) Altimeter

An altimeter always measures the height of the aircraft above (a) MSL (b) Datum of 1013.2 hPa (c) Datum at which its sub-scale is set

(b) Datum of 1013.2 hPa

Two aircraft flying at the same indicated altitude with altimeters set to 1013.2 hPa One is flying over a cold air mass and the other over a warm air mass Which of the two has greater altitude (a) Aircraft flying over a warm air mass (b) Aircraft flying over a cold air mass

(a) Aircraft flying over a warm air mass

The rate of fall of pressure with height in a warm air mass compared to a cold air mass will be (a) Same (b) More (c) Less

(b) More

An increase of 1000 ft at MSL is associated with a decrease of pressure of (a) 100 hPa (b) 1000 hPa (c) 3 hPa (d) 33 hPa

Altimeter always measure the height of aircraft above (a) MSL (b) datum of 1013.2 hPa (c) datum at which its sub-scale is set

(b) datum of 1013.2 hPa

Two aircraft flying at the same indicated altitude with altimeters set to 1013.2 hPa. One is flying over cold air mass and other over warm air mass. Which of the two has greater altitude? (a) Ac flying over warm air mass (b) Ac flying over cold air mass

(a) Ac flying over warm air mass

The rate of fall of pressure with height in a warm air mass compared to cold air mass will be (a) Same (b) More (c) Less

(b) More

An increase of 1000 ft at MSL is associated with decrease of pressure of (a) 100 hPa (b) 1000 hPa (c) 3 hPa (d) 33 hPa

24,000 ft height in ISA corresponds to pressure level (a) 400 hPa (b) 500 hPa (c) 300 hPa

(b) 500 hPa

700 hPa in ISA corresponds to the Flight level (a) 20,000 ft (b) 10,000 ft (c) 18,000 ft

40,000 ft height in ISA approximately corresponds to pressure level (a) 400 hPa (b) 500 hPa (c) 200 hPa

850 hPa in ISA corresponds to the height (a) 7,000 ft (b) 5,000 ft (c) 10,000 ft

Atmospheric pressure is due to (a) wind (b) temperature (c) gravity (d) density

An aircraft is gaining altitude, inspite of altimeter reading constant altitude. Why? (a) Standard pressure has risen (b) Flying towards High (c) Flying towards Low (d) Temperature has decreased

(d) Temperature has decreased

A contour of 9160 m can be expected on a constant pressure chart for pressure level (a) 500 hPa (b) 400 hPa (c) 300 hPa (d) 200 hPa

(a) 500 hPa

In contour chart of 300 hPa, isohypse (contours) are drawn at interval of (a) 20 gpm (b) 40 gpm (c) 60 gpm (d) 80 gpm

In constant pressure chart of 500 hPa, isohypse are drawn at interval of (a) 20 gpm (b) 40 gpm (c) 60 gpm (d) 80 gpm

(b) 40 gpm

QNH of an aerodrome 160 m AMSL is 1005 hPa. QFE? Assuming 1 hPa=8m (a) 1010 hPa (b) 985 hPa (c) 1005 hPa (d) 990 hPa

(b) 985 hPa

Steep pressure gradient would mean (a) Contours far apart, weak wind (b) Contours far apart, strong wind (c) Isobars far apart and temperature low (d) Isobars closely packed and strong wind

(d) Isobars closely packed and strong wind

Water vapor is transparent to terrestrial radiation (a) completely (b) partially (c) indifferent

(b) partially

Higher the temperature _______ would be the wavelength of emitted radiation (a) longer (b) shorter

(b) shorter

Air is a bad conductor of heat. A parcel of air can therefore be regarded as insulated from the environment (a) False (b) True

(b) True

Warmer the earth _______ will be the Nocturnal radiation (a) intense (b) weaker (c) moderate

(a) intense

Heat is the ______ of the KE of all the molecules and atoms of a substance (a) sum total (b) average

(b) average

The solar radiation consists of about 46% ______ (a) UV (b) IR (c) Visible

The total energy radiated by a black body is proportional to its temperature (T) (a) T^2 (b) T^3 (c) T^4

Intense radiation are emitted by (a) Hot bodies (b) Cold bodies (c) Stars

(a) Hot bodies

The wavelength of most intense radiation is inversely proportional to its ______ (a) Absolute temperature (b) Humidity (c) Albedo

(a) Absolute temperature

Hot bodies (like sun) radiate (a) Short Waves (b) Long Waves (c) Both

(a) Short Waves

The flow of heat from earth surface is 77% by (a) Sensible Heat (b) Latent Heat

(a) Sensible Heat

-40°C = -40°F (a) True (b) False

(a) True

Surface Temperature is recorded at a height of ______ above ground (a) 1.5 m (b) 1.25 m (c) 2 m

The door of Stevenson's screen should open (a) opposite to sun (b) into sun (c) any direction

(a) opposite to sun

The liquid used in Minimum Thermometer is (a) mercury (b) alcohol (c) sprit

(b) alcohol

Freezing point of water is (a) 0°F (b) 12°F (c) 22°F (d) 32°F

(d) 32°F

The wind sliding down a hill during night is called _______ wind (a) Fohen (b) Anabatic (c) Katabatic

With the onset of sea breeze there is a _______ in temperature and _______ in RH (a) Fall/Rise (b) Rise/Fall (c) Fall/Fall

(a) Fall/Rise

Sea breeze sets in by _______ and dies off at _______ (a) Night/Day (b) Day/Night (c) Both Day and Night

(b) Day/Night

If an aircraft in N-hemisphere flies from H to L it will experience (a) Starboard drift (b) Port drift

(b) Port drift

In N-Hemisphere if you experience Port drift, altimeter will read (a) Under (b) Over

(b) Over

Lines of constant wind speed drawn on weather charts are called (a) Isobars (b) Isotachs (c) Isogons

(b) Isotachs

Squall are distinguished from gusts by (a) Shorter duration (b) Longer duration (c) Lower wind speed

(b) Longer duration

The thermal wind is (a) The wind that blows because of thermals (b) The warm wind that blows down the hill on the leeward side (c) The wind which must be added vectorially to the lower level geostrophic wind to obtain the upper level geostrophic wind

(c) The wind which must be added vectorially to the lower level geostrophic wind to obtain the upper level geostrophic wind

On a weather map if isobars are closely packed, the surface winds are likely to be (a) Light and parallel to isobars (b) Strong and parallel to isobars (c) Strong and blowing across the isobars

Anabatic wind occurs (a) At night (b) Any time of day and night (c) During day

A change in wind direction from 310° to 020° is (a) Backing (b) Veering

(b) Veering

A change from 270° to 250° is (a) Backing (b) Veering

(a) Backing

Sudden changes in wind speed from 10 kt to 30 kt and then to 15 kt are (a) Gust (b) Squall (c) Gale

(b) Squall

Sudden change in wind speed from 10 kt to 30 kt for 2-3 minutes (a) Squall (b) Gust

(b) Gust

A significant wind shear is generally associated with TS or line squall (a) False (b) True

(b) True

Cyclostrophic wind gives a good approximation of the 2000' wind in an intense tropical storm (a) True (b) False

(a) True

Rotor clouds have extremely turbulent flying conditions (a) False (b) True

(b) True

Friction causes winds to flow cross isobaric by ______ over land and ______ over sea (a) 10°, 5° (b) 30°, 10° (c) 20°, 15°

(a) 10°, 5°

The ratio in % between the amount of water vapor present in the air to the amount of water vapor that it can hold at the same temperature is (a) Humidity (b) Relative humidity (c) Dew point

(b) Relative humidity

The temperature to which air be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated is called (a) Wet bulb temperature (b) Dry bulb temperature (c) Dew point

Free air temperature, wet bulb temperature and dew point temperature are equal when (a) Air temperature is 0°C (b) Relative humidity is 100% (c) Air temperature is not below 0°C

(b) Relative humidity is 100%

QNH of an aerodrome at 160 m AMSL is 1005 hPa. QFE assuming 1 hPa = 8 m (a) 1010 hPa (b) 985 hPa (c) 1005 hPa

(b) 985 hPa

The wind sliding down a hill during night is called (a) Fohen (b) Anabatic (c) Katabatic

The onset of sea breeze brings a ______ in temperature and a ______ in RH (a) Rise/Fall (b) Fall/Rise (c) Fall/Fall

(b) Fall/Rise

Sea breeze sets in by ______ and dies off at ______ (a) Night/Day (b) Day/Night (c) Both day and night

(b) Day/Night

If an aircraft in the Northern Hemisphere flies from High to Low it will experience (a) Starboard drift (b) Port drift

(b) Port drift

In Northern Hemisphere, if you experience port drift, the altimeter will read (a) Under (b) Over

(b) Over

Lines of constant wind speed drawn on weather charts are called (a) Isobars (b) Isotachs (c) Isogons

(b) Isotachs

A squall is distinguished from gusts by (a) Shorter duration (b) Longer duration (c) Lower wind speed

(b) Longer duration

(c) The wind which must be added vectorially to the lower level geostrophic wind to obtain the upper level geostrophic wind

On a weather map, if isobars are closely packed, the surface winds are likely to be (a) Light and parallel to isobars (b) Strong and parallel to isobars (c) Strong and blowing across the isobars

Anabatic wind occurs (a) At night (b) Any time of day and night (c) During day

A change in wind direction from 310° to 020° is (a) Backing (b) Veering

(b) Veering

A change from 270° to 250° is (a) Backing (b) Veering

(a) Backing

Sudden changes in wind speed from 10 kt to 30 kt and then to 15 kt are (a) Gust (b) Squall (c) Gale

(b) Squall

Sudden change in wind speed from 10 kt to 30 kt for 2-3 minutes (a) Squall (b) Gust

(b) Gust

A significant wind shear is generally associated with thunderstorms or line squalls (a) False (b) True

(b) True

Cyclostrophic wind gives a good approximation of the 2000' wind in an intense tropical storm (a) True (b) False

(a) True

Rotor clouds have extremely turbulent flying conditions (a) False (b) True

(b) True

Friction causes winds to flow cross isobaric by ______ over land and ______ over sea (a) 10°, 5° (b) 30°, 10° (c) 20°, 15°

(a) 10°, 5°

The ratio in % between the amount of water vapor present in the air to the amount of water vapor that it can hold at the same temperature is (a) Humidity (b) Relative humidity (c) Dew point

(b) Relative humidity

The temperature to which air be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated is called (a) Wet bulb temperature (b) Dry bulb temperature (c) Dew point

Free air temperature, wet bulb temperature and dew point temperature are equal when (a) Air temperature is 0°C (b) Relative humidity is 100% (c) Air temperature is not below 0°C

(b) Relative humidity is 100%

The onset of katabatic winds during the night causes cooling along the slope (a) False (b) True

(b) True

Anabatic winds stronger than katabatic (a) True (b) False

(b) False

Katabatic wind is down slope cold wind due to nocturnal cooling (a) True (b) False

(a) True

Katabatic wind occur due to sinking of cold air down the hill slope (a) True (b) False

(a) True

Anabatic wind occur due to downward movement of air along valley (a) True (b) False

(a) True

Sea breeze is stronger than land breeze (a) True (b) False

(a) True

The wind blows clockwise around a low in N-hemisphere (a) True (b) False

(b) False

The wind blows clockwise around a low in S-hemisphere (a) True (b) False

(b) False

The wind blows anticlockwise around a low in N-hemisphere (a) True (b) False

(a) True

The wind blows anticlockwise around a low in S-hemisphere (a) True (b) False

(a) True

The resultant wind that blows under the influence of pressure gradient force, geostrophic force and cyclostrophic force is called (a) Gradient wind (b) Geostrophic wind (c) Cyclostrophic wind

(b) Geostrophic wind

Due to friction, from day to night for an isobaric pattern (in N hemisphere) the surface wind backs and weakens (a) True (b) False

(a) True

The winds which spiral inward counter-clockwise in the N Hemisphere are associated with (a) Turbulence (b) High pressure area (c) Low pressure area

Lower level wind 05010 kt, upper level wind 23005 kt, what is the thermal wind (a) 05005 kt (b) 23015 kt (c) 05015 kt

(b) 23015 kt

In N hemisphere thermal wind is parallel to _______ with low value to left (a) Isobars (b) Isotherms (c) Isallobars

(a) Isobars

The inertial flow is (a) Cyclonic in both the Hemispheres (b) Anticyclonic in both the Hemispheres (c) Anticyclonic around an anticyclone

(b) Anticyclonic in both the Hemispheres

Upper level wind is 24025 kt, lower level wind is 06015 kt, the thermal wind is (a) 16010 kt (b) 24040 kt (c) 24010 kt

(b) 24040 kt

The Beaufort Force (BF) Scale as adopted by Admiral Beaufort to estimate wind force includes (a) Calm (b) Light air (c) Light breeze (d) All of these

(d) All of these

The BF Scale 'Calm' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) <1 kt (b) 1-3 kt (c) 4-6 kt

(a) <1 kt

BF Scale 1 'Light air' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) 1-3 kt (b) 4-6 kt (c) 7-10 kt

(a) 1-3 kt

BF Scale 2 'Light breeze' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) 4-6 kt (b) 7-10 kt (c) 11-16 kt

(a) 4-6 kt

BF Scale 3 'Gentle breeze' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) 7-10 kt (b) 11-16 kt (c) 17-21 kt

(a) 7-10 kt

BF Scale 4 'Moderate breeze' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) 11-16 kt (b) 17-21 kt (c) 22-27 kt

(a) 11-16 kt

BF Scale 5 'Fresh breeze' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) 17-21 kt (b) 22-27 kt (c) 28-33 kt

(a) 17-21 kt

BF Scale 6 'Strong breeze' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) 22-27 kt (b) 28-33 kt (c) 34-40 kt

(b) 28-33 kt

BF Scale 7 'Near gale' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) 28-33 kt (b) 34-40 kt (c) 41-47 kt

(b) 34-40 kt

BF Scale 8 'Gale' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) 34-40 kt (b) 41-47 kt (c) 48-55 kt

(b) 41-47 kt

BF Scale 9 'Strong gale' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) 41-47 kt (b) 48-55 kt (c) 56-63 kt

(b) 48-55 kt

BF Scale 10 'Storm' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) 48-55 kt (b) 56-63 kt (c) 64 or more kt

(b) 56-63 kt

BF Scale 11 'Violent storm' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) 56-63 kt (b) 64 or more kt

(b) 64 or more kt

BF Scale 12 'Hurricane' corresponds to wind speed at 10m of (a) 64 or more kt (b) 55-60 kt

(a) 64 or more kt

Fog is reported when visibility is reduced to (a) Less than 1000 m (b) 1000 m (c) 1000 to 2000 m

(a) Less than 1000 m

RVR is reported when visibility falls below (a) 500 m (b) 1000 m (c) 1500 m (d) 2000 m

(b) 1000 m

Radiation fog occurs (a) Over land (b) Over sea (c) During day

(a) Over land

When visibility reduces between 5000 m and 1000 m and RH is almost 100%, it is (a) Mist (b) Haze (c) Fog

(a) Mist

Radiation Fog forms over N India during (a) May to June (b) Dec to Feb (c) Oct to Nov

(b) Dec to Feb

Warm and moist air moving over a cold ground gives rise to (a) Thunder clouds (b) Fog and stratus (c) Frontal clouds

(b) Fog and stratus

Warm and moist air moving over a cold surface causes (a) Radiation Fog (b) Advection Fog (c) Frontal Fog

(b) Advection Fog

The radiation fog forms due to (a) Heating of the earth during day (b) Radiational cooling of earth at night (c) Advection of cold air

(b) Radiational cooling of earth at night

The radiation fog activity increases after the passage of a (a) WD (b) Depression (c) Col

(b) Depression

Radiation fog is essentially a ______ phenomenon (a) Nocturnal (b) Dusk (c) Daytime

(a) Nocturnal

The radiation fog forms over (a) Water (b) Land (c) Both

The ______fog forms due to horizontal movement of warm moist air over cold surface (a) Radiation (b) Advection (c) Frontal

(b) Advection

Advection fog forms during (a) Night only (b) Day time only (c) Any time of day and night

For formation of Radiation fog (a) There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere, cloudy sky, nil wind (b) There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere, clear sky, light wind (c) There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere, cloudy sky, strong wind

(a) There should be sufficient moisture in atmosphere, cloudy sky, nil wind

Instrument used for measuring visibility is called (a) Visiometer (b) Transmissometer (c) Ceilometer

(b) Transmissometer

Advection fog forms (a) Over sea (b) Over land (c) Both over land and sea

Fog is ______ cloud on ground (a) Stratocumulus (b) Stratus (c) Nimbostratus

(b) Stratus

Frontal Fog is more common with a (a) Western Disturbance (b) Cyclone (c) Warm Front (d) Cold Front

The favorable pressure system for formation of fog is (a) Lows and Cols (b) High and Trough (c) Highs and Cols

(a) Lows and Cols

Thermal processes/temperature distribution which favors formation of fog is (a) Isothermal (b) Adiabatic (c) Inversion (d) SALR

Drizzle occurs from (a) CS (b) ST (c) NS (d) CU

(a) CS

Altostratus (AS) is (a) Low cloud of sheet type (b) A medium cloud of sheet type (c) A cloud of large vertical growth (d) A high cloud of sheet type

(b) A medium cloud of sheet type

Showers occur from (a) CU (b) CB (c) AS (d) AC

(b) CB

Heavy icing is possible in (a) CI (b) CS (c) ST (d) CB

(d) CB

To avoid icing in cloudy conditions, a pilot is advised to fly through a cloud which shows optical phenomena (a) Halo (b) Corona (c) With multi-colored clouds (d) CB

Dark gray cloud giving continuous rain is called (a) AS (b) NS (c) ST (d) CS

(b) NS

A uniform layer of cloud resembling fog but not on the ground (a) AS (b) NS (c) ST

(b) NS

The clouds composed of ice crystals having feathery appearance (a) CI (b) CS (c) AS

(a) CI

NS clouds occur (a) At cold front (b) At warm front

(b) At warm front

Halo is associated with the cloud (a) AC (b) AS (c) CI

Corona is associated with the cloud (a) AS (b) AC (c) CC

(a) AS

Lenticular clouds indicate presence of (a) Warm Front (b) Cold Front (c) Mountain waves

The lowest level below which condensation trails will not form is (a) Mintra Level (b) Drytra Level (c) Maxtra Level

(b) Drytra Level

Rain falling from cloud but not reaching ground is (a) Virgo (b) Virga (c) Mirage

(b) Virga

CB with distinct anvil is called (a) Castellaneous (b) Capillatus (c) Uncinus

(b) Capillatus

Cloud ceiling is the height of the cloud covering _______ (a) 3-4/8 (b) 4/8 (c) 5/8 or more

No condensation trails occur above (a) Maxtra Level (b) Drytra Level (c) Mintra Level

(a) Maxtra Level

Cloud of operational significance has base 1000 m or below the highest minimum sector altitude, which is greater (a) 1500 (b) 2000

(a) 1500

AC cloud with cumuliform protuberances are indicative of (a) Stability (b) Instability (c) Neutrality

(b) Instability

Hail may be experienced under the anvil of a CB (a) True (b) False

(a) True

DALR = 9.8 °C ELR = 6.8 °C atmosphere is (a) stable (b) unstable (c) indifferent

(b) unstable

SALR = 5.5 °C ELR = 4.5 °C atmosphere is (a) unstable (b) stable (c) indifferent

(b) stable

DALR > ELR > SALR (a) conditionally unstable (b) latently stable (c) potentially stable

(a) conditionally unstable

Dry air is unstable when (a) ELR=DALR (b) ELR>DALR (c) ELR

(b) ELR>DALR

The saturated air is said to be unstable if (a) SALR=ELR (b) SALRELR

If ELR = SALR = DALR the atmosphere is (a) Stable (b) Instable (c) Indifferent

(a) Stable

DALR means (a) The rate at which temperature of unsaturated parcel of air falls with height when made to ascend adiabatically (b) The rate at which temp falls with height (c) The rate at which ascending parcel of saturated air cools

(a) The rate at which temperature of unsaturated parcel of air falls with height when made to ascend adiabatically

Surface temp is 30° C Assuming DALR what is the temperature at 2 km (a) 18°C (b) 10°C (c) 42°C

(a) 18°C

An Isothermal atmosphere is (a) Stable (b) Unstable (c) Neutral

(a) Stable

If ELR is less than SALR the atmosphere is said to be (a) Absolutely unstable (b) Conditionally unstable (c) Absolutely stable

(b) Conditionally unstable

DALR is approximately (a) 5 °C/km (b) 15 °C/km (c) 10 °C/km

SALR at mean sea level is about (a) 10 °C/km (b) 5 °C/km (c) 5 °F/km

(b) 5 °C/km

SALR approaches DALR at (a) 0°C (b) -15°C (c) at -40°C

(a) 0°C

Dry air having a temperature of 35°C on surface when forced to rise adiabatically by 1 km would attain a temperature of (a) 29°C (b) 25°C (c) 45°C

(a) 29°C

Inversion in the atmosphere indicates (a) Stability (b) Instability (c) Neutrality

(a) Stability

Inversion is _______ Lapse Rate (LR) (a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Neutral

(a) Positive

Environmental LR can be more than DALR (a) True (b) False

(a) True

The process which to a large extent determines the vertical distribution of temperature in atmosphere is (a) Adiabatic (b) Isothermal (c) Isentropic

(a) Adiabatic

Rise in temperature with height is (a) Inversion (b) Lapse (c) Normal

(a) Inversion

Inversion is common in (a) Post Monsoon (b) Monsoon (c) Winters

(a) Post Monsoon

Aurora Australis occur in the (a) S hemisphere (b) N hemisphere (c) Equator

(a) S hemisphere

Aurora Australis called ........... Lights (a) Northern (b) Southern (c) Temperate

(b) Southern

Aurora Borealis occur in the (a) S hemisphere (b) N hemisphere (c) Equator

(b) N hemisphere

Aurora Borealis are called ........... Lights (a) Northern (b) Southern (c) Temperate

(a) Northern

Corona occur in ........... clouds (a) AS (b) NS (c) CS

(b) NS

Bishop’s ring is due to the diffraction of light by fine particles of (a) water (b) dust (c) ice

(b) dust

The radius of the Bishop’s ring is about (a) 32° (b) 22° (c) 42°

(b) 22°

Superior Mirage occurs in marked (a) Lapse (b) Isothermal (c) Inversion

Inferior Mirage occurs when there is (a) Lapse (b) Isothermal (c) Inversion

(a) Lapse

Corona are formed due to the ........... of light (a) Refraction (b) Diffraction (c) Scattering

(b) Diffraction

Corona are formed due to light, passing through (a) Mist only (b) Fog only (c) small water or ice particles only (d) Any one of all these

Halo is produced by (a) Refraction (b) Diffraction (c) Scattering

(a) Refraction

Halo is produced when light passes through (a) water particles (b) ice crystals (c) both

(b) ice crystals

Halo occur in the cloud (a) AS (b) NS (c) CS

Halo is luminous ring of ........... radius (a) 32° (b) 22° (c) 42°

(b) 22°

Halo round the sun shows a pure clear ........... on the outside (a) Red (b) Yellow (c) Violet

Halo signifies predominance in the cloud of (a) Supercooled water drops (b) Ice crystals (c) Both

(b) Ice crystals

The cloud which cause Halo has ........... chances of ice accretion (a) negligible (b) maximum (c) medium

(b) maximum

Sometimes a halo with a radius of ........... is observed, called Large Halo (a) 32° (b) 42° (c) 22°

(b) 42°

Halo occurs from ........... cloud (a) Low (b) Medium (c) High

When super cooled water drops and ice particles co-exist the ice crystals grow at the expense of the water drops because (a) Saturation vapour pressure over water drops is less than over the ice crystals (b) Saturation vapour pressure over the ice crystals is less than over water drops (c) The ice crystals convert into water drops

(b) Saturation vapour pressure over the ice crystals is less than over water drops

The clouds whose tops extend well above the freezing level are called (a) Warm Clouds (b) Cold Clouds (c) Moderate Clouds

(b) Cold Clouds

The clouds whose tops do not extend to the freezing level are called (a) Warm Clouds (b) Cold Clouds (c) Moderate Clouds

(a) Warm Clouds

Coalescence Theory explains occurrence of rainfall from (a) Warm Clouds (b) Cold Clouds (c) Both types of Clouds

Ice crystal Theory explains occurrence of rainfall from (a) Warm Clouds (b) Cold Clouds (c) Both types of Clouds

(b) Cold Clouds

Giant Nucleus Theory explains occurrence of rainfall over (a) Maritime areas (b) Inland areas (c) Hilly areas

(a) Maritime areas

Very heavy precipitation as showers over a short period is called (a) Flash floods (b) Cloud Burst (c) Orographic Rain

(b) Cloud Burst

Rain shadow area is on the ........... of the mountain range (a) Top (b) Windward side (c) Leeward side

Sleet is a mixture of (a) Hail & Snow (b) Rain & Snow (c) Frozen Rain

(b) Rain & Snow

Rainfall in the tropics is more in (a) Winters (b) Summers (c) Post monsoon

(b) Summers

Rainfall in the tropics is more in the (a) Morning (b) Afternoon (c) Night

Rainfall in the temperate latitudes is more in (a) Winters (b) Summers (c) Spring

(a) Winters

Over J&K and western Himalayas Rainfall is more in (a) Winters (b) Summers (c) Post monsoon

(a) Winters

Rainfall over coastal areas is more in the (a) Evening (b) Afternoon (c) Night & early morning

Areas to the ........... of western Ghats of India are rain shadow areas (a) W (b) S (c) E

(b) S

A sudden rise in the level of rivers or streams causing floods is called (a) Cloud Burst (b) Catchments flooding (c) Flash Floods

Artificial rain making is also termed as (a) Simulation (b) Cloud seeding (c) Nucleation

(b) Cloud seeding

Fog can be dispersed for a short period by artificial stimulation (a) True (b) False

(a) True

Showery precipitation occurs from (a) NS (b) AC (c) CB

A day is called Rainy day when rainfall in 24 hr is ........... mm or more (a) 1.5 (b) 2 (c) 2.5

Hoar frost occurs on airframe in clear air when the temperature of airframe is (a) below the frost point (b) frost point (c) just above the frost point

(a) below the frost point

In clouds at temperatures below 0°C an aircraft may encounter icing of the type (a) only Glazed (b) only Rime (c) intermediate between these two

Opaque Rime ice is (a) Light porous (b) Solid (c) Mixture of porous and solid

Rime is formed by freezing of .......... supercooled water droplets on airframe when aircraft is flying through clouds (a) Small (b) Large (c) Medium

(a) Small

Glazed ice is formed by freezing of .......... supercooled water droplets on airframe when aircraft is flying through clouds (a) Small (b) Large (c) Medium

(b) Large

The .......... ice poses serious aviation hazard (a) Rime (b) Hoar Frost (c) Glazed

Airframe icing occurs below 0°C. Its probability of occurrence decreases progressively below -20°C, as at lower temperatures the proportion of super-cooled water drops in a cloud (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Does not change

(b) Decreases

CI, CS and CC clouds consist mostly ice crystals. Icing hazard is therefore (a) Maximum (b) Medium (c) Negligible

AS, NS consist of supercooled water drops and ice crystals in varying proportion .......... icing is possible. (a) Maximum (b) Light or moderate (c) Negligible

(b) Light or moderate

In AC clouds .......... icing is possible in mountainous areas (a) Light (b) Moderate (c) Severe

(b) Moderate

In TCU icing may range from light to severe type at least up to .......... level. (a) -40°C level (b) 30°C level (c) -20°C level

(a) -40°C level

In CB icing may range from light to severe type up to -20°C level. Below this temperature severe icing is (a) not significant (b) significant (c) maximum

(b) significant

Liquid water content is an important factor in icing. As the maximum water concentration is in clouds near .......... maximum ice formation in clouds may also be expected around that level. (a) -25°C level (b) -20°C level (c) -15°C level

(b) -20°C level

Carburetor icing occurs when air from intake passes through a venturi (choke) and causes expansional cooling and vaporization of fuel. Serious icing can occur at extreme temperatures (a) 13°C (b) 30°C to -10°C (c) 20°C

(b) 30°C to -10°C

.......... occurs in a moist cloudless air on an aircraft surface having temp. below 0°C, due to sublimation of water vapour onto feathery ice crystals. (a) Rime (b) Glazed (c) Hoar Frost

.......... occurs in St, Sc, Ac, Cu, Ns at temperature -10 to -40°C and in Cb at temperature -20 to -40°C (a) Rime (b) Glazed (c) Hoar Frost

(a) Rime

In clouds .......... occurs when a wide range of water drop sizes are present at temperatures between 0°C and -40°C (a) Rime (b) Glazed (c) Mixture of rime and clear ice

.......... occurs in AS, NS, AC and towering CU or CB between 0°C and -20°C, in warm front below 0°C, especially if the aircraft has rapidly descended from a colder region. (a) Glazed (b) Rime (c) Mixture of Rime and Clear ice

When fog freezes on parked aircraft it produces .......... (a) Hoar Frost (b) Rime (c) Clear ice

(a) Hoar Frost

Icing .......... the stalling speed appreciably (a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Does not increase/decrease

(b) Increases

The condition necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm are (a) Steep lapse rate, strong winds (b) Shallow lapse rate, adequate supply of moisture (c) Steep lapse rate, adequate supply of moisture and trigger action

Hail is most likely to fall from a cloud (a) Having layers (b) Composed of Ice crystals (c) Having strong vertical development

Norwesters are (a) The western disturbances which affect NW India (b) Severe thunderstorms which occur over NE India during hot weather period (c) Severe thunderstorms which occur over Peninsula during hot weather period

(b) Severe thunderstorms which occur over NE India during hot weather period

Duststorm usually occurs over NW India during (a) Post-monsoon (b) Winter (c) Pre-Monsoon

A ‘mature’ thunderstorm has (a) updraft only (b) downdraft only (c) updrafts and downdrafts

Aircraft icing is most favourable in the cloud which have temperatures ranging between (a) -20° C and -40° C (b) 0° C and -20° C (c) below -40° C

(b) 0° C and -20° C

A short duration, showery precipitation is associated with (a) ST (b) AS (c) CB

Hail is (a) Solid precipitation commonly occurring over the mountainous regions in winters (b) Frozen or partly frozen rain falling from sheet type of clouds (c) Solid precipitation falling from a deep convective cloud

The most hazardous cloud for aviation is (a) CB (b) CU (c) NS

(a) CB

The life of a Cb cell is usually (a) 7 to 8 hrs (b) 3 to 4 hrs (c) 2-3 hr

Generally the severest activity of a, heat type, TS is for (a) 2 hrs (b) 30 to 45 min (c) 3 to 4 hr

(b) 30 to 45 min

Norwesters occur during (a) Jan-Feb (b) Mar-May (c) June-Sep (d) Oct – Dec

(b) Mar-May

Norwesters occur during (a) Winter (b) Hot weather (c) Monsoon (d) Post Monsoon

(b) Hot weather

Norwesters affect (a) N India (b) Bihar, Orissa and Assam (c) Central India

(b) Bihar, Orissa and Assam

The trigger action may take place due to (a) Clear night sky, no wind (b) Orographic lifting (c) high pressure

(b) Orographic lifting

Norwesters normally occur during (a) Mornings (b) Afternoons (c) Nights

(b) Afternoons

Norwesters originates over (a) Chota-Nagpur hills (b) Deccan Plato (c) Khasi hills

(a) Chota-Nagpur hills

Andhi (blinding storms) occur generally over (a) S India (b) N India

(b) N India

Wind speed in Light DS is (a) 25 kt (b) 30 kt (c) up to 21 kt

The diameter of Microburst is (a) less than 4 km (b) less than 2 km (c) less than 6 km

(b) less than 2 km

The diameter of Macroburst is (a) < 4 km (b) 4 km or more (c) > 8 km

(b) 4 km or more

For detecting precipitation a Radar wavelength in the range (a) 30 to 200 mm (b) 400-500 mm (c) 600-700 mm

For airborne radars wavelength generally used (a) 20 mm (b) 40 mm

(a) 20 mm

The wavelength of TS detection X band radar is (a) 10 mm (b) 20 mm

(a) 10 mm

The wavelength of storm detection S band radar is (a) 50 mm (b) 100 mm (c) 200 mm

Over plains TS mostly occur during the (a) afternoon (b) night (c) early morning

(a) afternoon

Over valley and foot hills TS generally occur during (a) afternoon (b) night & early morning

(b) night & early morning

Over the sea TS are more frequent (a) afternoon (b) night

(b) night

The life of Mesoscale Convective Complex TS is (a) 2-3 hr (b) 3-4 hr (c) 6 to 24 hr

Loud peals of thunder, frequent flashes of lightning, moderate or heavy showers accompanied by light hail with maximum wind speed 15-40 kt is classified as (a) Light TS (b) Moderate TS (c) Severe TS

(b) Moderate TS

For a severe TS one of the requirements is strong Wind Shear (a) Horizontal (b) Vertical (c) Slant

(b) Vertical

Severe TS cells are tilted (a) in vertical (b) to the South (c) to the North

When flying through an active TS, lighting strikes are most likely (a) Above 5000 ft and under the anvil. (b) In the clear air below the cloud in rain (c) In the temperature band between +10° and - 10°C (d) At or about 10000 ft

Hazards of the mature stage of TS Cell include lighting, turbulence and: (a) Microburst, wind-shear and anvil (b) Icing, microburst and WS (c) Icing, drizzle and microburst (d) WS, hail and fog

(b) Icing, microburst and WS

Hail grows by (a) freezing as it leaves the cloud (b) up and down forces in CU cloud (c) collision with supercooled water drops

The airmass which originates at sea in high Latitudes is called (a) Polar maritime (b) Tropical maritime

(a) Polar maritime

The airmass which originates over equatorial region is (a) Warm and dry (b) Warm and Moist

(b) Warm and Moist

If the advancing cold front is colder than the cool air mass of the warm front, the advancing cold front undercuts and lifts both the warm and cool air masses of the warm front. This is (a) Warm Occlusion (b) Cold Occlusion

(b) Cold Occlusion

The airmass which originated over land area located in polar region is (a) Warm and dry (b) Warm and Moist (c) Cold and dry

If a warm airmass overtakes a cold air mass, it is called (a) Cold Front (b) Warm Front

(b) Warm Front

At warm front (a) Warm air overtakes the cold air (b) Cold air undercuts the warm air

(a) Warm air overtakes the cold air

The conditions are always unstable at a (a) Cold Front (b) Warm Front

(a) Cold Front

Sometimes Line squall occurs about 100-300 km ahead of a (a) Warm front (b) Cold front

(b) Cold front

Precipitation occurs over a belt of 30-50 km on both side of front (a) Cold front (b) Warm front

(b) Warm front

Cold front moves at .... the speed of a warm front moves (a) Same (b) Double (c) Half

(b) Double

Line Squalls occur ...... of Cold front (a) Ahead (b) Behind (c) At the

(a) Ahead

Fronts are associated with (a) Tropical cyclone (b) Monsoon Depression (c) Extra-tropical Cyclones

CB, Roll-type clouds, SC, AC with embedded CB are associated (a) Cold front (b) Warm front

(b) Warm front

The surface of discontinuity between the Polar Ely and the temperate Wly is called (a) Equatorial Front (b) Tropopause (c) Polar Front

The air mass which originates from sea area located in lower Lat is (a) Warm and Dry (b) Warm and Moist (c) Cold and Moist

(b) Warm and Moist

WDs approach India as (a) Cols (b) Occluded Fronts (c) Highs

(b) Occluded Fronts

Maximum WDs occur in (a) Summers (b) Post Monsoon (c) Winters

Ahead of a warm front the surface wind (a) Backs & weakens (b) Veers & strengthens (c) Backs & strengthens

(b) Veers & strengthens

On approach of a Warm Front temperature (a) Rise (b) Remain same

(a) Rise

CI, CS, AS, NS, ST in sequence are associated with the front (a) Warm (b) Cold (c) Occluded

(a) Warm

During the passage of a Cold Front wind (a) Suddenly become squally (b) Back and weaken (c) Veer and of moderate strength

(a) Suddenly become squally

Visibility is poor in a Warm Front (a) Ahead (b) Ahead & During (c) After & During

(b) Ahead & During

Fog occurs in Cold Front (a) Ahead (b) During (c) After

(b) During

WD is a .......... front (a) Cold (b) Warm (c) Occluded

(a) Cold

FZRA and FZFG occur .......... of a warm front (a) Ahead (b) During (c) After

(b) During

Precipitation ceases after the passage of a front (a) Cold (b) Warm (c) Occluded

(a) Cold

During the approach of a Warm Front wind (a) Backs (b) Veers (c) Does not change

(a) Backs

A WD with two or more closed isobars, at 2 hPa interval, it is termed as (a) Troughs in Westerlies (b) Western Depression (c) Western Cyclone

(a) Troughs in Westerlies

A WD originate over (a) Baluchistan (b) Caspian sea (c) Mediterranean, Caspian and Black Seas

Induced lows develop to the .......... of a WD (a) N (b) S (c) NE

(b) S

The arbitrary lower limit of jet core velocity has been assigned by WMO as (a) 60 kt (b) 60 m/s (c) 70 m/s

(b) 60 m/s

Jet stream has (a) one maxima (b) one or more maxima (c) only two maxima

(b) one or more maxima

The vertical wind shear in a Jet stream is about (a) 5m/s/ km (b) 6m/s/km (c) 8m/s/km

(b) 6m/s/km

Compared to horizontal wind shear the vertical wind shear in a Jet stream is (a) weaker (b) stronger (c) same

(b) stronger

In a jet stream, the path of the maximum speed is known as (a) Core (b) Axis (c) Jet streak

(a) Core

The wind speed along the axis of a jet stream is always (a) Uniform (b) Not uniform

(a) Uniform

Along the axis of a jet stream there are centres of high speed winds, these are called (a) Jet streaks (b) Core (c) Axis

(a) Jet streaks

In a wavy jet the Jet streaks are located over or near the (a) Ridge (b) Trough (c) Southerly

(b) Trough

Sub-tropical Jet Stream (STJ) is (a) Westerly (b) Easterly (c) Southerly

(a) Westerly

The normal position of Sub-tropical Jet Stream is (a) 30° N (b) 27° N (c) 35° N

(b) 27° N

The southern most position of STJ is in February is (a) 22° N (b) 20° N (c) 18° N

The STJ affects India from (a) Jun to Jul (b) Oct to May (c) Aug to Sep

(b) Oct to May

STJ has a layered structure. There are often two layers of jet core (a) S (b) N (c) SW

(b) N

The STJ strengthens (a) Northwards (b) Upstream (c) Downstream

(b) Upstream

At and near STJ the temperature gradient is very (a) Small (b) Large (c) Moderate

(b) Large

Vertical wind shear in STJ is greater .......... the core (a) above (b) below (c) along

(b) below

The TJ prevails over the Indian Peninsula from (a) Sep to Oct (b) May to Jun (c) Jun to Aug

(a) Sep to Oct

The TJ is located over the Indian Peninsula, approximately at (a) 13° N (b) 18° N

(b) 18° N

The TJ is located over Indian, approximately at a height of (a) 15–16 km (b) 12–13 km (c) 11–12 km

(a) 15–16 km

The TJ is strongest in (a) July – Aug (b) Sep – Oct (c) June

(b) Sep – Oct

In the TJ the wind shears are much .......... than the STJ (a) more (b) less (c) same

(b) less

TJ is (a) Westerly (b) Easterly (c) Southerly

(b) Easterly

A jet stream can be recognized by (a) High level dust (b) High Pressure (c) Streaks of CI (d) Lenticular clouds

(a) High level dust

Flying at right angles to a jet stream with falling pressure you will experience (a) Wind from left (b) Increasing head wind (c) Increasing tail wind (d) Wind from right

(b) Increasing head wind

When and where tropical jet stream occurs (a) All year along equator (b) In Middle East in summers (c) In summers over SE Asia and Central Africa

The airmass which originates at sea in high Latitudes is called (a) Polar maritime (b) Tropical maritime

(a) Polar maritime

The airmass which originates over equatorial region is (a) Warm and dry (b) Warm and Moist

(b) Warm and Moist

If the advancing cold front is colder than the cool air mass of the warm front the advancing cold front undercuts and lifts both the warm and cool air masses of the warm front This is (a) Warm Occlusion (b) Cold Occlusion

(b) Cold Occlusion

The airmass which originated over land area located in polar region is (a) Warm and dry (b) Cold and dry

(b) Cold and dry

If a warm airmass overtakes a cold air mass it is called (a) Cold Front (b) Warm Front

(b) Warm Front

At warm front (a) Warm air overtakes the cold air (b) Cold air undercuts the warm air

(a) Warm air overtakes the cold air

The conditions are always unstable at a (a) Cold Front (b) Warm Front

(a) Cold Front

Sometimes Line squall occurs about 100-300 km ahead of a (a) Warm front (b) Cold front

(b) Cold front

Precipitation occurs over a belt of 30 – 50 km on both side of front (a) Cold front (b) Warm front

(b) Warm front

Cold front moves at ............ the speed of a warm front moves (a) Same (b) Double

(b) Double

Fog occurs in Cold Front (a) Ahead (b) During

(b) During

WD is a ........... front (a) Cold (b) Warm

(a) Cold

FZRA and FZFG occur ............ of a warm front (a) Ahead (b) During

(b) During

Precipitation ceases after the passage of a front (a) Cold (b) Warm

(a) Cold

During the approach of a Warm Front wind (a) Backs (b) Veers

(a) Backs

A WD with two or more closed isobars at 2 hPa interval it is termed as (a) Troughs in Westerlies (b) Western Depression

(b) Western Depression

A WD originate over (a) Baluchistan (b) Caspian sea

(b) Caspian sea

Induced lows develop to the .......... of a WD (a) N (b) S

(b) S

For mountain waves to form there should be flow of air across the ridge generally within ........... of the perpendicular to the ridge (a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60°

(b) 45°

For mountain waves to form the wind speed for small mountains should be at least (a) 15 m/s (b) 10 m/s (c) 7 m/s

(a) 15 m/s

For mountain waves to form the wind speed for large mountains should be at least (a) 15 m/s (b) 10 m/s (c) 7 m/s

(b) 10 m/s

For mountain waves to form there should be ..... air below the ridge and less stable air above (a) Stable (b) Unstable (c) Indifferent

(b) Unstable

The worst kind of turbulence is encountered in the vicinity of rotor clouds (a) Rotar Clouds (b) Lenticular Clouds (c) Cap Clouds

(a) Rotar Clouds

In Mountain waves the Rotor clouds form in (a) Troughs (b) Ridges (c) Valley

(b) Ridges

Clear air turbulence is often encountered (a) At the boundary of a jet stream (b) In the wake of a passing airplane (c) In the wake of a larger airplane at take off and landing (d) All of the above

(d) All of the above

Most CAT occurs on the ........... of a jet stream and in the vicinity of upper level frontal zones where temperature contrasts are strong (a) Fringes (b) Within the core (c) Axis

(a) Fringes

CAT is the bumpiness experienced by aircraft at high altitudes Over North India its maximum frequency is during (a) Oct - May (b) Jul - Aug (c) Jun - Sep

(a) Oct - May

When approaching an area where mountain waves have been reported a pilot should expect: (a) Possible presence of roll clouds and lenticular clouds (b) Intense up draughts and down draughts on the lee side of the mountains (c) Moderate to severe turbulence as far as 20 to 30 nm from range on leeward side (d) All of the above

(d) All of the above

Wind speed in a tropical severe cyclone is (a) 27 - 33 kt (b) 48 - 63 kt (c) 17 - 27 kt

(b) 48 - 63 kt

Fronts are characteristic of (a) Tropical cyclone (b) Extra-tropical depressions (c) Monsoon depressions

(a) Tropical cyclone

In a mature tropical cyclone the eye area is characterised by (a) moderate winds and heavy rains (b) hurricane force winds and squalls (c) calm wind little clouding and practically no rainfall

Cyclonic storm cross Tamil Nadu coast in (a) Oct-Nov (b) Jul - Aug (c) Feb - May

(a) Oct-Nov

Cyclonic storms form over Indian seas during (a) SW monsoon (b) Winter Season (c) Pre-Monsoon & Post Monsoon

TRS occurs over Indian seas in: (a) Equatorial Region (b) 5 - 15° N (c) 0 - 5° N

(b) 5 - 15° N

In the Bay of Bengal during the months of Jul, August Monsoon Depression form (a) Over Head Bay (b) Central Bay (c) South Bay

(b) Central Bay

In a monsoon depression maximum weather occurs in (a) SE sector (b) NW sector (c) SW sector

During re-curvature maximum weather in a monsoon depression occurs in (a) SE sector (b) NW sector (c) NE sector

(a) SE sector

On whatever compass course the cyclone is approached, strong winds from the port indicate that the centre lies somewhere (a) Ahead (b) Behind (c) Port

(b) Behind

Q11. The well developed extra tropical cyclonic storm is composed of two main frontal systems and an occluded front, which varies in extent (a) A stationary Front followed by a warm front (b) A low with a warm front radiating out Southwards followed by a cold front (c) A warm front and an occluded front (d) None of the above

Q12. Cyclonic storms are confined almost entirely to the (a) Latitudes near Equator (b) Tropical latitudes (c) Polar lat. (d) Mid lat.

(b) Tropical latitudes

Q13. The weather expected in a well developed cyclonic storm is (a) Moderate Weather (b) Stormy weather (c) Clear skies (d) No wind or temperature change

(b) Stormy weather

Q14. After entering land the Cyclone gradually die down (a) True (b) False

(a) True

Q15. The ........... is the most dangerous part of the cyclone (a) eye (b) eye wall (c) complete cyclone (d) Outer storm area

(b) eye wall

Q16. No CS form (a) At Poles (b) At Equator (c) At Lat 40 deg (d) All these

(a) At Poles

Q17. Average life of a tropical cyclone in India is (a) 10 Days (b) 6–8 Days (c) 3–4 Days

(b) 6–8 Days

Q18. CS in India are mostly of intensity (a) Severe (b) Very Weak (c) Moderate

(a) Severe

Q19. Eye of a CS is surrounded by (a) Shelf Clouds (b) Wall Clouds (c) Rotor Clouds (d) Roll clouds

(b) Wall Clouds

Q20. CS in Indian region are less intense because (a) They have a very short travel over the sea (b) Sea surface temp. are not high (c) India is close to Equator

Q21. Surge is sudden strengthening of wind in the ........... air mass (a) Same (b) Different (c) Both

(a) Same

Q22. Surge and Shear Line are features of ........... monsoon (a) Vigorous (b) Weak (c) Moderate

(a) Vigorous

Q23. Peninsular discontinuity occurs along (a) West Coast (b) East Coast (c) Central Peninsula

Q24. Peninsular discontinuity occurs during (a) Monsoon (b) NE Monsoon (c) Pre Monsoon

(b) NE Monsoon

Q25. Surge is also (a) Velocity Divergence (b) Velocity Convergence (c) like ITCZ

(b) Velocity Convergence

Q26. In a depression the wind speed is (a) < 17 kt (b) 34 – 47 kt (c) 17 – 27 kt (d) 48 – 63 kt

Q27. In a CS the wind speed is (a) < 17 kt (b) 34 – 47 kt (c) 17 – 27 kt (d) 28 – 33 kt

(b) 34 – 47 kt

Q28. A monsoon depression slopes ........... with height (a) SE (b) NW (c) SW (d) NE

(b) NW

Q29. Average life of a monsoon depression is (a) 2–3 days (b) 8–9 days (c) 3–5 days (d) 10–12 days

Q30. Monsoon depressions move faster over (a) Sea (b) Plains (c) Hills (d) Rivers

(b) Plains

Q31. For formation of a CS sea surface temperature should be (a) 26–27 °C (b) 23–24 °C (c) 24–25 °C (d) 30 °C

(a) 26–27 °C

Q32. In extra tropical cyclone family there are 3–4 CS or depressions, one to the ........... of the other (a) SE (b) NW (c) SW (d) NE

(b) NW

Q33. In TRS the central pressure is about (a) 1002-1010 hPa (b) 1000–900 hPa (c)1010-1200 hPa

(b) 1000–900 hPa

Q34. TRS develop over (a) Sea (b) Land (c) Islands (d) at equator

(a) Sea

Q35. TRS develop over ........... deg Lat (a) 0–5 (b) 5–15 (c) 25–30 (d) 30–40

(b) 5–15

Q36. In TRS pressure gradient is very steep up to a radius of (a) 30 km (b) 50 km (c) 100 km (d) 400 km

(a) 30 km

Q37. Extra Tropical Storms originate in (a) Equatorial Front (b) Tropical Front (c) Polar Front

Q38. Extra-tropical Storms generally move in the direction (a) S to E (b) W to E (c) S to W (d) E to W

(b) W to E

Q39. A Tropical Cyclone moves ........... in a day (a) 300–500 km (b) 700–900 km (c) >900 km

(a) 300–500 km

Q40. A Tropical CS has outer storm area of about (a) >400 km (b) >700 km (c) >900 km

Q1. During winters (a) Advection fog occurs over northern & central parts of India (b) Radiation fog occurs in southern parts of India (c) Activity of Radiation fog increases after the passage of a WD over N India

Q2. Low Temperatures and low humidity is the characteristic of (a) Post Monsoon (b) Summer (c) Monsoon (d) Winter

(d) Winter

Q3. The Summer Season period is (a) Jan-Feb (b) Mar-May (c) Jul - Sept (d) Oct – Dec

(b) Mar-May

Q4. During Summer season (a) WDs cause TS / DS over Punjab & Rajasthan (b) No WD affect N-parts of country (c) Track of WD is southern most

(a) WDs cause TS / DS over Punjab & Rajasthan

Q5. The monsoon current over the West coast of India is (a) SWly (b) SEly (c) NEly (d) NWly

(a) SWly

Q6. Monsoon period is (a) Jan to Feb (b) March to May (c) Jun to Sep (d) Oct to Dec

Q7. The monsoon advances with (a) Bay of Bengal current only (b) Arabian Sea current only (c) Bay of Bengal and Arabian sea currents

Q8. The rainfall over India during monsoon depends on (a) Low over Pakistan (b) Depression over Bay of Bengal (c) The position of the axis of Monsoon Trough

Q9. Rainfall occurs all over the country during monsoon when (a) Axis of MT is in its normal position along Gangetic plains (b) Axis of MT is along Himalayas (c) Depression formed over Bay of Bengal

(a) Axis of MT is in its normal position along Gangetic plains

Q10. Break in monsoon occurs when the axis of monsoon trough is along the (a) Gangetic plains (b) Foot hills of Himalayas (c) Bay of Bengal.

(b) Foot hills of Himalayas

Q11. With a Depression over the Head Bay fair weather occurs over (a) Assam (b) W Bengal (c) Orissa

(b) W Bengal

Q12. Monsoon is also called (a) Pre monsoon (b) Rainy Season (c) Post monsoon (d) Jan to Feb

(b) Rainy Season

Q13. Autumn Season period is (a) Mar to May (b) Jun to Sept (c) Oct to Nov

Q14. During post monsoon, pressure gradient over India is (a) weak (b) steep (c) same as summer

(a) weak

Q15. During monsoon season, low pressure lies over (a) Bay of Bengal (b) NE India (c) Central India (d) Pakistan

(a) Bay of Bengal

Q16. During vigorous monsoon period the pressure gradient over west coast is (a) Weak (b) Steep (c) Normal

(b) Steep

Q17. Flying in Monsoon from Chennai to Kolkata at 14 km will experience winds (a) Easterly (b) Westerly (c) Nly (d) Southerly

(a) Easterly

Q18. An A/C flying in Winter season from Chennai to Kolkata at 12 km will experience (a) Ely (b) Wly (c) Nly (d) Sly

(b) Wly

Q19. An aircraft flying in Summer season from Delhi to Kolkata at 10 km will experience (a) Easterly (b) Westerly (c) Northerly (d) Southerly

(a) Easterly

Q20. An A/C flying in Monsoon from Mumbai to Ahmadabad at 03 km will experience (a) SEly (b) SWly (c) Nly (d) NWly

(b) SWly

Q21. A/C flying in winter season from Delhi to Kolkata at 06 km will experience winds (a) SEly (b) SWly (c) NW - Wly

Q22. An aircraft flying in winter season from Delhi to Kolkata at 06 km will experience (a) Port drift (b) Starboard drift (c) Tail wind (d) Head wind

(d) Head wind

Q23. Flying in winter season from Kolkata to Nagpur at 02 km will experience (a) Port drift (b) Starboard drift (c) Tail wind (d) Head wind

(a) Port drift

Q24. During break monsoon the pressures all over the country (a) Rise (b) Fall (c) Do not change

(b) Fall

Q25. During break monsoon sometimes surface winds over East UP and Bihar are (a) very strong (b) weak (c) normal

(b) weak

Q26. Mid tropospheric cyclone occurs during (a) Summer Season (b) Winters (c) Post monsoon (d) Monsoon

Q27. Mid tropospheric cyclone during monsoon form over (a) Orissa (b) Punjab (c) Gujarat (d) Chennai

Q28. El Nino is (a) Warm phase of ESNO causing more rains (b) Cold Phase of ESNO (c) Good for Indian Monsoons

(b) Cold Phase of ESNO

Q29. Maximum cyclones occur over India in (a) Pre monsoon (b) Winters (c) Post monsoon (d) Monsoon

Q30. Tropical Jet stream occurs in India during (a) Pre monsoon (b) Winters (c) Post monsoon (d) Monsoon

(b) Winters

Q31. Pressure gradient over West Coast of India is steep during (a) Pre monsoon (b) Winters (c) Post monsoon (d) Monsoon

(d) Monsoon

Q32. During break monsoon more rain occurs (a) along foot hills (b) NW India (c) S India

(a) along foot hills

Q1. The polewards moving air piles up in the subtropical regions and forms high pressure belt at the surface, called (a) Subtropical high (b) Polar High (c) Equatorial high

(a) Subtropical high

Q2. .......... occurs over subtropical high (a) advection (b) convection (c) subsidence

Q3. The occurrence of large deserts near 30N and 30S are due to large scale (a) subsidence (b) convection (c) advection

(a) subsidence

Q4. A part of the sinking air over the subtropical highs flows towards the equator, turning west (in the northern hemisphere) due to the Coriolis force. This surface air is called (a) Trade winds (b) Roaring forties (c) Doldrums

(a) Trade winds

Q5. The huge vertical circulations, one between the equator and 30N and another between equator and 30S, are called (a) Hadley Cells (b) Ferrel Cells (c) Polar cells

(a) Hadley Cells

Q6. The descending branch of the Hadley cell marked by calm winds and high pressure at the surface are called (a) Tropical Latitudes (b) Middle latitudes (c) Horse Latitudes

Q7. The winds in the upper troposphere are westerly. These are known as (a) Natural Westerlies (b) Steady Westerlies (c) Zonal Westerlies

Q8. In the equatorial regions the upper tropospheric winds are (a) Westerlies (b) Easterlies (c) Zonal Westerlies

(b) Easterlies

Q9. The disturbances of middle latitudes move from (a) W to E (b) E to W (c) N to S (d) S to N

(a) W to E

Q10. The tropical disturbances which form in the equatorial low pressure belt move in (a) Easterly direction (b) Westerly direction (c) Southerly direction

(a) Easterly direction

Q11. Tropical disturbance which reach the zone of transition in the upper level flow change course and begin to move in a (a) Perpendicular direction (b) Opposite direction (c) Southwards

Q12. Latitudinally, on the average there is radiation .......... in the tropics than in the polar regions (a) surplus (b) deficit (c) balance

(a) surplus

Q13. The systems like highs, lows, cyclonic circulation etc are associated with distinct types of weather. A study of the behaviour of these systems, known as (a) Synoptic Meteorology (b) Climatology (c) Physical Meteorology

(a) Synoptic Meteorology

Q14. Rising air creates calms or doldrums in the equatorial region. (a) ITCZ (b) Horse Latitudes (c) Equatorial Doldrums

(a) ITCZ

Q15. Steady NE winds in the N hemisphere and SE winds in the S hemisphere are called. (a) Easterly winds (b) Trade Winds (c) Tropical Winds

(b) Trade Winds

Q1. For non-scheduled National Flights an advance notice (before ETD) is required to be given to AMOs (a) 3 hr (b) 12-24 hr (c) 6 hr

(b) 12-24 hr

Q2. For non-scheduled International Flights an advance notice (before ETD) is required to be given to AMOs (a) 3 hr (b) 12-24 hr (c) 6 hr

Q3. CODAR is (a) coded REPORT (b) Colour Radar (c) Area forecast warning from an aircraft, other than weather reconnaissance aircraft

Q4. SIGMET is issued for (a) in flight (b) on ground (c) both

(a) in flight

Q5. SIGMET is not issued for (a) Rain (b) Volcanic Ash (c) SEV Icing

(a) Rain

Q6. AIRMET is SIGMET issued by a MWO for the safety of (a) low-level aircraft (b) high-level aircraft (c) both

(a) low-level aircraft

Q7. GAMET is an area forecast in abbreviated plain language for low-level flights for (a) low-level flights (b) high-level flights (c) all level flights

(a) low-level flights

Q8. The validity of Airfield warnings is not exceeding (a) 6 hr (b) 4 hr (c) 2 hr

(b) 4 hr

Q9. Airfield warning is issued for the expected wind speed (a) 15 kt (b) 25 kt (c) 30 kt

(a) 15 kt

Q10. Airfield warning is issued for wind direction of 20 kt changes by (a) 15 kt (b) 17 kt (c) 30 kt

(b) 17 kt

Q11. VOLMET consists of (a) SIGMET (b) TAF only (c) TAF and METAR

Q12. ROBEX the METAR/SPEC of international aerodromes and their alternates is exchanged (a) within India (b) outside India (c) both

(b) outside India

Q13. Global SIGWX Charts are issued ........... times a day (a) two (b) three (c) four

Q14. Local Forecast covers an area of (a) 100 km (b) 50 NM (c) 200 NM

(a) 100 km

Q15. Nowcasting forecast is valid for: (a) 30 hr (b) 48 hr (c) less than 24 hr

Q16. IF TS cells have no separation between adjacent TS and cover an area more than 75%, it is termed as (a) FRQ (b) ISOL (c) OCNL

(a) FRQ

Q17. IF TS cells are well separated and cover an area 50-75%, it is termed as (a) FRQ (b) ISOL (c) OCNL

Q18. The Indian National SIGWX chart is made for High Levels between Flight Levels (a) 150 & 250 (b) 100 & 250 (c) FL150 & FL350

Q19. In India the National SIGWX chart is issued (a) 1 time a day (b) 2 times a day (c) 4 times a day

(b) 2 times a day

Q20. In India the National SIGWX chart is issued for areas where 50% area is termed as (a) FRQ (b) ISOL (c) OCNL

Q21. ITCZ is located where the trade winds converge near the equator (a) True (b) False

(a) True

Q22. WAFS provides high-quality en-route forecasts of ........ to Met Offices (a) turbulence (b) icing (c) temperature (d) all of these

(d) all of these

Q23. ARFOR is issued for areas ........... miles or ............ km (a) 50 NM or 100 km (b) 100 NM or 150 km

(a) 50 NM or 100 km

Q24. SIGWX charts are prepared for flight levels (a) 250 & 350 (b) 100 & 250 (c) FL250 & FL350

(b) 100 & 250

Q25. The validity of SIGMET warnings is not exceeding (a) 4 hr (b) 2 hr (c) 1 hr

(a) 4 hr

Q26. Airfield warning is issued for expected wind speed of (a) 15 kt (b) 30 kt (c) 25 kt

(a) 15 kt

Q27. VOLMET contains (a) TAF and METAR (b) SIGMET only (c) WAFS

(a) TAF and METAR

Q28. ROBEX exchanges METAR and SPECI reports for international aerodromes (a) within India (b) outside India (c) both

(b) outside India

Q29. Global SIGWX Charts are issued ........ times a day (a) two (b) three (c) four

Q30. SIGMET is not issued for (a) Volcanic Ash (b) Severe Icing (c) Rain

Q31. GAMET is issued for (a) low-level flights (b) high-level flights (c) all flights

(a) low-level flights

Q32. In India the SIGWX chart is valid for (a) 12 hr (b) 24 hr (c) 6 hr

(b) 24 hr

Q33. SIGWX Charts cover Medium Levels between Flight Levels (a) 100 & 250 (b) 150 & 350 (c) FL150 & FL350

(a) 100 & 250

Q34. SIGMET is issued by (a) WMO (b) MWO (c) AMO

(b) MWO

Q35. If TS cells are isolated, it is termed as (a) FRQ (b) ISOL (c) OCNL

(b) ISOL

Q36. IF TS cells have no separation between adjacent TS and cover 75% of an area, it is termed as (a) FRQ (b) ISOL (c) OCNL

(a) FRQ

Q37. Local forecast covers an area of (a) 100 km (b) 50 NM (c) 200 km

(a) 100 km

Q38. Nowcasting is valid for (a) less than 6 hr (b) 24 hr (c) 30 hr

(a) less than 6 hr

Q39. In India SIGWX charts are issued (a) 2 times a day (b) 4 times a day (c) once a day

(a) 2 times a day

Q40. The Indian National SIGWX charts are issued for areas where more than 50% is termed as (a) FRQ (b) ISOL (c) OCNL

(a) FRQ

Q41. Indian SIGWX charts are made for High Levels between FL (a) 100 & 150 (b) 150 & 250 (c) 150 & 350

Q42. Indian SIGWX charts are valid for (a) 12 hr (b) 24 hr (c) 6 hr

(b) 24 hr

Q43. SIGMET is valid for (a) 6 hr (b) 4 hr (c) 2 hr

(b) 4 hr

Q44. If TS cells are isolated and cover an area of 50%, it is termed as (a) ISOL (b) FRQ (c) OCNL

(a) ISOL

Q45. SIGMET warnings are issued for (a) severe turbulence (b) moderate icing (c) cloud ceilings

(a) severe turbulence

What are the types of pressure measurement instruments?

Mercury barometer, Aneroid barometer, Barograph (Self-recording) ## Footnote Measured in Hectopascal (hPa) or Millibar (mb) or Inches (in) of mercury.

What instruments are used to measure air temperature?

Dry, Max (Mercury) thermometer, Min (Alcohol) thermometer ## Footnote Measured in Degree Celsius °C.

What instruments are used to measure dew point temperature?

Dry & Wet bulb (Mercury) thermometers ## Footnote Measured in Degree Celsius °C.

What are the instruments for measuring relative humidity?

Dry & Wet bulb thermometer, Hygrometers, Hygrograph (Self-recording), Psychrometer ## Footnote Measured in Percentage (%).

What instrument is used to measure humidity mixing ratio?

Hygrograph ## Footnote Measured in gm/kg.

What instruments are used to measure precipitation?

Raingauge, Self-recording raingauge, Hyetograph, Snowgauge ## Footnote Measured in mm or cm, depth (amount by melting).

What instruments are used to measure surface wind direction and speed?

Wind Vane (for Direction), Anemometer, Anemograph (Self-recording) ## Footnote Direction in degrees from True North in clockwise, Speed in knots (KT).

What is the wind direction and speed in the station model?

330/15 kt

What is the temperature indicated in the station model?

34° C

What is the visibility reported in the station model?

500m but not 1000 m

What is the present weather condition?

Fog

What is the dew point temperature?

27° C

What type of high clouds are indicated?

What type of medium clouds are indicated?

AS/NS

What is the total cloud amount?

8/8

What type of low clouds are indicated?

Fracto Stratus

What is the amount of low clouds?

3/8

What is the height of the base of low clouds?

100 -199 m

What is the sea level pressure?

QFF 999.8 hPa

What is the pressure change in 24 hours?

1.5 hPa

What is the past weather in symbols?

Fog

What is the rainfall since 03 UTC?

Trace

What do the symbols W,W represent in past weather?

W, for higher weather code and w, for lower weather code

What does the code 'h' represent?

Cloud Base

What does the code 'RRR' represent?

Amount

What does the code 'VV' represent?

Visibility

What is the meaning of '0-49' in cloud base?

No Cloud below 2500

What does '1' represent in cloud base?

Trace

What does '2' represent in cloud base?

1 - 1.5

What does '3' represent in cloud base?

1.6 - 2.4

What does '4' represent in cloud base?

2.5 - 3.5

What does '5' represent in cloud base?

3.6 - 4.4

What does '6' represent in cloud base?

4.5 - 5.5

What does '7' represent in cloud base?

5.6 - 6.4

What does '8' represent in cloud base?

6.5 - 7.5

What does '9' represent in cloud base?

7.6-8.4

What is the visibility for '< 50 m'?

VERY THICK FOG

What is the visibility for '50 to <200 m'?

THICK FOG

What is the visibility for '200 to < 500 m'?

MOD FOG

What is the visibility for '500 to < 1000 m'?

FOG

What is the visibility for '1000 to < 2000 m'?

THICK MIST

What is the visibility for '2000 to < 4000 m'?

SLIGHT MIST

What is the visibility for '4000 to <10000 m'?

Extrapolate further values

What is the visibility for '10000 to < 20000 m'?

Extrapolate further values

What is the visibility for '20000 to < 50000 m'?

Extrapolate further values

What is the visibility for '50000 or more m'?

Extrapolate further values

Present Weather

Clouds decreasing

Clouds unchanged

Clouds increasing

Smoke haze

Moist haze

Dust haze

Dust raising winds

Dust devil

Distant sandstorm

Mist

Shallow fog in patches

Shallow fog

Lightning

Rain not reaching ground

Rain at a great distance

Rain close to station

Thunderstorm without rain

Squall

Funnel cloud

Drizzle

Rain

Snow

Rain and snow

Freezing drizzle

Shower of rain

Shower of snow

Shower of hail

Fog

Slight duststorm decreasing

Slight duststorm no change

Slight duststorm increasing

Severe duststorm decreasing

Severe duststorm no change

Severe duststorm increasing

Slight drifting snow low level

Heavy drifting snow low level

Slight blowing snow high level

Heavy blowing snow high level

Distant fog

Fog in patches

Fog, sky visible-thinning

Fog, sky invisible-thinning

Fog, sky visible no change

Fog, sky invisible no change

Fog, sky visible-thickening

Fog, invisible-thickening

Fog, sky depositing rime, sky visible

Fog, depositing rime, sky invisible

Slight intermittent drizzle

Slight continuous drizzle

Moderate intermittent drizzle

Moderate continuous drizzle

Heavy intermittent drizzle

Heavy continuous drizzle

Q1. The direction of surface wind is (a) NW (b) NE (c) SE

(a) NW

Q2. The range of wind speed is (a) 20-25 kt (b) 16-22 kt (c) 18-22 kt

(b) 16-22 kt

Q3. The type of medium cloud is (a) AC (b) AS (c) AC & AS

Q16. Speed of Ship is (a) 5 KMH (b) 5 MPS (c) 5 KT

Q17. Direction of movement of Ship (a) NW (b) SW (c) NE

Q18. Speed of Ship reported is averaged for (a) 3 hr (b) 6 hr (c) 12 hr

(b) 6 hr

Q20. Weather reported is (a) Rain at the time of observation (b) Rain during last one hour (c) Rain not at station but within 5 km

(b) Rain during last one hour

Q1. The METAR has been issued on ........ day (a) 15th (b) 16th (c) 17th

(b) 16th

Q2. The METAR has been issued at (a) 0630 IST (b) 0230 UTC (c) 0230 IST

(b) 0230 UTC

Q3. The surface wind speed is (a) 24 kt (b) 3-7 kt (c) 4-6 kt

(b) 3-7 kt

Q4. Wind direction is varying from (a) 230 to 050° (b) 050 to 290° (c) 050 to 290°

(b) 050 to 290°

Q5. Visibility 1500 m is towards (a) S (b) SE (c) All over the airport

(b) SE

Q6. Height of base of low clouds above station level is (a) 200 ft (b) 2500 ft (c) 2500 m

(b) 2500 ft

Q7. Runway Visual range has (a) Decreased (b) Increased (c) Remained same

(b) Increased

Q8. Pressure is rounded down to the nearest whole number in hectopascal (a) exact value (b) upper value (c) lower value

Q9. CAVOK is issued when visibility is (a) >10 km or more (b) 10 km only (c) 15 km

(a) >10 km or more

Q10. SPECI is issued for vertical visibility, by stations having Ceilograph, when sky is obscured (a) True (b) False

(a) True

Q11. R26/M0150 in a METAR indicates that (a) maximum RVR is 150 m (b) minimum RVR is 150 m (c) 150 m is the lowest RVR instrument can measure and RVR is < 150 m

Q12. Pressure is rounded down to the nearest whole number in hectopascal (a) exact value (b) upper value (c) lower value

Q13. QNH 1024.6 hPa is reported as (a) Q1024 (b) Q1030 (c) Q1024.6

(a) Q1024

Q14. QNH 2992 inches is reported as (a) A2992 (b) A3000 (c) A2952

(a) A2992

Q15. Fog is reported when visibility is (a) < 1000 m (b) > 1000 m (c) = 1000 m

(a) < 1000 m

Q16. Mist is reported when visibility is (a) < 1000 m to 2000 m (b) 1000 to 5000 m (c) > 1000 m

(b) 1000 to 5000 m

Q17. CAVOK signifies Visibility, Cloud ....... and present weather better than the prescribed values or conditions (a) ceiling (b) base (c) amount

(a) ceiling

Q18. CAVOK is issued when visibility is (a) 10 km or more (b) 10 km only (c) 15 km

(a) 10 km or more

Q19. SPECI is issued for visibility, cloud, and present weather when any of the prescribed values are observed (a) Any one condition (b) Any two conditions (c) All three conditions

(a) Any one condition

Q20. SPECI is issued when clouds are BKN or OVC below 500 ft, TCU, or CB (a) True (b) False

(a) True

Q21. SPEC issued when surface temperature increases by (a) 2°C (b) 3°C (c) 4°C

(b) 3°C

Q22. Wind shear is reported in a METAR for RWY28 when (a) takeoff path (b) approach path (c) both takeoff and approach paths

Q23. Height of base of CB cloud is (a) 1000 ft (b) 2500 ft (c) 3000 ft

(b) 2500 ft

Q24. Lowest layer of cloud cover reported is BKN, OVC, or SCT (a) SCT (b) BKN or OVC (c) OVC

(b) BKN or OVC

Q25. The METAR has been issued on ........ day (a) 15th (b) 16th (c) 17th

(b) 16th

Q26. The METAR has been issued at (a) 0630 IST (b) 0230 UTC (c) 0230 IST

(b) 0230 UTC

Q27. Wind direction is varying from (a) 230 to 050° (b) 050 to 290° (c) 050 to 290°

(b) 050 to 290°

Q28. Visibility 1500 m is towards (a) S (b) SE (c) All over the airport

(b) SE

Q29. Surface wind speed is (a) 24 kt (b) 3-7 kt (c) 4-6 kt

(b) 3-7 kt

Q30. Runway Visual range has (a) Decreased (b) Increased (c) Remained same

(b) Increased

Q31. Expected visibility after 0415 UTC is (a) 6000 m (b) 10 km (c) 10 km

(b) 10 km

Q32. The wind in TREND from 0330 UTC is valid up to ........ UTC (a) 0400 (b) 0430 (c) 0415

Q33. The group Q1010 in METAR indicates (a) QFE (b) QFF (c) QNH

Q34. Temperature is reported as 32°C as (a) 31.4 to 32.0°C (b) 31.5 to 32.4°C (c) 31.2 to 32.1°C

(b) 31.5 to 32.4°C

Q35. QNH 2992 inches is reported as (a) A2992 (b) A3000 (c) A2952

(a) A2992

Q36. Fog is reported when visibility is (a) < 1000 m (b) > 1000 m (c) = 1000 m

(a) < 1000 m

Q37. Mist is reported when visibility is (a) < 1000 m to 2000 m (b) 1000 to 5000 m (c) > 1000 m

(b) 1000 to 5000 m

Q38. CAVOK is issued when visibility is (a) >10 km or more (b) 10 km only (c) 15 km

(a) >10 km or more

Q39. SPECI is issued for vertical visibility, by stations having Ceilograph, when sky is obscured (a) True (b) False

(a) True

Q40. SPECI is issued when surface temperature has increased by ........ or more from the last observation (a) 3°C (b) 4°C (c) 2°C

(a) 3°C

Q41. WSRWY28 indicates that the wind shear has been reported for RW 28 in (a) takeoff path (b) approach path (c) both takeoff and approach paths

Q42. R26/M0150 in a METAR indicates that (a) maximum RVR is 150 m (b) minimum RVR is 150 m (c) 150 m is the lowest RVR instrument can measure and RVR is < 150 m

Q1. The TAF has been issued on .......... day (a) 23rd (b) 18th (c) 24th

Q2. The TAF has been issued at (a) 2330 IST (b) 1830 UTC (c) 24 UTC

(a) 2330 IST

Q3. The expected surface wind speed is (a) 09 kt (b) 06 kt (c) 08 kt

Q4. Initially expected wind direction is (a) 120° (b) 090° (c) 050°

(b) 090°

Q5. TAF is valid for date (a) 23rd (b) 24th (c) 25th

(b) 24th

Q6. Lowest forecast visibility in TAF is (a) 1500 m (b) 0800 m (c) 0200 m

(b) 0800 m

Q7. Height of base of lowest clouds in TAF is (a) 1000 m (b) 1000 ft (c) 0800 ft

(b) 1000 ft

Q8. Weather TSRA is expected after (a) 0600 UTC (b) 0600 IST (c) 0800 UTC

Q9. Direction of gusty wind is (a) 090° (b) 100° (c) 120°

(b) 100°

Q10. Expected weather up to 25/2400 UTC is (a) Fog (b) TSRA (c) Mist

(b) TSRA

Q11. Amount of lowest cloud is (a) 1-2/8 (b) 3-4/8 (c) 5-7/8

Q12. Amount of CB cloud is (a) 1-2/8 (b) 2-4/8 (c) 5-7/8

(b) 2-4/8

Q13. Height of base of CB is (a) 2500 ft (b) 3000 m (c) 2500 m

(a) 2500 ft

Q14. The height of topmost layer of cloud is (a) 2800 m (b) 2800 ft (c) 28000 ft

Q15. Period of validity of TAF is (a) 23 to 00 IST (b) 20 to 09 UTC (c) 20 to 12 UTC

Q16. Group 1500/1509 in a TAF indicates (a) TAF is issued on 15th at 0000 UTC (b) TAF is valid from 1500 to 0900 UTC (c) TAF is valid from 1500 to 0900 UTC

(b) TAF is valid from 1500 to 0900 UTC

Q17. What is true of a TAF (a) 9 hr TAF is for international dissemination (b) TAF valid for 9 hr is issued every 6 hr (c) TAF valid for 12-30 hr is issued every 3 hr (d) TAF for national use are valid for 9 hr and issued every 3 hr

(d) TAF for national use are valid for 9 hr and issued every 3 hr

Q1. Time of issue of ROFOR is (a) 0610 UTC (b) 1000 IST (c) 0600 UTC

Q2. Period of validity of ROFOR is (a) 0000 to 0000 IST (b) 0600 to 0100 IST (c) 0600 to 1000 UTC

Q3. Wind speed in ROFOR is in (a) KT (b) MPS (c) KMH

(a) KT

Q4. Base of CB cloud is (a) 300 ft (b) 600 ft (c) 3000 ft

(b) 600 ft

Q5. Height of Freezing level? (a) 17,000 ft (b) 17,000 m (c) 1.7 km

(a) 17,000 ft

Q6. Icing group in the ROFOR is (a) 7/7/70 (b) 6/2/100 (c) 5/4/60

(a) 7/7/70

Q7. Type of Icing? (a) Light (b) Light icing (c) Light icing in cloud

Q8. Indicator figure for turbulence group in the ROFOR is (a) 2C210 (b) 18000 m (c) 1.5 km

(a) 2C210

Q9. Thickness of which Turbulence is expected? (a) 15,000 ft (b) 5,000 ft (c) Up to Cloud Top

Q10. Wind at 5000 ft expected is (a) 280/15 kt (b) 270/15 kt (c) 270/40 kt

(a) 280/15 kt

Q11. Temperature at 20,000 ft expected is (a) -05°C (b) 265 K (c) 233 K

(b) 265 K

Q12. Wind at 40,000 ft expected is (a) 270/15 kt (b) 270/140 kt (c) 280/02 kt

(b) 270/140 kt

Q13. Jet stream is expected at a height of (a) 40,000 ft (b) 36,000 ft (c) 38,000 ft

Q14. Jet stream core speed is expected to be (a) 125 kt (b) 120 kt (c) 140 kt

Q15. Vertical Wind Shear per 300 m expected is (a) 25 kt (b) 30 kt (c) 35 kt

(b) 30 kt

Q16. Jet stream is expected at Lat/Long (a) 27 N/70 E (b) 28 N/75 E (c) 28 N/70 E

Q17. Maximum Wind speed expected at height (a) 120 kt (b) 130 kt (c) 140 kt

Q18. Indicator group for Maximum Wind in ROFOR is (a) 22222 (b) 11111 (c) 111111

Q19. Indicator group for Jet stream in ROFOR is (a) 22222 (b) 11111 (c) 111111

(b) 11111

Q20. Date of issue of forecast is? (a) 01 (b) 01 (c) 02

(a) 01

Q21. Temperature at 40,000 ft expected is? (a) -45°C (b) -41°C (c) 233 K

(a) -45°C

Q22. Thickness of turbulence expected is? (a) 300 m (b) 5,000 ft (c) Up to Top of cloud

Q23. Type of Icing expected is? (a) Light icing (b) Light icing in cloud (c) Light icing in rain

(b) Light icing in cloud

Q24. Temperature at 20,000 ft expected is? (a) -05°C (b) 265 K (c) -03°C

(b) 265 K

Q25. Freezing level expected is? (a) 17,000 ft (b) 20,000 ft (c) 25,000 ft

(a) 17,000 ft

Q26. Base of CB Cloud is? (a) 300 ft (b) 600 ft (c) 3000 ft

(b) 600 ft

Q1. Who prepares National SIGWX Charts (a) AMOs (b) WAFC (c) MWOs

(b) WAFC

Q2. Flight Level of freezing Level is included in ............ SIGWX Charts (a) Medium level charts (b) High level charts

(b) High level charts

Q3. Fog, Precipitation and weather which reduce visibility below 5000 m is considered Significant weather for (a) All level flights (b) High level flights (c) Low level flights

(a) All level flights

Q4. Briefing and Consultation are generally provided to the aircrew ........ hours prior to the scheduled departure (a) 3 hr (b) 5 hr (c) 6 hr

(a) 3 hr

Q5. SIGMET information is provided to (a) Low level flights (b) All level flights (c) High level flights

(b) All level flights

Q6. For Low Level flights, and those under Visual Flight Rules, briefing is given up to (a) FL150 or above in mountains (b) FL110 above the sea (c) FL120 or over the plains

Q7. The height indications in the Flight Documentation in all en-route Met conditions: eg upper winds, turbulence, cloud base/top etc is (a) Above aerodrome elevation (b) Flight Levels (c) As requested by the Pilot

(b) Flight Levels

Q8. For National Flights the Documents provided are - (a) National SIGWX charts only (b) WAFC upper wind and temp. charts only (c) both WAFC upper wind and temp. charts and National SIGWX charts

Q9. For National Flights the winds and temperatures are provided for LL Flights for altitudes (a) 600, 1500 and 3000 m (b) 3000 ft, 5000 ft, 10,000 ft (c) 600, 1000 and 5000 m

(a) 600, 1500 and 3000 m

Q10. For National Flights the height indications in the Flight Documentation are (a) 600, 1500 and 3000 m (b) 3000 ft, 5000 ft and 10,000 ft (c) 600, 1000 and 5000 m

(a) 600, 1500 and 3000 m

Q1. Translucent rime ice forms due to (a) Melting of large snow particles (b) Freezing of large supercooled water drops (c) Freezing of small supercooled water drops (d) Sublimation of large hail

Q2. Advection fog occurs due to ........ air moving over ........... surface over ......... (a) Dry, wet, land only (b) Moist and cold, warm land (c) Warm & moist air, cold land & sea

Q3. ELR 6.5° C and SALR 7°C on lifting a saturated parcel of air the atmosphere would be (a) Stable (b) Absolutely stable (c) Indifferent

Q4. Gradient wind is weaker than geostrophic wind around a low because (a) Centripetal force is provided by pressure gradient force (b) Centripetal force is added to the pressure gradient force (c) Coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient force (d) Coriolis force is opposite to Centripetal

(b) Centripetal force is added to the pressure gradient force

Q5. The altimeter of an aircraft is set to QFE before landing, on landing it will indicate (a) Height of A/C above runway (b) Flight Level (c) A/C altitude AMSL (d) Height of A/C above ARP in ISA

(a) Height of A/C above runway

Q6. TAF generally has a validity of ......... hr and TREND ......... hr (a) 9 hr; 2 hr (b) 24 hr; 3 hr (c) 12 hr; 2 hr (d) 24 hr; 9 hr

(b) 24 hr; 3 hr

Q7. CAT is most pronounced on which side of a subtropical jet stream (a) About 3 km above the core (b) Cold side of core (c) South side of core (d) At core

(b) Cold side of core

Q8. Hail forms by collision with super-cooled water drops (a) Condensation (b) Deposition (c) Evaporation (d) Transpiration

(b) Deposition

Q9. Thermal wind blows parallel to ........ keeping ........ to the left (a) Isobars, low temperature (b) Isotherms, low temperature (c) Isobars, high temperature (d) Isotherms, high temperature

(b) Isotherms, low temperature

Q10. Roaring Forties are ....... winds flow throughout the year in the ........ hemisphere (a) W, N hemisphere (b) E, S hemisphere (c) W, S hemisphere (d) E, N hemisphere

Q11. Temperature in the troposphere decreases from equator to poles. The thermal wind throughout the tropopause is ....... (a) Changes very small (b) First increases and then decreases (c) Decreases continually

Q12. Flying conditions associated with ICA during the monsoon are (a) Continuous rain, visibility, turbulence (b) High visibility, turbulence, scattered showers (c) Rain, poor visibility, turbulence (d) All of the above

(d) All of the above

Q13. The observed temperature is -40 deg C at FL 300 (10 km high), it is termed as (a) 10 deg C warmer than ISA (b) 10 deg C cooler than ISA (c) 15 deg C cooler than ISA (d) 15 deg C warmer than ISA

(b) 10 deg C cooler than ISA

Q14. Appallingly may occur in (a) GR (b) -RA (c) -TS (d) Thick Fog

Q15. CAT is most likely to be encountered in (a) High close to a Dust Storm (b) After the damage of severe Sandstorm (c) A sharp trough of winds of jet stream speed (d) A ridge aloft

Q16. What are Norwesters (a) Warm dry winds coming from NW (b) Severe Duststorm from NW (c) TS affecting NW India in pre-monsoon

Q17. Example of most found stability is (a) Temperature inversion (b) Occlusion

(a) Temperature inversion

Q18. Diurnal variation of temperature is least (a) During land breeze over the coastal area (b) When sky is overcast (c) When winds are calm over the land surface

(b) When sky is overcast

Q19. Density altitude is (a) Higher if atmosphere is warmer than ISA (b) Lower if atmosphere is warmer than ISA (c) Higher if atmosphere is colder than ISA

(a) Higher if atmosphere is warmer than ISA

Q20. The temperature to which air should be cooled to saturate it is ....... temperature (a) Wet bulb (b) Dew point (c) Ambient

(b) Dew point

Q21. Severe icing is encountered when the temperature is in the range ....... (a) 0° to -10° C (b) -10° to -40° C (c) -40° C to -60° C

(b) -10° to -40° C

Q22. Wind 3000KT is reported in a METAR as (a) 30009KT (b) 30000KT (c) 300KT

(b) 30000KT

Q23. CAT is most pronounced (a) At core (b) South side of core (c) Cold side of core

Q24. The gradient wind is balanced between ....... (a) Pressure gradient force and Coriolis (b) Frictional force and pressure gradient force

(a) Pressure gradient force and Coriolis

Q25. Flying through frontal zone leads to ....... (a) Visibility and turbulence (b) Thunderstorm development

(b) Thunderstorm development

Q26. Severe TS occurs when (a) CB merges (b) Frontal lifting causes instability

(a) CB merges

Q27. METAR report of 28010G25KT indicates ....... (a) Gusts of 10 KT at 280° (b) Gusts of 25 KT at 280°

(b) Gusts of 25 KT at 280°

Q28. TS squall lines occur ....... (a) Near cold fronts (b) Around warm fronts

(a) Near cold fronts

Q29. Dew point depression is reported when ....... (a) Dew point is more than temperature (b) Dew point is less than temperature

(b) Dew point is less than temperature

Q30. Severe weather radar reports ....... (a) Base echoes (b) Significant precipitation

(b) Significant precipitation

Q31. Icing intensity is reported as severe when ....... (a) Wing icing is thick and continuous (b) Wing icing reduces lift to critical levels

(b) Wing icing reduces lift to critical levels

Q32. Steady TS indicate ....... (a) Vertical wind shear is weak (b) Downdrafts are persistent

(b) Downdrafts are persistent

Q33. Visibility reduction is reported when ....... (a) Dust and sand particles persist (b) When severe dust storms occur

(b) When severe dust storms occur

Q34. Warm fronts occur ....... (a) When warm air overrides cold air (b) When warm air stays stationary

(a) When warm air overrides cold air

Q35. TS formation is enhanced by ....... (a) Low-level convergence (b) High-level divergence

(b) High-level divergence

Q36. Maximum precipitation occurs during ....... (a) Warm sector lifting (b) Cold sector instability

(a) Warm sector lifting

Q37. TS squalls occur when ....... (a) TS aligns in rows (b) TS aligns along frontal zones

(b) TS aligns along frontal zones

Q38. TS over land are maximum during ....... (a) Daytime heating (b) Nighttime cooling

(a) Daytime heating

Q39. Severe CAT occurs when ....... (a) Wind speed differences exceed 40 KT (b) CAT follows jet stream core

(a) Wind speed differences exceed 40 KT

Q40. Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) is strongest ....... (a) At tropopause (b) Below tropopause

(a) At tropopause

Q41. Which is not true of post monsoon (a) Pressure gradient is weakest of all seasons (b) Frequency of tropical cyclones is max. (c) Monsoon withdraws from the country (d) Worst period for flying expect S India

(b) Frequency of tropical cyclones is max.

Q42. The months during which Tamil Nadu gets most of its rainfall are (a) Oct-Nov (b) Jul-Sep (c) Apr-Jun (d) Dec-Mar

(a) Oct-Nov

Q43. ITCZ affects weather over India during (a) Winter only (b) Pre-monsoon only (c) All the four seasons

Q44. ENSO is the name given to (a) El-Nino only (b) Southern oscillations and La-Nino (c) El-Nino and La-Nino combined

Q45. Friction causes wind to get deflected ........ (a) Parallel to isobars (b) Towards low (c) Perpendicular to isobars

(b) Towards low

Q46. Station level pressure at ARP is reduced to MSL as per ........ (a) ISA + OFF (b) ISA + ONI (c) ISA + QFE

(a) ISA + OFF

Q47. A/C moving from west to east and is drifting northwards. Its altimeter will ........ (a) Under-read (b) Over-read (c) Remain unchanged

(b) Over-read

Q48. Wind Shear in a TS is maximum ........ (a) Below the anvil (b) All sides of a CB

(b) All sides of a CB

Q49. Differences between Airmass TS (AM TS) and Steady State TS (SS TS) are ........ (a) SS TS duration is more (b) AM TS occur in fronts

(a) SS TS duration is more

Q50. In a line of TS there is a hole in the Radar echo, what would you infer? (a) No precipitation (b) Strong convective activity

(b) Strong convective activity

Q1. The main cause of occurrence of weather over the earth surface is ........ (a) Changing pressure (b) Movement of air mass

(b) Movement of air mass

Q2. Thermal lows are generally located over ........ (a) Polar region (b) Equatorial region

(b) Equatorial region

Q3. The main cause of ground inversion is ........ (a) Release of latent heat (b) Terrestrial radiation on calm and clear night

(b) Terrestrial radiation on calm and clear night

Q4. Above the friction layer winds mostly blow parallel to isobars due to balance of ........ (a) Coriolis force and Centripetal force (b) Coriolis force and Pressure gradient force

(b) Coriolis force and Pressure gradient force

Q5. Wind at 1 km height is 320°/20 kt whereas at the surface wind is 260°/08 kt because of ........ (a) Subsidence (b) Friction

(b) Friction

Q6. The amount of water vapour which air can hold depends on ........ (a) Dew point temperature (b) Wet bulb temperature

(a) Dew point temperature

Q7. In general circulation over the globe the Equatorial Low Pressure Belt is at the junction of which cell? (a) Ferrel and Hadley Cells (b) Ferrel Cells

(a) Ferrel and Hadley Cells

Q8. The dew point temperature ........ (a) Is higher if air contains more water vapour (b) Is always higher than Wet Bulb temperature for unsaturated air

(a) Is higher if air contains more water vapour

Q9. What controls the movement of most TS? (a) Jet streams (b) Wind at 40,000 ft

(a) Jet streams

Q10. Isobars are the line of equal ........ (a) Humidity (b) Pressure

(b) Pressure

Q11. How much in advance of departure a pilot must notify the Aeronautical Met Station (AMS) requiring Met forecast for a National flight? (a) 3 hr (b) 6 hr

(b) 6 hr

Q12. An a/c cruising at FL500 in July from Chennai to Trivandrum will generally experience ........ (a) Weak SW wind (b) Subtropical Wly wind

(b) Subtropical Wly wind

Q13. The sun is highest at noon, but two/three hours later the earth receives more radiation. Hence maximum temperature is around 1500 hr. It is due to ........ (a) Angular Momentum (b) Thermal lag

(b) Thermal lag

Q14. Which of the following Indian month corresponds to Grishma Ritu? (a) Jyestha and Asadha (b) Shravana

(a) Jyestha and Asadha

Q15. Due to Coriolis force an Ely wind blowing over the equator will ........ (a) Get deflected to the left (b) Become Wly

(b) Become Wly

Q16. The surface wind at coastal stations on West coast of India during late night/early morning in pre-monsoon season is ........ (a) Ely (b) Wly

(b) Wly

Q17. Convective clouds develop at a place when the atmosphere is ........ (a) Absolutely unstable (b) Conditionally stable

(a) Absolutely unstable

Q18. R in a SPEC report 1005.5 hPa is reported as ........ (a) 1005 hPa (b) 1005.6 hPa

(a) 1005 hPa

Q19. Stability of atmosphere is determined by ........ (a) ELR (b) DALR

(a) ELR

Q20. The characteristic features, good visibility and turbulence, are of ........ (a) Warm air mass (b) Cold air mass

(b) Cold air mass

Q21. Extreme turbulence in a TS can be assessed from ........ (a) Heavy hail or accretion (b) Appearance of Anvil

(a) Heavy hail or accretion

Q22. Jet streams are strongest when temperature gradient are greatest ........ (a) At poles (b) In tropopause

(b) In tropopause

Q23. While planning a land during TS, which is the most expected serious aviation hazard ........ (a) WS and Turbulence (b) Heavy rain

(a) WS and Turbulence

Q24. In an arid area the cloud which is capable of causing Dust Storm is (a) CB (b) CL (c) CU (d) NS

(a) CB

Q25. If after the issue of a SPECI, conditions continue to be below the prescribed limit then the next routine report will be a (a) METAR (b) SPECIAL (c) could be METAR or SPECI

Q26. Frosts are characteristics of (a) Typical cyclones (b) Monsoon depression (c) Extra Tropical Depressions

Q27. In India is VOLMET broadcast (a) SIGMET is included (b) METAR, SPECI/SIGMET and TAF are included (c) Only SIGMET is included

(b) METAR, SPECI/SIGMET and TAF are included

Q28. A SPEC! the lowest layer of clouds, regardless of amount, is reported as (a) SCT, BKN or OVC (b) FEW, SCT, BKN or OVC (c) SCT, BKN or OVC

(b) FEW, SCT, BKN or OVC

Q29. The atmospheric pressure at an aerodrome is quoted to the MSL pressure using (a) ONH = QFE (b) ONH = QNE (c) None of the above

(a) ONH = QFE

Q30. An a/c at FL180 in July from Kolkata to Mumbai will generally experience (a) Wly wind (b) Ely wind (c) Nly wind

(a) Wly wind

Q31. Isopleths are the line of constant (a) Geopotential heights (b) Density (c) Wind speed

(a) Geopotential heights

Q32. The minimum notice required to be given to an Aerodrome Met Office (AMO) by an aircraft operator needing Met data for a National flight is (a) 6 hr (b) 12 hr (c) 18 to 24 hr

(b) 12 hr

Q33. METAR VABB 130200Z 27005KT 1200 +SHRA FEW005 SCT030 BKN050 22/05 Q1004 TEMPO 0800 0500 +TSRA FEW002 0VC040 - In the METAR surface visibility in TS is (a) 800 m (b) 1000 m (c) 1200 m

(a) 800 m

Q34. The upper air report from an a/c other than weather reconnaissance a/c has the identification code as (a) WINTER (b) VOLMET (c) RAWIN (d) CODAR

(d) CODAR

Q35. TAF AMD covers validity period (a) The remaining valid period of original TAF (b) Half validity period of TAF (c) Both the remaining period and the period of original TAF

(a) The remaining valid period of original TAF

Q36. RVR is a measure of (a) Atmospheric transmissivity and background illumination (b) Atmospheric transparency, intensity of RW lights and background illumination

(b) Atmospheric transparency, intensity of RW lights and background illumination

Q37. SPEC! is issued when the visibility changes from (a) 1500 m to 800 m (b) 3000 m to 1500 m (c) 800 m to 300 m

(b) 3000 m to 1500 m

Q38. During SW monsoon the pressure gradient in the East coast of Tamil Nadu is from (a) West to East across the coast (b) East to West along the coast

(b) East to West along the coast

Q39. During SW monsoon the wind at FL400 over Bay of Bengal generally (a) Ely wind (b) SW wind (c) Fluctuates between Ely and Wly wind

(b) SW wind

Q40. The rate of temperature in a low level inversion is (a) +6° C/km (b) -6° C/km (c) negative

Q41. The most hazardous area for aviation in a cyclone is (a) Wall cloud around the eye (b) Eye of the cyclone (c) All over the cyclone

(a) Wall cloud around the eye

Q42. SPEC! is issued for RVR when it changes or passes (a) 150 m (b) 200 m (c) 400 m

(b) 200 m

Q43. Jet streams are strongest when temperature gradients are greatest (a) In tropopause (b) At poles (c) At high altitudes

(a) In tropopause

Q44. The Polar Front is (a) The transition Zone Between Arctic & Polar Air Masses (b) The area between Subtropical & Arctic Winds

(a) The transition Zone Between Arctic & Polar Air Masses

Q45. Most of the weather occurring in India is due to (a) TS (b) Cyclones (c) Monsoon Trough

Q46. SIGMET message contains weather information which is (a) Forecast only (b) Actual and Forecast

(b) Actual and Forecast

Q47. TAF AMD covers validity period (a) The remaining validity period of original TAF (b) Half validity period of the TAF

(a) The remaining validity period of original TAF

Q48. The hailstones occur from (a) Both warm and cold clouds (b) Cold clouds only (c) NS clouds only

(b) Cold clouds only

Q49. SPEC! is issued when the height of base of the lowest cloud layer ≥ 25 ft changes to or passes (a) 450 m, 350 m, 150 m, 50 m (b) 450 m, 300 m, 200 m, 100 m

(b) 450 m, 300 m, 200 m, 100 m

Q50. Fog is produced in Fronts by (a) Precipitation and precipitation (b) Freezing Rain

(b) Freezing Rain

Q51. Over the earth deserts are located in the regions of (a) Equatorial through (b) Subtropical high

(b) Subtropical high

Q52. The air can hold more moisture at MSL over the (a) Temperature indicates (b) Equator

(b) Equator

Q53. With altitude in an isothermal atmosphere the density of the air (a) Does not change and then decreases (b) Increases with height and decreases

(b) Increases with height and decreases

Q54. The fronts associated with WD over NW India in winters are mostly (a) Warm Fronts (b) Cold Fronts (c) Occluded Fronts

(b) Cold Fronts

Q55. Sea is called Rainy Day when the amount of Rainfall in a day is (a) 2.5 mm or more (b) 7.5 mm or more

(b) 7.5 mm or more

Q56. As in METAR the middle layer of clouds is reported when amount is (a) SCT, BKN (b) SCT, OVC

(b) SCT, OVC

Q57. SPEC! is issued for RVR when it changes or passes (a) 150 m (b) 200 m

(b) 200 m

Q58. Above which often the cloud base is reported at airports? (a) Above pressure level in ISA (b) Above the aerodrome level

(b) Above the aerodrome level

Q59. The Polar Front is (a) A continuous Zone between Arctic and Polar Winds (b) A Boundary between Tropical Winds and Arctic Winds

(a) A continuous Zone between Arctic and Polar Winds

Q60. Most of the weather occurring in India is due to (a) Fronts (b) Monsoon Trough

(b) Monsoon Trough

Q61. The Doppler Weather Radar works on the Principle of (a) Comparison of drop sizes (b) Change in frequency of return echo

(b) Change in frequency of return echo

Q62. Jet streams are strongest when temperature gradient is (a) At poles (b) Greatest at the tropopause

(b) Greatest at the tropopause

Q63. SIGMET is issued for TS with which occurrence is reported (a) Actual and expected winds

(a) Actual and expected winds

Q64. Verifying of geostrophic wind at a station with high jet indicates (a) Cyclones with low advection (b) Cold air mass

(b) Cold air mass

Q65. Jetstream wind speed is (a) Violent Wly wind (b) Light Maritime Wly wind

(a) Violent Wly wind

Q66. Will a SPEC! be issued when the mean speed has changed by (a) <09 KT (b) 10 KT or more

(b) 10 KT or more

Q67. Highest annual rainfall over the earth occurs the regions (a) Tropical regions (b) Equatorial regions

(b) Equatorial regions

Q68. The most hazardous area for aviation in a cyclone is (a) Wall cloud around the eye (b) All over the cyclone

(a) Wall cloud around the eye

Q69. The ITCZ is (a) Usually lies along the Equatorial Trough (b) Affects only N Hemisphere in Winters

(a) Usually lies along the Equatorial Trough

Q70. The strong Wly winds which blow in both the hemispheres between 35° and 60° Lat are called (a) Roaring Forties (b) Trades

(a) Roaring Forties

Q71. Cold core low pressure system (a) Intensifies with height (b) Weakens with height

(b) Weakens with height

Q72. Extreme turbulence in a TS can be assessed from (a) Frequent lightning (b) Appearance of anvil

(b) Appearance of anvil

Q73. While planning a land during TS, which is the most expected serious aviation hazard (a) WS and Turbulence (b) Heavy rain

(a) WS and Turbulence

Q74. Jet streams are strongest when temperature gradients are greatest (a) At poles (b) In tropopause

(b) In tropopause

Q75. Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) is strongest (a) At tropopause (b) Below tropopause

(a) At tropopause

Q24. In an arid area the cloud which is capable of causing Dust Storm is (a) CB (b) CL (c) CU (d) NS

(a) CB

Q25. If after the issue of a SPECI, conditions continue to be below the prescribed limit then the next routine report will be (a) METAR (b) SPECIAL (c) could be METAR or SPECI

Q26. Fronts are characteristics of (a) Tropical cyclones (b) Monsoon depression (c) TS (d) Extra Tropical Depressions

(d) Extra Tropical Depressions

Q27. In India in a VOLMET broadcast (a) SIGMET is excluded (b) METAR, SPECI/SIGMET and TAF are included (c) only SPECI is included (d) only TAF are included

(b) METAR, SPECI/SIGMET and TAF are included

Q28. In a SPECI the lowest layer of clouds, regardless of amount, is reported as (a) FEW, SCT, BKN or OVC (b) SCT, BKN or OVC (c) FEW, SCT, BKN (d) SCT, BKN, OVC

(a) FEW, SCT, BKN or OVC

Q29. The atmospheric pressure at an aerodrome is equal to the MSL pressure then (a) QNH=QFE (b) QNH≠QFE (c) QNH=QNE (d) None of the above

(a) QNH=QFE

Q30. An a/c at FL180 in July from Kolkata to Mumbai will generally experience (a) Wly wind (b) Ely wind (c) Nly wind (d) Sly wind

(a) Wly wind

Q31. Isopleths are the line of constant (a) Height (b) Insulation (c) Geopotential heights (d) Density

Q32. The minimum notice required to be given to an Aerodrome Met Office (AMO) by an aircraft operator needing Met data for a National flight is (a) 3 hr (b) 6 hr (c) 12 hr (d) 18 to 24 hr

Q33. METAR VABB 130200Z 27005KT 1200 +SHRA FEW005 SCT030 BKN050 22/05 Q1004 TEMPO 0800 0500 +TSRA FEW002 OVC040 - In the METAR surface visibility in TS is (a) 800 m (b) 1000 m (c) 4050 m (d) 1200 m

(a) 800 m

Q34. The upper air report from an a/c other than weather reconnaissance a/c has the identification code as (a) WINTER (b) VOLMET (c) RAWIN (d) CODAR

(d) CODAR

Q35. TAF AMD covers validity period (a) the remaining validity period of original TAF (b) the validity starting 2 hr prior to the end period of original TAF (c) the half validity period of TAF (d) full validity period of the TAF

(a) the remaining validity period of original TAF

Q36. RVR is a measure of (a) Atmospheric transmissivity and background illumination (b) Atmospheric transparency, intensity of RW lights and background illumination (c) Intensity of background illumination (d) Atmospheric transmissivity, intensity of RW lights

(b) Atmospheric transparency, intensity of RW lights and background illumination

Q37. SPEC! is issued when the visibility changes from (a) 3000 m to 1500 m (b) 800 m to 300 m (c) 300 m to 150 m (d) 8 km to 6 km

(a) 3000 m to 1500 m

Q38. During pre-monsoon the pressure gradient in the S parts of East coast of India is from (a) N to S along the coast (b) S to N along the coast (c) E to W across the coast (d) W to E across the coast

(b) S to N along the coast

Q39. During SW monsoon the wind at FL400 over Bangalore is generally (a) Strong Ely (b) Strong Wly (c) Weak Sly (d) Fluctuates between Ely and Wly

(b) Strong Wly

Q40. The lapse rate of temperature in a low level inversion is (a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Insignificant (d) 6.5° C/km

(b) Negative

Q41. Which of the following Indian month corresponds to Rainy Season/Varsha Ritu (a) Kwar (b) Kartika (c) Magha (d) Shravana Bhadrapad

(a) Kwar

Q42. The Code Name for an aviation forecast in figure code for a specific area is (a) ROFOR (b) ARFOR (c) TAFOR (d) GAMET

Q43. SIGMET message is (a) Occurring or expected, enroute weather, which may affect safety of the air operation (b) Aerodrome forecast in plain language (c) Special Reports to local ATC unit and concerned operators (d) Trend type of landing forecast passed to operators

(a) Occurring or expected, enroute weather, which may affect safety of the air operation

Q44. Which of the following Indian month corresponds to Winter/Shishira Ritu (a) Kwar (b) Pausha (c) Magha and Phalguna (d) Shravana

Q45. The variable surface wind speed refers to (a) < 03 KT (b) < 04 KT (c) ≥ 02 KT (d) Calm

Q46. Which of the following Indian month corresponds to Sharad Ritu (Post monsoon) (a) Kwar (b) Asuji and Kartika (c) Phalguna (d) Shravana

(b) Asuji and Kartika

Q47. TAF VECC 220300Z 2400KT 300 FU SCT030 BECMG 0406 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 0708 2000 TSRA SCT020 OVC040 - The above TAF forecasts TS and RA between (a) 0400 and 0600 UTC (b) 0400 and 0600 IST (c) 0700 and 0800 IST (d) 0700 and 0800 UTC

Q48. The hailstones occur from (a) Both warm and cold clouds (b) Cold clouds only (c) Warm clouds only (d) NS clouds only

(b) Cold clouds only

Q49. SPECI is issued when the height of base of the lowest cloud layer ≥ 5/8 changes to or passes (a) 500m, 300m, 150m, 50m, 25m (b) 450m, 350m, 150m, 50m, 30m (c) 400m, 300m, 150m, 50m, 30m (d) 450m, 300m, 150m, 50m, 30m

(d) 450m, 300m, 150m, 50m, 30m

Q50. Fog is produced in Fronts by (a) Evaporation and precipitation (b) Frequent rain (c) Adiabatic cooling (d) Freezing rain

(a) Evaporation and precipitation

Q51. Over the earth deserts are located in the regions of (a) Equatorial trough (b) Subtropical high (c) Polar Front (d) ITCZ

(b) Subtropical high

Q52. The air can hold more moisture at MSL over the (a) Temperate latitudes (b) 20° Latitude (c) Equator (d) Poles

Q53. With altitude in an isothermal atmosphere the density of the air (a) Does not change (b) Increases with height (c) First decrease and then decrease (d) Decreases with height

(d) Decreases with height

Q54. The Fronts associated with WDs over NW India in winters are mostly (a) Warm occlusion (b) Cold occlusion (c) Warm fronts (d) Cold fronts

(d) Cold fronts

Q55. In a Cold Occlusion (a) Cold air of the Cold Front is not the coldest (b) Cold air of Cold Front is the coldest (c) Cold air of Warm Front is not the coldest (d) Cold air of Warm Front is warmer than that of Cold Front

(b) Cold air of Cold Front is the coldest

Q56. A day is called Rainy Day when the amount of Rainfall in a day is (a) 7.5 mm or more (b) 10 mm or more (c) 2.5 mm or more (d) At least 10 mm

Q57. A cold front is defined as the (a) Advancing cold airmass undercutting the warm airmass (b) Warm airmass overriding the cold airmass (c) Retreating cold pool of air (d) Leading cold gust front

(a) Advancing cold airmass undercutting the warm airmass

Q58. In a METAR the third layer of clouds is reported when amount is (a) 3/8 or more SCT, BKN or OVC (b) 5/8 or less SCT, BKN (c) 5/8 or more BKN or OVC (d) 3/8 or more FEW, SCT

Q59. SPECI is issued for RVR when it changes or passes (a) 150m (b) 200m (c) 400m (d) 900m

Q60. Above which datum the cloud base is reported at airports? (a) Above the aerodrome level (b) Above the standard pressure level (c) Above mean sea level (d) Above pressure level in ISA

(a) Above the aerodrome level

Q61. For International Flight documentation, the following data is provided (a) SIGWX charts between FL 250 and FL 600 (b) SIGWX charts between FL 250 and FL 630 and forecast 250 hPa wind and Temp. data (c) WMO generated SIGWX forecast chart only (d) SIGWX charts and upper wind and temperature charts

(b) SIGWX charts between FL 250 and FL 630 and forecast 250 hPa wind and Temp. data

Q62. When visibility is 800 m to 5000 m, in a METAR it is reported in steps of (a) 100m (b) 200m (c) 500m (d) 1000m

Q63. The Polar Front is (a) Continuous (b) Not continuous (c) A transition Zone between Polar and Arctic Westerlies (d) Boundary between Arctic and Polar Air masses

(a) Continuous

Q64. Most of the weather occurring in India is due to (a) Fronts (b) Cyclones (c) TS (d) Monsoon Trough

(d) Monsoon Trough

Q65. The Doppler Weather Radar works on the Principles of (a) Frequency amplification (b) Comparison of drops (c) Change in frequency of return echo (d) Wavelength modification

Q66. Flight forecast in “Chart form of Documentation” supplied in India consists of (a) Synoptic charts 03 and 12 UTC and U/A charts for 00 and 12 UTC (b) Latest surface synoptic chart and upper air charts (c) SIGWX chart and upper air charts for 850, 500 and 300 hPa (d) SIGWX charts for 300,250 and 200 hPa

(d) SIGWX charts for 300,250 and 200 hPa

Q67. SIGMET message contains weather information which is (a) Actual and not Forecast (b) Forecast only (c) Both actual and forecast (d) Actual only

Q68. Veering of geostrophic wind at a station with height indicates (a) Warm air advection (b) Cold air advection (c) Subsidence of cool air (d) Convection of warm air

(a) Warm air advection

Q69. The wind Bora is (a) Warm Anabatic wind (b) Cold Katabatic wind (c) Violent Wly wind (d) Light maritime Ely wind

(b) Cold Katabatic wind

Q70. Will a SPECI be issued when the mean speed has changed by (a) < 09 kt (b) 10 kt or more (c) Less than 10 kt (d) > 08 kt

(b) 10 kt or more

Q71. Highest annual rainfall over the earth occurs the regions ? (a) Temperate regions (b) Tropical regions (c) Polar regions (d) Equatorial regions

(b) Tropical regions

Q72. The most hazardous area for aviation in a cyclone is (a) About 400 km from eye (b) Eye of the cyclone (c) Wall cloud around the eye (d) All over the cyclone

(b) Eye of the cyclone

Q73. The ITCZ (a) Is a region of calm winds and layer type of clouds (b) Affects only N hemisphere in winters (c) Usually lies along the Equatorial Trough (d) Affects S hemisphere in monsoon

Q74. The strong Wly winds which blow in both the hemispheres between 35° and 60° Lat are called : (a) Roaring Forties (b) Trades (c) Jetstreams (d) Polar Wly

(a) Roaring Forties

Q75. Cold core low pressure system (a) Intensifies with height (b) Weakens with height (c) Does not change with height (d) Veers with height

(b) Weakens with height

What is a Warm Front?

A warm front is characterized by a rise in temperature and a slight rise in pressure. ## Footnote Clouds associated include CI, CS, AS, NS, ST, SC, and occasional CB. Precipitation can include rain, drizzle, or fog, with visibility being very poor.

What happens before a Warm Front?

Before a warm front, the temperature is steady, pressure falls, and wind backs in the Northern Hemisphere and veers in the Southern Hemisphere.

What is a Cold Front?

A cold front is characterized by an abrupt fall in temperature and pressure, with squally conditions. ## Footnote Clouds associated include CI, CS, and CB, with brief showers and possible hail.

What happens before a Cold Front?

Before a cold front, the temperature is warm, pressure falls, and wind backs in the Northern Hemisphere and veers in the Southern Hemisphere.

What are Iso Lines?

Iso lines are lines of constant value for various meteorological parameters.

What is an Isobar?

An isobar is a line of constant atmospheric pressure.

What is an Isohyet?

An isohyet is a line of constant rainfall amount.

What is an Isotach?

An isotach is a line of constant wind speed.

What is an Isogon?

An isogon is a line of constant wind direction.

What is an Isotherm?

An isotherm is a line of constant temperature.

What is an Isohel?

An isohel is a line of constant percentage of average annual rainfall in a month.

What is an Isopleth?

An isopleth is a line of constant value for any quantity, a generic term.

What is an Isohypse/Contour?

An isohypse or contour is a line of constant atmospheric height.

What is a Streamline?

A streamline is a line tangential to the wind direction.

What are the meteorological subdivisions of India?

The subdivisions include NW India, East India, NE India, South India, West India, and Central India.

What states are included in NW India?

NW India includes Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.

What states are included in East India?

East India includes Jharkhand, Bihar, Orissa, West Bengal, and Sikkim.

What states are included in NE India?

NE India includes Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, Assam, and Meghalaya.

What states are included in South India?

South India includes Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Lakshadweep.

What states are included in West India?

West India includes Konkan & Goa, Madhya Maharashtra, Marathwada, Gujarat, Saurashtra, and Kutch.

What states are included in Central India?

Central India includes Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.

What is the spatial distribution of rainfall classified as 'Widespread'?

Widespread indicates most places with rainfall reported from 78% or more of the stations.

What does 'Fairly widespread' mean in terms of rainfall distribution?

Fairly widespread means many places are affected, with rainfall reported from 26% to 50% of the stations.

What is meant by 'Scattered' rainfall?

Scattered indicates a few places are affected, with rainfall reported from 26% to 50% of the stations.

Define 'Isolated' rainfall.

Isolated refers to isolated places with rainfall reported from 25% or less of the stations.

What is the amount of rainfall classified as 'Trace'?

Trace is defined as 0.01 to 0.04 mm of rainfall.

What constitutes 'Light Rain'?

Light Rain is classified as 2.5 to 7.5 mm of rainfall.

What is the definition of 'Heavy Rain'?

Heavy Rain is defined as a significant amount of rainfall, but specific mm is not provided.

What does 'Very Heavy Rain' indicate?

Very Heavy Rain indicates a substantial amount of rainfall, but specific mm is not provided.

What is a 'Rainy Day'?

A Rainy Day is defined as a day with measurable rainfall.

What does 'May Da Dry' refer to?

May Da Dry indicates very light rain or no rain.

What does 'Isolated (ISOL)' mean in forecasts?

Isolated (ISOL) refers to an individual feature affecting less than 50% of the area.

What is meant by 'Occasional (OCNL)' in forecasts?

Occasional (OCNL) refers to well-separated features covering 50 - 75% of the area.

Define 'Frequent (FRQ)' in weather forecasts.

Frequent (FRQ) indicates TS/CB with little or no separation, covering more than 75% of the area.

What are the time slots for 'Early hours' in IST?

Early hours are from 0000 - 0400 hrs. IST.

What time frame is classified as 'Morning' in IST?

Morning is from 0400 - 0800 hrs. IST.

What does 'Forenoon' refer to in terms of time?

Forenoon is from 0800 - 1200 hrs. IST.

What is the time period for 'Afternoon'?

Afternoon is from 1200 - 1600 hrs. IST.

What time is classified as 'Evening'?

Evening is from 1600 - 2000 hrs. IST.

What does 'Night' refer to in terms of time?

Night is from 2000 - 2400 hrs. IST.

What is the international location indicator for Jammu?

The international location indicator for Jammu is VIJU.

What is the international location indicator for Jodhpur?

The international location indicator for Jodhpur is VIJO.

What is the international location indicator for Khajuraho?

The international location indicator for Khajuraho is VAAU.

What is the international location indicator for Kochi?

The international location indicator for Kochi is VOCI.

What is the international location indicator for Kolkata?

The international location indicator for Kolkata is VECC.

What is the international location indicator for Kozhikode?

The international location indicator for Kozhikode is VOCL.

What is the international location indicator for Leh?

The international location indicator for Leh is VILH.

What is the international location indicator for Lucknow?

The international location indicator for Lucknow is VILK.

What is the international location indicator for Madurai?

The international location indicator for Madurai is VOMD.

What is the international location indicator for Male?

The international location indicator for Male is VRMM.

What is the international location indicator for Mohanbai?

The international location indicator for Mohanbai is VEMN.

What is the international location indicator for Mumbai?

The international location indicator for Mumbai is VABB.

What is the international location indicator for Nagpur?

The international location indicator for Nagpur is VANP.

What is the international location indicator for Patna?

The international location indicator for Patna is VEPT.

What is the international location indicator for Pune?

The international location indicator for Pune is VAPO.

What is the international location indicator for Ranchi?

The international location indicator for Ranchi is VERC.

What is the international location indicator for Siliguri?

The international location indicator for Siliguri is VEBD.

What is the international location indicator for Sri Nagar?

The international location indicator for Sri Nagar is VISR.

What is the international location indicator for Tezpur?

The international location indicator for Tezpur is VOTZ.

What is the international location indicator for Thiruvananthapuram?

The international location indicator for Thiruvananthapuram is VOTV.

What is the international location indicator for Vishakhapatnam?

The international location indicator for Vishakhapatnam is VEVZ.

What are National SIGWX Charts?

These are fixed time forecast charts made for High Level (FL250 - FL630) and Middle Level (FL100 - FL250). ## Footnote They show forecast positions of synoptic systems, significant clouds, turbulence, icing, and freezing levels.

What information is indicated in National SIGWX Charts?

They indicate forecast positions of synoptic systems, FL of significant clouds, turbulence, icing symbols, and freezing levels. ## Footnote High level charts also show FLs of jet streams, maximum winds, CAT, and tropopause heights.

What are WAFC Wind and Temperature Charts?

These charts are prepared by IMD Chennai for South Asia based on raw data. ## Footnote They indicate the validity of forecast, FL/hPa, wind direction, speed, and temperatures.

How are winds and temperatures depicted in WAFC Wind and Temperature Charts?

Winds are shown with shafts for direction and feathers/pennants for speed; temperatures are indicated near the wind shaft. ## Footnote Positive temperatures are prefixed by 'PS' (e.g., 12°C as PS12).

What does the Tropopause and Maximum Wind Chart show?

It shows tropopause heights in FL and maximum wind paths of the jet stream with FL indicated. ## Footnote The 0°C isotherm is represented by a broken line of short dashes.

What is included in the Spot Wind and Temperature Chart?

It provides forecast wind and temperature data for various positions across the chart at different FL altitudes. ## Footnote The forecast altitude of the freezing level is also indicated.

MET Questions Flashcards

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