Metabolism Flashcards

(477 cards)

0
Q

What is the daily energy expenditure for a 70kg male?

A

12000kJ

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1
Q

What does the daily energy expenditure consist of?

A

Three components
Basal metabolic rate- energy required to support basal metabolism to maintain life at physical digestive and emotional rest (= weight in kg x 24)
Voluntary physical exercise- energy required by the skeletal and cardiac muscle for voluntary physical exercise
Diet induced thermogenesis- energy required to process the food we eat (digest absorb distribute and store) (=10% of energy of ingested food)

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2
Q

What is the daily energy expenditure for a 58kg female?

A

9500kJ

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3
Q

What are the essential components of the diet?

A
Carbohydrate
Protein
Fat
Vitamins
Minerals
Water
Fibre
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4
Q

Why are carbohydrates essential?

A

Supply energy

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5
Q

Why are proteins essential?

A

Supply energy
Supply amino acids which can’t be made by the body
Maintain a nitrogen balance in the body- N loss = N intake

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6
Q

Why are fats essential?

A

Supply energy (2.2 x as much as carbohydrates and proteins)
Fat soluble vitamins- assist in their distribution (DAKE)
Supply essential fatty acids which can’t be made in the body (linolenic acid)

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7
Q

Why are vitamins essential?

A

Assist in metabolic functions of the body
Required for synthesis of fibres- vitamin C required for fibroblast function
Required in blood clotting cascade- vitamin k required to synthesise blood clotting factors
Vitamin D required for calcium serum concentration regulation

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8
Q

Why are minerals essential?

A

Na, K - muscle and nerve functions
Ca- co factor of body reactions
Mg, I, Cu- enzyme and gland functioning

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9
Q

Why is water essential?

A

Maintain hydration- (50-60% of body weight); loss of 2.5l/day

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10
Q

Why is fibre essential?

A

Maintain normal GI function (cellulose)

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11
Q

What are the clinical consequences of protein and energy deficiencies in humans?

A

Marasmus

Kwashiorkor

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12
Q

What is marasmus?

A
Protein and energy (carbs) deficiency, low fluids 
No oedema (due to low plasma protein and fluids)
Thin bony child

Usage of fat stores- ketone body synthesis to supply brain
Use of glycogen stores and then protein breakdown= Muscle wastage
Cardiovascular and brain muscle wastage in severe cases= death

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13
Q

What is kwashiorkors?

A

Protein deficiency, normal energy (carbs), normal fluids
Oedema (due to lower plasma protein than marasmus, and normal fluids)
Thin child with a pop belly

Hepatic dysfunction due to insufficient proteins to synthesise lipoproteins= fat accumulates in liver- fatty liver = HEPATOMEGALY!
Oedema formation due to low plasma protein concentration= low oncotic pressure in plasma= causes fluid shifts (ascites, ankle oedema)

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14
Q

How does reintroduction of food affect marasmus and kwashiorkors patients? Refeeding syndrome?

A

Marasmus- no serious effect but reintroduction of food needs to be slow
Kwashiorkors- unable to deal with protein rich foods in large amounts due to down regulation of certain enzymes involved in the metabolism and excretory process of proteins normally
Leads to build up of ammonia in blood as a by product of metabolism= toxicity (hyperammonaemia); therefore small amounts of protein at regular intervals are required

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15
Q

How do you calculate BMI?

A

Weight (kg) / (height)squared (m)

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16
Q

What are the value ranges for BMI?

A

35 severely obese

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17
Q

Define obesity

A

Condition in which excess body fat has accumulated as a result of energy intake exceeding energy expenditure, where BMI > 30, which may have an adverse effect on health, resulting in a reduced life expectancy or other comorbidities (heart disease- atherosclerosis, gall bladder disease, hypertension, type 2 diabetes)

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18
Q

What are the factors involved in the regulation of body weight?

A

Daily energy intake and daily energy expenditure

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19
Q

Define homeostasis

A

Control of internal body environment within set limits- dynamic equilibrium

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20
Q

What is the clinical relevance of failure of homeostasis?

A

Homeostasis underpins physiology and failure of homeostasis Results in DISEASE

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21
Q

Define cell metabolism

A

Set of processes which derive energy and raw materials from food stuff and uses them for support, repair, growth and activities of the tissues of the body to support life

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22
Q

Cells metabolise nutrients to provide…?

A

Energy for cell function and synthesis of cell components
Building block materials for cell components
Organic precursor molecules to allow interconversion of building block molecules
Biosynthetic reducing power used in synthesis of cell components

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23
Q

What are the origins of cell nutrients?

A

Diet
Storage in body
Synthesis in body

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24
What are the fates of nutrients in the body?
Degraded to release energy in all tissue Synthesis of cell components in all tissues except RBCs Storage in liver muscle or adipose tissue
25
What is catabolism?
``` Break down of large molecules into smaller molecules Exergonic Oxidative Produces intermediate cell metabolites Stimulated by low energy signals ```
26
What is anabolism?
``` Synthesis of large molecules from smaller molecules Endergonic Reductive Uses metabolites from catabolism Stimulated by high energy signals ```
27
Why do cells need a s continuous supply of energy? | METBO
``` Mechanical (muscle contraction) Electrical (nerves) Transport (active) Biosynthesis (e.g. Protein) Osmosis (kidneys, large intestine etc) ``` If insufficient energy intake- body uses stores
28
Describe ATP?
Synthesis of ATP is anabolic/ endergonic Breakdown of ATP is catabolic/ exergonic (used by cells) Terminal phosphate bond contains large amount of energy- which is released in hydrolysis Adenine and three phosphates
29
How can ATP be stored in muscle?
Creatine + ATP = creatine phosphate + ADP So ATP can be quickly regenerated when required CREATINE KINASE
30
What is the clinical importance of creatinine (formed from creatine)?
Measured of muscle mass Determinant for kidney function Comparison for other nutrient measurements
31
What are the hydrogen carriers and their function?
``` NAD+ (niacin) FAD (flavin) NADP (niacin) CARRIERS OF BIOSYNTHETIC REDUCING POWER Change between oxidised and reduced form ``` Obtained from vitamin B ()
32
How do hydrogen carriers become reduced?
By the addition of 2 H
33
What happens to the total concentration of carriers at all times?
Remains constant
34
What is oxidation?
Loss of electrons and H+ | Exergonic
35
What is reduction?
Gain of electrons and H+ | Endergonic
36
What are some high energy signals?
ATP, NADPH, NADH, FADH2 | activates anabolism
37
What are some low energy signals?
AMP, ADP, NADP, FAD, NAD+
38
What do carbohydrates consist of?
C H O Polysaccharide chain made up of monosaccharides joined together by glycosidic bonds in condensation reactions Contain aldehyde or ketone groups
39
What are monosaccharides?
Monomer unit for carbohydrates Asymmetric carbon atom (stereoisomers) Natural form = d form (not l) Usually 3-9 carbon atoms
40
What are disaccharides?
Two monosaccharides units joined by a glycosidic bond
41
What are some examples of disaccharides?
Lactose (galactose and glucose) Sucrose (fructose and glucose) Maltose (glucose and glucose)
42
What are oligosaccharides?
Carbohydrates with 3-12 monosaccharide units
43
What are polysaccharides?
Carbohydrates with 10-100 monosaccharide units
44
What are some examples of polysaccharides?
Glycogen-polymer of glucose, animals, alpha 1,4 and 1,6 bonds, highly branched Starch-polymer of glucose, plants, mixture of amylose and amylopectin, alpha 1,4 and 1,6 bonds, less branched than glycogen, broken down to glucose and maltose by GI tract enzymes Cellulose- structural polymer of glucose, plants, beta 1,4 bonds, no GI enzymes exist to digest these bonds, dietary fibre important for normal GI function
45
What enzymes in the body digest carbohydrates?
``` Salivary amylase (digest alpha 1,4) Pancreatic amylase (digest alpha 1,4) Maltase Lactase Sucrase Isomaltase (digest alpha 1,6) ```
46
How are monosaccharides absorbed into the blood?
Actively transported into the intestinal epithelial cells | Facilitated diffusion out of epithelial cells into the blood (using GLUT1-5 transport proteins)
47
What are GLUT1-5?
Glucose transport proteins which alter their affinity for glucose according to the differences in requirements of tissues for glucose E.g glut 4 sensitive to presence of insulin in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue (high insulin increases glucose uptake by these cells by increasing number of transport proteins in plasma membrane)
48
Why is the concentration of glucose in the blood normally held relatively constant?
Some tissues have an absolute requirement of glucose and the amount of glucose uptake by these tissues is dependent on the concentration in the blood RBCs, kidney medulla, lens of eye, WBCs, peripheral nerves Brain and CNS prefers glucose
49
What is the minimum amount of glucose required by a healthy adult on a normal diet
180g/day 40g/day by RBCs WBCs kidney medulla lens of eye 140g/day by CNS Various amounts required by tissues for specialised functions (e.g. Synthesis of tags in adipose tissue requires glucose as it needs glycerol phosphate)
50
Outline how carbohydrates catabolised in the body
Glycolysis Link reaction Krebs cycle Oxidative phosphorylation
51
Outline how proteins are metabolised in the body
Amino group is removed by deamination Amino group goes to urea cycle or undergoes ammonia detoxification Carbon skeleton- -- glucogenic: glycolysis (pyruvate) or Krebs cycle (oxaloacetate, fumerate or alpha ketoglutarate) -- ketogenic: ketone body synthesis (acetyl coA) Amino group is transferred to a keto acid using amino transferase enzymes Keto acid generated can be metabolised in the Krebs cycle (glucogenic and ketogenic as above) aa1 + ka2 --> ka1 + aa2
52
What happens in the transamination of alanine (glutamate)?
Alanine + alpha ketoglutarate = pyruvate + glutamate
53
What enzyme is used in the transamination of alanine?
Alanine amino transferase
54
What happens in the transamination of aspartate (glutamate)?
Aspartate + alpha ketoglutarate = oxaloacetate + glutamate
55
What enzyme is used in the transamination of aspartate?
Aspartate amino transferase
56
What are the main (rate limiting step) enzymes involved in glycolysis?
Step 1 hexokinase and glucokinase (exclusively found in the liver) Step 3 phosphofructokinase 1 Step 10 pyruvate kinase
57
What enzyme is involved in the link reaction?
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
58
What is the main (rate limiting step) enzyme in the Krebs cycle?
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
59
How is hexokinase, glucokinase activity regulated?
Glucose 6-phosphate product inhibition
60
How is phosphofructokinase-1 activity regulated in the muscle and liver?
Muscle : By allosteric regulation Simulated by AMP, ADP, citrate Inhibited by ATP Liver : By hormonal regulation Stimulated by high insulin: glucagon Inhibited by low insulin: glucagon
61
How is pyruvate kinase activity regulated?
Dephosphorylation- covalent modification Stimulated by high insulin: glucagon ratio Inhibited by low insulin: glucagon ratio
62
Where in the cell and the body does glycolysis occur?
Cytoplasm of all body cells
63
What are the functions of glycolysis?
Oxidise glucose, produce 2 NADH Synthesise 2 ATP (net) Produces c6 and c3 intermediates (glycerol phosphate (for fatty acid synthesis) and 2-3BPG)
64
What are some features of glycolysis?
``` Exergonic, oxidative (catabolism) C6--> 2C3 no loss of C Operates anaerobic ally Cytoplasm of all cells Irreversible ```
65
How does fructose join in on the glycolysis pathway?
Fructose --> Fructose-1-Phosphate --> Glyceraldehyde --> Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate --> GLYCOLYSIS Fructose --> Fructose-1-Phosphate --> Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) --> Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate --> GLYCOLYSIS
66
What are the enzymes involved in fructose metabolism?
``` Fructose kinase (F to F-1-P) Aldolase (F-1-P to glyceraldehyde) ```
67
What happens in the deficiency of fructokinase?
Essential fructosuria
68
What happens in the deficiency of aldolase?
Fructose intolerance | Fructose-1-Phosphate accumulates in liver = liver damage
72
What are the enzymes involved in galactose metabolism?
Galactokinase (Gal to Gal-1-P) | Galactose-1-Phosphate uridyl transferase (Gal-1-P to G-1-P)
73
What happens in deficiency of galactokinase?
Build up of galactose Increased conversion of galactose into galactitol using aldose reductase and NADPH Depletes levels of NADPH (normally prevents formation of SS bonds) in lens Formation of disulphide bonds between cysteine residues on proteins in lens= cataracts
74
What happens in deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase?
Build up of galactose Increased conversion of galactose into galactitol using aldose reductase and NADPH Depletes levels of NADPH (normally prevents formation of SS bonds) in lens Formation of disulphide bonds between cysteine residues on proteins in lens= cataracts Build up of galactose-1-phosphate Damage to liver kidney and brain Toxic to hepatocytes = liver damage Bilirubin (which is produced from haem in breakdown of RBCs in the spleen) can't be conjugated by liver and so is released in to the blood = jaundice
75
What happens if NAD+ is not regenerated from NADH produced during glycolysis?
Glycolysis would stop due to accumulation of NADH inhibiting some steps (Normally NAD+ is regenerated in oxidative phosphorylation but in anaerobic conditions this cannot occur)
76
What happens in anaerobic conditions that stops the regeneration of NAD+?
Oxygen is the final acceptor in the electron transport chain Lack of oxygen means electron transport chain will stop- oxidative phosphorylation cannot occur - as no free energy is being produced and so no pmf is produced Therefore no NAD+ is being regenerated
77
How is NAD+ regenerated under anaerobic conditions or generally in RBCs and keratinocytes?
Glycolysis (anaerobic) + | Pyruvate--> lactate (using lactate dehydrogenase) = reduction reaction
78
What is important about RBCs and keratinocytes which means that they are constantly undergoing anaerobic catabolism?
They lack mitochondria which are the site of aerobic catabolism
79
When is lactate produced?
By RBCs all the time and by skeletal muscle under anaerobic conditions
80
What is the fate of lactate?
Released in the blood Normally metabolised by LIVER and HEART via LDH back to pyruvate (since liver and heart are generally well supplied with oxygen and so can quickly perform the reaction when anaerobic conditions cease)
81
What is hyperlactaemia?
Plasma conc 2-5 mM Below renal threshold No change in blood pH (buffering capacity)
82
What is lactic acidosis?
Above 5mM Above renal threshold- lactosuria Blood pH lowered (lactate itself does not cause the lowering of pH- the fact that H+ ions, which are released in ATP hydrolysis, are not being reincorporated back into ATP synthesis in oxidative phosphorylation means that H+ concentration increases) Cramps, pains
83
What is the normal lactate production rate?
40-50g/day
84
In strenuous exercise what is the lactate production rate?
30g/5 min
85
How is lactate utilised?
Normally metabolised by LIVER and HEART via LDH back to pyruvate (since liver and heart are generally well supplied with oxygen and so can quickly perform the reaction when anaerobic conditions cease) Heart--> CO2 Liver --> glucose (gluconeogenesis) ------ impaired in liver disease, thiamine vitamin B1 deficiency, alcohol consumption (NAD+ --> NADH), enzyme deficiencies
86
What is lactose intolerance?
Low activity of lactase Lactose can't be broken down in the gut so remains and lowers wp in the large intestine so increased water loss = diarrhoea and dehydration Bacteria colonise indigested lactose and ferment it to produce organic acids that irritate the GI= stomach cramps
87
What is the pentose phosphate pathway?
2 stage (multistep) pathway, break from glycolysis! - oxidative decarboxylation of G-6-P by G-6-P dehydrogenase G-6-P + NADP+ --> C5 sugar + CO2 + NADPH -rearrangement back to glycolytic intermediates 3C5 sugars ~~~~> 2-fructose-6-phosphate + 1-glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
88
What are some features of the pentose phosphate pathway?
No ATP production Loss of CO2 therefore irreversible Controlled by NADP+/NADPH ratio at G-6-P dehydrogenase
89
What enzyme is involved PPP?
Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase
90
What is the purpose of PPP?
Produces NADPH in cytoplasm- Biosynthetic reducing power (for fatty acid synthesis so high activity in liver and apipose) and maintain free S-H on cysteine residues in certain proteins/ prevent oxidation to S-S (disulphide bond) Produces C5 sugars for nucleotides needed for nucleic acid synthesis (so high activity in dividing tissues e.g. Bone marrow)
91
What tissues have high activity of ppp?
Liver and adipose tissue- fatty acid synthesis Dividing tissues (bone marrow)- c5 nucleotides RBC and lens of eyes- need NADPH to prevent formation of S-S bonds
92
What two things does the ppp produce?
``` NADPH C5 sugars (ribose) ```
93
What are the symptoms of a deficiency in galactokinase?
Cataracts | Galactosuria
94
What are symptoms of a deficiency in galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase?
Cataracts Galactosuria Liver damage Jaundice
95
How does galactose join in on the glycolytic pathway?
Galactose --> Galactose-1-Phosphate --> Glucose-1-Phosphate --> Glucose-6-Phosphate --> GLYCOLYSIS
96
What happens in a glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase reaction?
Reduction in NADPH causes: Reduction in fatty acid synthesis Less maintenance of SH residues in lens of eyes= formation of disulphide bonds= CATARACTS in lens of eye Less maintenance of SH residues in RBCs= formation of disulphide binds between haemoglobin molecules= Heinz bodies= increased breakdown of RBCs by spleen= ANAEMIA = increased amount of bilirubin in liver= liver can't conjugate all the bilirubin= some released back into blood= JAUNDICE Oxidised form of glutathione (with disulphide bonds) stabilised= so reduced glutathione is not available to detoxify/ reduce hydrogen peroxide and other ROS's = oxidative stress
97
What is the side effect of using anti malarials on glutathione?
Anti malarials have the side effect of oxidising glutathione (disulphide bridges formed) Reduced Glutathione (and NADPH) both prevent the formation of disulphide bonds between haemoglobin molecules So when an anti malarial oxidises glutathione, it is no longer able to present formation of disulphide bonds- which consequently form = Heinz bodies
98
What is the refeeding syndrome?
Occurs in anorexic patients, cancer patients, post surgery, alcoholics Unclear cause- occurs from reintroduction of calories to malnourished Metabolic disturbance due to shift away from predominantly fat metabolism Need to closely monitor electrolytes and treat disturbances carefully Risks include confusion, coma, convulsions and death
99
Where does the link reaction Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation occur?
In the mitochondrial matrix
100
What enzyme is used to convert pyruvate into acetyl coA?
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
101
What is pyruvate dehydrogenase?
5 enzyme complex- different enzymes require different cofactors (FAD, thiamine pyrophosphate, lipoic acid= all provided by vitamin B) Pyruvate --> acetyl coA
102
How is pyruvate converted to acetyl coA?
Pyruvate + NAD+ + coA --> acetyl coA + NADH + CO2 Irreversible! Using PDH
103
What is important about the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coA?
IRREVERIBLE AS CO2 IS LOST = key regulatory step
104
How is PDH regulated?
Stimulated by coA, NAD+, ADP, (pyruvate and insulin) | Inhibited by acetyl coA, NADH, ATP
105
What vitamin deficiency affects the actin of PDH and why?
Vitamin B1 (thiamine) - provides the cofactors (FAD, thiamine pyrophosphate and lipoid acid) needed by the different enzymes in the PDH enzyme complex
106
What does a deficiency in PDH result in?
Lactic acidosis as lactate dehydrogenase pathway is stimulated
107
What are some key features of the Krebs cycle?
Mitochondrial Single pathway- central pathway in catabolism of sugars, fatty acids, ketone bodies amino acids and alcohol Acetyl converted to 2CO2 Oxidative/exergonic/ requires NAD+ and FAD Produces lots of NADH FADH2 - used to drive ATP synthesis in ox phos Some energy produced as ATP/GTP Produces precursors for biosynthesis (amino acids, haem, glucose and fatty acids) Occurs twice for every molecule of glucose entering glycolysis Only functions in presence of oxygen
108
What key enzyme is involved in Krebs cycle
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
109
How is isocitrate dehydrogenase regulated?
Regulated by energy availability ATP/ADP ratio and NADH/ NAD+ ratio Stimulated by ADP (low energy signals) Inhibited by NADH (high energy signals)
110
What two things does stage 4 of catabolism consist of?
Electron transport- electrons in NADH and FAD2H transferred through a series if carrier molecules to oxygen; releases energy in steps ATP synthesis by Oxidative phosphorylation- free energy released used to drive ATP synthesis
111
Where does stage 4 of catabolism occur?
Inner mitochondrial membrane
112
What is the process of stage 4 of catabolism? C p e f I p a o
NADH and FAD2H carriers transfer their electrons to carrier molecules in the mitochondrial membrane, which transfer electrons to molecular oxygen and are organised into a series of 4 highly specialised protein complexes spanning the entire mitochondrial membrane 3 complexes (I, III AND IV) act as proton translocation complexes Free energy from electron transport is used to move protons from the inside to the outside of the inner mitochondrial membrane via the proton translocation complexes The mitochondrial membrane itself is impermeable to protons and as electron transport continues, concentration of protons outside the inner mitochondrial membrane increased Proton translocation complexes transform chemical bond energy of electrons into an electrochemical gradient of protons across the membrane = proton motive force ATP synthesis requires 31kJ/mol energy from pmf to drive the reaction Protons renter the mitochondrial matrix bis ATP synthase complex (V) driving the synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain
113
How many proton translocating complexes do NADH and FAD2H use?
NADH uses 3 whereas FAD2H uses 2 | Because electrons in NADH have more energy than in FAD2H
114
What is the relation between proton motive force and ATP synthesis?
The greater the pmf the more ATP synthesis
115
How much ATP is produced per mole of NADH?
2.5 ATP/ mole of NADH
116
How much ATP is produced per mole of FAD2H?
1.5 ATP / mole FAD2H
117
How is oxidative phosphorylation regulated?
Mitochondrial concentration of ATP
118
What describes the relationship between electron transport and ATP synthesis?
Tightly Coupled
119
When ATP concentration in mitochondria is high, what happens to ox phos?
When ATP: ADP ratio is high = no substrate for ATP synthase = inward flow of protons stops = increase in conc of protons in inner mitochondrial space= prevents further pumping of protons= stops electron transport
120
Name three uncouplers
Dinitrophenol Dinitrocresol Fatty acids
121
How do uncouplers affect ox phos?
Uncouplers work by uncoupling electron transport and ATP synthesis Uncouplers penetrate the inner mitochondrial membrane Uncouplers increase permeability of inner mitochondria membrane for protons Protons reenter the mitochondrial matrix ATP synthase not activated so no ATP synthesis Pmf is dissipated as heat Electron transport and thus NADH/FAD2H oxidation continues Free energy is released as heat Respiration continues to bring more NADH and FAD2H to mitochondria and uses up fuel molecules (fatty acids, glucose etc) More and more heat production
122
What inhibits ox phos and how does this happen?
``` Cyanide and carbon monoxide Binds to IV (ptc) Stops electron transport Blocks NADH and FAD2H oxidation No free energy is produced No pmf No ATP synthesis Cell death ```
123
What are ox phos diseases?
Genetic defects in proteins encoded by mtDNA (some subunits of the PTCs and ATP synthase) which cause a decrease in electron transport and ATP synthesis
124
Which is more common to occur transamination or deamination?
Transamination
125
What hormone stimulates the production of aminotransferases in the liver?
Cortisol
126
Which keto acid is mostly used in transamination?
Alpha keto glutarate- always produces glutamate when an amino group is added
127
What amino acid is produced when alpha keto glutarate undergoes transamination?
Glutamate
128
What amino acid is produced when glutamate undergoes transamination?
Aspartate
129
Why is aspartate a useful product in the catabolism of proteins?
Important intermediate in the synthesis of urea
130
What enzymes are involved in deamination and where are they found?
L and D amino acid oxidases in the liver (D has a higher activity)
131
Describe the two step process of deamination of glutamine
Glutamine is converted into glutamate and ammonia by glutaminase Glutamine --> glutamate + NH3 (glutaminase) Produced glutamate is then converted to alpha ketoglutarate and an ammonium ion by glutamate dehydrogenase Glutamate + NAD + H2O --> alpha ketoglutarate + NADH + H+ + NH4+ (glutamate dehydrogenase)
132
Why do the Krebs and urea cycle lack defects?
There are no known defects in Krebs and ureas cycle that allow life to be sustained as a lack in any enzyme would result in DEATH
133
What is phenylketonuria?
Phenylalanine--> tyrosine (phenylalanine hydroxylase) Inherited recessive condition = Defective enzyme: phenylalanine hydroxylase Phenylalanine accumulates in tissues and is metabolised by their pathways Phenylketones (phenylpyruvate) are produced in an alternative pathway: Phenylalanine--> phenylketones
134
What are some symptoms of phenylketonuria?
Hypopigmentation If not picked up- it can cause mental retardation as phenylalanine inhibits brain development Lack of tyrosine (usually involved in synthesis of neurotransmitters, hormones, noradrenaline, adrenaline) leads to decrease in neurotransmitters Phenyl pyruvate prevents pyruvate uptake into mitochondria- brain energy metabolism
135
What is the reaction in which phenylalanine is converted into phenyl pyruvate?
Transamination reaction | Phenylalanine + alpha ketoglutarate --> phenyl pyruvate + alpha glutamic acid
136
What are the clinical consequences of PKU and why should it be detected as early as possible?
Phenylalanine is a large neutral amino acid (LNAA) and so competes with other LNAA's for transport across the brain blood barrier via LNAAT (transporter) If excess phenylalanine is present (in the case of PKU) this saturates the LNAAT thereby decreasing the levels of other LNAA's (essential for neurotransmitters and protein synthesis) entering the brain As a result phenylalanine builds up hindering the development of the brain and causing MENTAL RETARDATION
137
What is the test for PKU?
Heel prick test at birth
138
What enzyme is deficient in PKU?
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
139
What is homocystinuria?
Homocysteine--> cystathione --> cysteine (cystathione beta synthase) (vitamin B6 and folate) Inherited recessive condition = Defective enzyme: cystathione beta synthase Homocysteine accumulates in tissues and is metabolised by other pathways Methionine is produced in an alternative pathway: Homocysteine --> methionine (vitamin B12)
140
What enzyme is defective in homocystinuria?
Cystathione beta synthase
141
What are some symptoms of homocystinuria?
Affects muscles, CNS and CVS | Fibrillin 1 protein is affected- unstretchy skin
142
In homocystinuria what amino acid is found in high concentrations in the urine?
Homocystine (oxidised form of homocysteine) Methionine is not found in the urine because kidneys have a higher renal threshold for methionine than for homocystine and so methionine is reabsorbed into the blood whereas homocystine is not)
143
What is required for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine?
Vitamin b12
144
How can PKU be treated ?
Avoiding phenylalanine in diet
145
Why do the signs and symptoms of homcytsinutia initially resemble Marfan's syndrome?
Homocysteine affects fibrillin1 production much like in Marfan's Results in tall stature, less stretchy skin due to this effect on connective tissue
146
How do you treat homocystinuria?
Supplement vitamin b6 and folate (increase activity of CBS) Low methionine diet Supplements of cysteine Medication to reduce levels of homocysteine
147
What is Marfan's?
Disease in which there is lack of expression of fibrillin 1 protein- affects connective tissues
148
What is the test for Marfan's?
Arms length versus height
149
Why is homocystine (the oxidised form of homocysteine) found in the urine instead of methionine?
Renal threshold for methionine is much higher than it is for homocystine - so methionine is reabsorbed into the blood whereas homocystine remains in urine
150
What type of inheritance pattern do homocystinuria and phenylketonuria show?
Recessive
151
Why is homocystinuria associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease?
Homocysteine is a sulphur containing compound which increases its potential for oxidative stress This results in increased atheroma formation in coronary arteries a a younger age High risk of artery rupture due to defective fibrillin 1 formation (elastin) so high pressure in arteries OR oxidative stress (high sulphur content)
152
What is non shivering thermogenesis and where is it found?
Example of uncoupling process BAT in babies and mice In response to cold noradrenaline activates lipase to release fatty acids from TAGs Fatty acids activate UCP1 and themselves undergo oxidation to produce NADH and FAD2H for electron transport UCP1 transports H+ back into mitochondria So electron transport and ATP synthesis are uncoupled and pmf is captured as extra heat
153
Outline the metabolism of lipids
Broken down into fatty acid and glycerol (breakdown and recombination occurs a lot throughout) Fatty acid undergoes beta oxidation- combined with coA using fatty acyl coA synthase to make fatty acyl coA; taken into mitochondria using the carnitine shuttle; beta oxidation then occurs- 2 C lost in every cycle, using FAD/NAD+ and H2O Acetyl coA is formed as a result--> Krebs cycle or ketone body synthesis Glycerol--> glycerol phosphate (glycerol kinase) - -> Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) - -> 2-Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate - -> GLYCOLYSIS
154
Outline the synthesis of fatty acids
``` A Acetyl coA molecule is converted into Malonyl coA: Acetyl coA(2) + CO2 + ATP ---> Malonyl coA(3) + ADP + Pi (acetyl coA carboxylase) Malonyl coA(3) is combined with another acetyl coA(2) using NADPH in repeat cycles- in each cycle a CO2(1) is lost - so at the end if each cycle a molecule is produced with 2 more carbons than the original eventually producing fatty acyl coA (~C16) (fatty acid synthase) Fatty acyl coA is elongated and desaturated in the ER and combined with glycerol 3 phosphate to produce a TAG ```
155
What are tags?
Triacylglycerols- three fatty acids and one glycerol
156
How are TAGs formed?
Esterification of glycerol and 3 fatty acids
157
How are TAGs broken down?
Lipolysis of TAG with 3 water molecules
158
What are the three classes of lipids?
* Fatty acid derivatives- TAGs (storage and insulation), phospholipids (cell membrane and plasma lipoproteins), eicosanoids (local mediators) * Hydroxy-methyl-glutaric acid derivatives- ketone bodies (water soluble fuel molecules- can cross blood brain barrier; substitute for glucose can be made from fatty acids), cholesterol (membranes and steroid hormone synthesis), cholesterol esters (storage of cholesterol), bile acid and salts (lipid digestion) * Vitamins- DAKE
159
Can fatty acid metabolism occur anaerobically?
NO as it requires NAD+ and FAD which need to be regenerated in the aerobic stage 4 of metabolism- so without oxygen fatty acid metabolism CANNOT OCCUR
160
What are the three main ketone bodies?
Acetoacetate Acetone Beta hydroxy butyrate
161
How are ketone bodies synthesised?
In the liver under conditions of starvation or type 1 diabetes TAGs (storage)--> Fatty acids --> Acetyl coA--(HMGcoA synthase)--> HMG coA --(HMG coA lyase)--> acetoacetate --> acetone (spontaneous decarboxylation of acetoacetate) OR beta hydroxy butyrate
162
How is cholesterol produced?
TAGs (storage)--> Fatty acids --> Acetyl coA--(HMGcoA synthase)--> HMG coA --(HMG coA reductase)--> mevalonate --> cholesterol
163
What drug inhibits cholesterol synthesis and how does it work?
Statins inhibit cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting the enzyme HMG coA reductase
164
How is ketone body synthesis regulated?
``` Ketone bodies are produced in conditions of starvation or in type 1 diabetes when an alternative source of fuel is required for organs like the brain! Lyase enzyme Hormone regulation Stimulated by glucagon Inhibited by insulin ``` Regulated by the availability of carbohydrates for the body cells - so when no carbohydrates are available in starvation and type 1 diabetes- ketogenesis occurs
165
What enzymes are key in the production of ketone bodies?
HMG coA synthase and lyase
166
What enzymes are key in the production of cholesterol?
HMG coA synthase and reductase
167
How is alcohol metabolised?
Alcohol--(alcohols dehydrogenase and CYP2E1)--> acetaldehyde --(aldehyde dehydrogenase)--> acetic acid/ acetate Alcohol --> acetaldehyde step requires NAD+ so can only occur in aerobic conditions (since NAD+ has to be regenerated in stage 4 of metabolism which can only occur in the presence of oxygen)
168
What enzymes are involved in the metabolism of alcohol?
Alcohol dehydrogenase CYP2E1 (form of cyp450) Aldehyde dehydrogenase
169
Explain the effects of excessive alcohol consumption on the liver?
The intermediate metabolite of alcohol metabolism, acetaldehyde, is toxic to liver cells. The increased availability of acetyl-CoA affects liver metabolism. The conversion of alcohol to acetaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase also produces NADH. The decreased NAD+/NADH ratio favours the formation of triacylglycerols which accumulate in the liver cells, leading to ‘fatty liver’.
170
What drug can be used to stop alcoholism?
Desulfiram - inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase leading to an accumulation of acetaldehyde which gives symptoms of a long lasting headache PUTS YOU OFF ALCOHOL FOR GOOD! Danger is it could cause liver damage
171
What is pharmacodynamics?
What the drug does to the body - the effect of the drug on the body
172
What is pharmacokinetics?
What the body does to the drug- how the body metabolises the drug
173
What is pharmacokinetics the study of? Adme
Absorption Distribution Metabolism Elimination of a drug
174
What is the two phase process of drug metabolism?
Phase 1 - hydrolysis, oxidation and reduction; make drug more reactive before it enters phase 2; CYP450; sometimes NADPH Phase 2 - glucuronidation, glutathione conjugation, sulphate conjugation; attaches a water soluble group to the drug so that the whole drug molecule is made water soluble, so that it can be excreted in the urine; cytosolic enzymes in liver
175
What three reactions are common to phase 1 of drug metabolism?
Hydrolysis reduction and oxidation
176
What three reactions a common to phase2 of drug metabolism?
Glucuronidation Glutathione conjugation Sulphate conjugation
177
How is paracetamol at normal doses metabolised in the body?
Paracetamol is a reactive enough drug so it normally directly enters phase 2 of metabolism Undergoes glucuronidation or sulphation
178
How is an overdose of paracetamol metabolised in the body?
Phase 2 of metabolism (glucuronidation and sulphation) tries to happen but it becomes a saturated situation whereby glucuronic acid and sulphate run out, SO: Toxic paracetamol overdose enters phase 1 Paracetamol --> N-acetyl-p-benzo-quinine-imine (NAPQI) NAPQI then enters phase 2 with GLUTATHIONE (as opposed to sulphate or glucuronic acid as normal) NAPQI--> conjugated with glutathione
179
Outline the four stages of glycogenesis in liver and skeletal muscle
Glucose + ATP --(glucokinase/hexokinase)--> glucose-6-phosphate + ADP Glucose-6-phosphate --(phosphogluco mutase)--> glucose-1-phosphate Glucose-1-phosphate +UTP + H2O --> UDP-glucose + 2Pi UDP-glucose + glycogen (n) --(glycogen synthase/branching enzyme)--> glycogen (n+1) + UDP
180
What are the 4 key enzymes in glycogenesis and which is the rate limiting enzyme?
Hexokinase/ glucokinase Phosphogluco mutase Glycogen synthase (rate limiting) Branching enzyme
181
Outline the two stages of glycogenolysis in the muscle
Glycogen(n) + Pi --(glycogen phosphorylase/debranching enzyme)--> glycogen(n-1) + glucose-1-phosphate Glucose-1-phosphate --(phosphogluco mutase)--> glucose-6- phosphate (GLYCOLYSIS IN Muscle)
182
Outline the three stages of glycogenolysis in the liver
Glycogen(n) + Pi --(glycogen phosphorylase/debranching enzyme)--> glycogen(n-1) + glucose-1-phosphate Glucose-1-phosphate --(phosphogluco mutase)--> glucose-6- phosphate Glucose-6-phosphate --(glucose-6-phosphatase)--> glucose + Pi
183
What are the 4 key enzymes in glycogenolysis and which is the rate limiting enzyme?
Glycogen phosphorylase (rate limiting) Debranching enzyme Phosphogluco mutase (Glucose-6-phosphatase)
184
How is glycogenolysis regulated?
Glycogen phosphorylase (stimulated in low glucose conditions) Hormones Stimulated by Glucagon/ adrenaline Inhibited by insulin
185
How is glycogenesis regulated?
Glycogen synthase (stimulated in high glucose conditions) Hormones Stimulated by insulin Inhibited by glucagon/adrenaline
186
Outline gluconeogenesis
(Lactate) Pyruvate --(pyruvate carboxylase)--> Oxaloacetate --(phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase PEPCK)--> PHOSPHOENOLPYRUVATE --> 2-PHOSPHOGLYCERATE --> 3-PHOSPHOGLYCERATE --> 1,3-BISPHOSPHOGLYCERATE --> (Glycerol, DHAP/ Fructose) GLYCERALDEHYDE-3-PHOSPHATE --> FRUCTOSE-1,6-BISPHOSPHATE --(fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase)--> FRUCTOSE-6-PHOSPHATE --> (galactose) GLUCOSE-6-PHOSPHATE --(glucose-6-phosphatase)--> GLUCOSE
187
What are the 4 main enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis?
Pyruvate carboxylase Phosphenol pyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphotase Glucose-6-phosphatase
188
Which two enzymes in gluconeogenesis are important in the regulation of gluconeogenesis?
Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) | Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
189
How is gluconeogenesis regulated?
``` Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase Hormone Stimulated by glucagon/ cortisol Inhibited by insulin ```
190
In what conditions are ketone bodies produced and why?
``` Ketone bodies are produced in conditions of starvation and in type 1 diabetes In starvation (no glucose) and in type 1 diabetes (no insulin is being produced so body thinks there is no glucose) and so lipolysis and fatty acid oxidation occur (to provide acetyl coA by an alternative route) and ketone bodies (water soluble) are produced as an alternative fuel for the brain cells as ketone bodies can cross the blood brain barrier ```
191
How are lipids transported around the body?
2% with albumin (FFA or NEFA) | 98% lipoprotein
192
What is the structure of TAGs?
3 fatty acids and 1 glycerol | Non polar
193
What is the structure of cholesterol?
Carbon chain and a tetracyclic structure (can be cleaved and be made into STEROID HORMONES and BILE SALTS) Polar Can be esterified at a hydroxy group with a fatty acid and made into cholesterol ester (completely non polar)
194
What is the structure of phospholipids?
2 fatty acids 1 glycerol 1 phosphate group | Polar due to phosphate
195
Why do lipids require protein carriers in the blood?
Lipids are not soluble in water and so cannot travel freely in the blood Lipids however can pass through cell membranes without assistance
196
What are the 4 classes of lipoproteins?
Chylomicrons VLDL LDL HDL
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What are chylomicrons? What do they transport? Where are they formed?
Chylomicrons transport dietary TAGs from intestines to adipose tissue for storage Produced in epithelial cells in small intestine Present in blood 4-6 hours after meal and are released into the kid via the LYMPHATIC SYSTEM
198
What are VLDLs? What do they transport? Where are they formed?
VLDLs transport TAGs made in the liver to adipose tissue for storage Produced in the liver
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What are LDLs? What do they transport? Where are they formed?
LDLs transport cholesterol made in the liver to tissues Made in liver Specific apolipoprotein APB100 - very important (signaller for cholesterol to be endocytosed)
200
What are HDLs? What do they transport? Where are they formed?
HDLs transport excess tissue cholesterol to the liver where it can be disposed of as bile salts or used to produce steroid hormones
201
What is hyperlipoproteinaemia? What are the different types? (Basic outline)
Raised plasma concentrations of one or more lipoprotein classes due to overproduction or under removal due to defective enzymes, receptors and apolipoprotein Type 1- chylomicrons- defective lipoprotein lipase Type 2-LDL- CAD- defective LDL receptor Type 2b- LDL and VLDL- CAD- unknown defect Type 3- IDL and chylomicrons- CAD- defective apolipoprotein E Type 4-VLDL- CAD- unknown defect Type 5- chylomicrons and VLDL-CAD- unknown defect
202
What is familial hypercholesterolaemia?
Absence (homozygous) or deficiency (heterozygous) of functional LDL receptors Type 2a of hyperlipoproteinaemia Raised LDLs CAD- develops earlier in homozygous and later in heterozygous Due to defective LDL receptor
203
How is the chylomicron and vLDL lipid content transferred into cells?
Lipoprotein lipase on endothelial cells of capillaries, binds chylomicrons and VLDLs Lipoprotein lipase cleaves TAGs into glycerol and fatty acids which enter the adipose tissue and are reassembled for storage Remnants of chylomicrons and VLDLs are removed by liver/ converted to other lipoproteins
204
How is the HDL and LDL lipid content transferred into cells?
HDL and LDL receptors present on cells; endocytosis
205
What are some clinical signs of hypercholesterolaemia?
Xanthelasma - lipid deposit on eyelids Tendon xanthoma - lipid deposits on tendon Corneal arcus - lipid deposits on iris of eye Atheroma- oxidised LDL - macrophage - foam cell - accumulate in intima of blood vessel artery walls - fatty streak - atheroma CAD
206
How do you diagnose hypercholesterolaemia?
Fasting plasma concentration of glucose Total cholesterol and TAG concentration Examination of results of plasma lipoprotein separation by electrophoresis
207
How can hypercholesterolaemia be treated?
Diet lifestyle drugs
208
What does the enzyme lecithin: cholesterol acyl transferase do?
Restores stability of lipoproteins by conversion of surface lipid into core lipid Converts cholesterol into cholesterol ester using the fatty acid derivative from lecithin (phosphatidylcholine)
209
Explain why individuals with a defect in the enzyme LCAT produce unstable lipoproteins of abnormal structure . What are the consequences of an LCAT deficiency
Restores stability of lipoproteins by conversion of surface lipid into core lipid Converts cholesterol into cholesterol ester using the fatty acid derivative from lecithin (phosphatidylcholine) Deficiency of LCAT results in unstable lipoproteins of abnormal structure and therefore general failure of lipid transport (can occur in protein deficiency- kwashiorkors) Lipid deposits occur in many tissues and atherosclerosis is a serious potential problem
210
What is a ROS?
Reactive oxygen species Highly reactive Powerful oxidising agents
211
What are some examples of ROS?
``` Superoxide radical (*O2-) Hydroxyl radical (*OH) Nitric oxide (NO*) Peroxynitrate (ONOO-) Drugs- anti malarials Toxins- Paraguay ```
212
How are superoxide radicals produced?
In the electron transport chain not all electrons reach the oxygen molecule (final electron acceptor) at complex IV (incomplete reduction of oxygen to water) These electron drop out of the etc and react with split molecular oxygen to form the free radical *O2- (superoxide)
213
How are hydroxyl radicals produced?
Produced in all cells from superoxide radicals or hydrogen peroxide Can be produced using ionising radiation- (X and gamma rays- high energy penetration of skin and UV light- skin surface penetration) Very damaging to cell membrane Cannot be rid of by enzymes
214
How are nitric oxide radicals produced?
Free radicals and gas Arginine --(inducible nitric oxide synthase)--> NO* NO* can be produced in large amounts by the body= inflammation
215
How are proxynitrate molecules produced?
NO* + O2 --> ONOO- Very oxidising Damage to cells
216
What are the main cellular defences to ROS and how do they work?
*Superoxide dismutase (SOD) - converts superoxide radicals into hydrogen peroxide (less oxidising than SOR) *Catalase - converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen *Glutathione - 3 amino acids (glutamate, cysteine (SH), glycine) SH of cysteine can donate its hydrogen- so glutathione is a good reducing agent/ antioxidant; becomes oxidised when it reduces a ROS and so disulphide bond forms between 2 glutathione molecules (GSSG) *Antioxidant vitamins A, C, E *Antioxidant flavonoids polyphenols and Beta carotene *Antioxidant minerals selenium and zinc *N acetyl cysteine- very good reducing agent (used to replace glutathione in metabolism of overdose of paracetamol)
217
What are some consequences of ROS in cells?
Damage to DNA and proteins Lipid peroxidation Oxidative stress
218
What is oxidative stress?
When antioxidant levels are too low to deal with ROS levels When production of ROS is high and antioxidant levels are low= oxidative burst Rapid release of SOR and HP from cells (leukocytes- neutrophils and monocytes) NADPH oxidase (membrane bound enzyme in the cell membrane and membrane of phagosomes) transfers electrons across membrane to couple these to molecular oxygen to generate SOR; enzyme important in development of atherosclerosis; rapid production of ROS kills pathogens in the locality There are man conditions associated with oxidative stress Often linked to SOD, catalase, G-6-PD deficiencies
219
What are some conditions associated with oxidative stress?
``` Cancer Emphysema Pancreatitis Cardiovascular disease Crowns disease Rheumatoid arthritis Type 1 diabetes mellitus Alzheimer's disease Ischaemia/ reperfusion injury (cells adjust to low oxygen blood flow, so when O2 is reperfusion its causes lots of oxidative stress - reperfusion injury) ```
220
What are some characteristics of drugs?
Foreign to body, potentially toxic | Lipid soluble
221
What is lipid peroxidation?
Reaction of unsaturated lipids with ROS to form lipid peroxides Unsaturated lipid + *OH -->(loss of H2O) lipid radical + O2 --> lipid peroxyl radical --> lipid peroxide --> lipid radical (continues in cycle) Causes damage to cell membranes Involved in early stages of cardiovascular disease
222
How is fatty acid synthesis regulated?
Acetyl coA carboxylase and fatty acid synthase Allosteric regulation Stimulated by citrate Inhibited by AMP Covalent modification Stimulated by insulin (dephosphorylation) Inhibited by glucagon/ adrenaline
223
What is the purpose of fatty acid synthesis?
How glucose can be converted into acetyl coA and then fatty acids and then stored as TAGs in adipose tissue Hence it occurs in high energy/ glucose conditions as a storage mechanism
224
What enzymes are involved in fatty acid synthesis?
Acetyl coA carboxylase | Fatty acid synthase
225
Why is cholesterol produced in the liver?
It can be used to make the digestive acid bile
226
What regulates the production of cholesterol by the liver?
The levels of bile
227
Where does alcohol metabolism occur?
Liver
228
Phase 1 of drug metabolism uses what complex enzyme system?
Cytochrome P450 CYP450
229
Compare fatty acid oxidation and fatty acid synthesis
``` Fatty acid oxidation Cycle of reactions that remove C2 C2 atoms removed as acetyl coA Occurs in mitochondria Enzymes separate in mitochondrial matrix Oxidative (produces NADH and FAD2H) Requires small amounts of ATP to activate the fatty acid Intermediates are linked to coA Regulated indirectly by availability of fatty acids in mitochondria Glucagon and adrenaline stimulates Insulin inhibits Only in aerobic conditions ``` Fatty acid synthesis Cycle of reactions that add C2 C2 atoms added as Malonyl coA Consumes acetyl coA Occurs in cytoplasm Reductive- requires NADPH Requires large amount of ATP to drive process Intermediates are linked to fatty acid synthase by carrier protein Regulated directly by activity of acetyl coA carboxylase Glucagon and adrenaline inhibit Insulin stimulates
230
Compare substrate level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation
Substrate level phosphorylation Requires soluble enzymes (cytoplasmic and mitochondrial matrix) Energy coupling occurs directly through the formation of a high energy of hydrolysis bond (in phosphorylation group transfer) Can occur to a limited extent in absence of oxygen Minor processes for ATP synthesis in cells require large amounts of energy Oxidative phosphorylation Requires membrane associated complexes (inner mitochondrial membrane) Energy coupling occurs indirectly through the generation and subsequent utilisation of a protein gradient pmf Cannot occur in the absence of oxygen Major processes for ATP synthesis in cells that require large amounts of energy
231
In phase 1 of drug metabolism what cofactor (hydrogen carrier) is used?
NADPH
232
Which isoform of CYP450 accounts for 55% of drug metabolism?
CYP3A4
233
What isoform of CYP450 is used in alcohol metabolism?
CYP2E1
234
Which is more common? That drugs are metabolised into the active form in the body or that drugs are deactivated by the body?
Drugs are more often deactivated by the body in the two have process
235
What is an example of a drug that is metabolised into the active form in the body?
Codeine ----> morphine | Where the enzyme that converts codeine to morphine is deficient codeine does not work for the patient
236
Name the three types of enzymes important to drug metabolism?
Acetylation enzymes in liver (phase 1) Plasma cholinesterase enzymes Alkylation enzymes in liver (phase 2)
237
Describe the 2 causes of variation in drug metabolism in a population?
Genetic factors- polymorphism (individual variation in the expression of metabolic enzymes; normal distribution curve; some individuals may lack the allele that codes for a specific enzyme) Environmental factors-(if two drugs are given simultaneously, then the metabolism of one drug may affect the metabolism of the other by activating or inhibiting enzymes in the cyp450 system)- enzyme induction and inhibition
238
What is drug enzyme induction and what are some examples?
When one drug increases the metabolism of another drug Alcohol Nicotine Barbiturate --- increase number of enzymes in liver
239
What is drug enzyme inhibition and what are some examples?
When one drug decreases the metabolism of another drug Cimetidine used to reduce stomach acid Grapefruit and cranberry juice
240
How do cholinesterase enzymes work in drug metabolism?
Found in blood plasma Affect drugs containing ester bonds (e.g. Suxamethonium) Act by hydrolysis in phase 1 of metabolism
241
What is the effect of a lack of an enzyme involved in drug metabolism?
The effect of the drug on the body lasts much longer than expected
242
What is the effect of a paracetamol overdose on the body?
Produces NAPQI which is a toxic metabolite to the liver Glutathione is used in conjugation instead of glucuronic acid and sulphate (which will have been used up) Use of glutathione means that glutathione is no longer available to protect against ROS- so exposure to oxidative stress Liver failure (oxidative stress and NAPQI) Liver transplant required in severe cases Nausea, sweating, liver damage, kidney failure, pain in right upper quadrant due to hepatic necrosis Toxic dose is 10g or 200mg per Kg.
243
What is a potential treatment for paracetamol overdose?
Can be treated with N-acetyl cysteine (SH) (NAC) which donates Hydrogen and acts as an antioxidant / very good reducing agent Prevents liver from oxidation and replaces the function of glutathione Treatment: stomach pumping, replenish glutathione by giving Nacetylcysteine, liver transplant.
244
How are is cholesterol synthesis regulated?
Reductase enzyme Hormone regulation Stimulated by insulin Inhibited by glucagon
245
What is the structure of a lipoprotein?
Hydrophilic molecules on outside: apolipoproteins, phospholipids, cholesterol Hydrophobic molecules on inside: triacylglycrides, cholesterol ester
246
What 4 components make up a control system?
Communication Control centre Receptor Effector
247
What 4 methods of communication in the body are there?
Nervous- action potential Endocrine- hormones Paracrine- local hormones Autocrine- hormones which affect the cells that release them
248
What does the control centre do?
CNS Determines set point Analyses input Determines an appropriate response
249
What do receptors do?
Detect stimuli and transfer the stimuli to control centre via the signal AFFERENT pathway
250
What do effectors do?
Generate an effect and receive stimuli from the control centre via the signal EFFERENT pathway
251
What is negative feedback?
Where the effector produces an effect which opposes the stimulus Occurs in most homeostasis control systems
252
What is positive feedback?
Where the effector produces a response which increases its effect System ales out of control Rare
253
What does the term biological rhythms suggest?
Set point is not fixed- set point can vary
254
What is a circadian/ diurnal rhythm?
24hour change in set point
255
What are some examples of biological rhythms within the body?
Temperature Cortisol levels - highest in morning (hence time at which bloods were taken should ALWAYS be recorded) Menstrual cycle - woman's core body temp varies in cycle- sudden increase in temp is a marker for ovulation Time- biological clock in hypothalamus of brain (superchiasmatic nucleus) Body water homeostasis- osmoreceptors in hypothalamus, ADH
256
Describe time as a biological rhythm
Biological clock = superchiasmatic nucleus in hypothalamus When we travel across time zones, out biological clock will tell us one time and zeitgeibers (clues around us) will tell us a different time = JET LAG Melatonin produced from the pineal gland is involved in setting the biological clock- released at night- light/dark cycle
257
Describe body water homeostasis as a biological rhythm
70kg male 42L water 28l IC 9.4l EC and 4.6lblood plasma Osmolality and sodium concentration monitored by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus Increase in osmolality (high conc of solvent in solute) in the blood plasma -> release of ADH from posterior pituitary gland (urine is made more concentrated) -> increased reabsorption of H2O from urine into the blood in collecting ducts in the kidney -> decrease in osmolality of blood plasma
258
Define a hormone
Chemical signals produced in endocrine glands or tissues that travel in the blood stream to cause an effect on other tissues
259
What are some key features of hormones?
Released from endocrine glands Travel in blood stream Only affect certain cells Only interact where there are receptors Specific hormones have specific receptors Can have an effect in small amounts Its secretion is usually controlled by a negative feedback system Long-lasting effects Circulate in very low concentrations Take about 30 seconds to reach all parts of the body
260
What are the 4 classes of hormones?
Polypeptide Glycoproteins Amino acid derivatives Steroids
261
What are polypeptide hormones?
Largest group Single chain peptides Some organised in closely related families GH (191aa) Insulin (51aa in 2 chains) Thyrotrophin releasing hormone (3aa) Gut hormones
262
What are glycoproteins hormones?
All have 2 polypeptide chains with carbohydrate side chains (alpha and beta) Related families Thyroid stimulating hormone follicle stimulating hormones Luteinising hormones Human chorionic gonadotrophin
263
What are steroid hormones?
``` All derived from cholesterol C27 calciferols (vitamin D) C21 corticosteroids (gluco/mineralo corticoids and C19 androgens and C18 oestrogens) ```
264
What are amino acid derivative hormones?
``` Some form tyrosine Thyroid hormone (T4 and T3) Adrenaline Histamine from histidine 5 hydroxytryptamine from tryptophan ```
265
Which hormones are generally water soluble? What is the effect of this?
Polypeptide glycoprotein hormones and adrenaline (amino acid derivatives) Water soluble => travel freely in blood plasma Hormones cannot cross cell membranes on their own Hormones bind to receptors on cell membrane surface which activates a second messenger pathway- second internal messenger exerts metabolic effects often modifying the action of enzymes Faster
266
Which hormones are generally not water soluble? What is the effect of this?
Steroid hormones and thyroid hormones (amino acid derivative) Not water soluble => travel in blood plasma bound to binding proteins Dynamic equilibrium exists between bound and free forms of hormones in blood plasma Only the free form is biologically active Carrier proteins increase the solubility of hormone in plasma, increase the half life of hormone and act as a readily accessible reserve Hormones can cross cell membrane as they are lipid soluble Hormones bind to receptors on the inner membrane, in the cytoplasm or on the nucleus forming a dimer Binds to hormone response element of DNA Switches transcription on or off Particular protein production is switched on or off Alters gene expression- slower and longer lasting
267
What class of hormone is insulin?
Polypeptide
268
What class of hormone is thyroid stimulating hormone?
Glycoprotein
269
What class of hormone are T3 and T4?
Amino acid derivative
270
What class of hormone is FSH?
Glycoprotein
271
What class of hormone is histamine?
Amino acid derivative
272
What class of hormones are the corticosteroids, androgens, oestrogens?
Steroids
273
What is the general control pathway for hormones?
Hypothalamus --(releasing factors)--> anterior pituitary gland --(tropic hormones)--> endocrine glands --> produce a hormone --> transported in blood (freely or bound to binding protein) --> target cells (receptors and response)--> eventual inactivation of chemical by liver kidney or target tissues
274
Describe in outline the control of appetite
Appetite (satiety) centre- arcuate the nucleus in hypothalamus (primary and secondary neurones) Different hormones stimulate or inhibit a primary neurone ``` PRIMARY NEURONES (sense metabolite levels and respond to hormones) Excitatory neurones- release Neuropeptide Y (NPY) and Agouti related peptide (AgRP) which stimulate secondary neurone- stimulate appetite Inhibitory neurones- release proopiomelanocortin (POMC) which is enzymatically cleaved to produce alpha melanocytes stimulating hormone (alpha MSH) which bind to MC4 receptors on secondary neurone and inhibit the secondary neurone -suppressing appetite and beta endorphins which gives a feeling of euphoria/tiredness ``` SECONDARY NEURONES (synthesise input from primary neurones and coordinate a response via the vagus nerve)
275
What hormones act on the primary neurones in the arcuate nucleus?
``` Ghrelin PYY Leptin Insulin Amylin ```
276
What is ghrelin and how does it act on the primary neurone?
Peptide hormone Released from wall of the stomach when it's empty Stimulates the excitatory primary neurone STIMULATION OF APPETITE
277
What is pyy and how does it act on the primary neurone?
Peptide hormone Released from wall of small intestine Inhibits the excitatory primary neurone SUPPRESSION OF APPETITE
278
What is leptin and how does it act on the primary neurone?
``` Peptide hormone Released from adipocytes Inhibits excitatory primary neurone Stimulates inhibitory primary neurone SUPPRESSION OF APPETITE Effect from secondary neurone- induced the expression of uncoupling proteins in the mitochondria, dissipating pmf energy as heat ```
279
What is insulin and how does it act on the primary neurone?
``` Peptide hormone Released from beta cells of pancreas Inhibits excitatory primary neurone Stimulates inhibitory primary neurone SUPPRESSION OF APPETITE ```
280
What is amylin and how does it act on the primary neurone?
``` Peptide hormone Released by beta cells of pancreas Inhibits excitatory primary neurone Stimulates inhibitory primary neurone SUPPRESSION OF APPETITE ``` Effect from secondary neurone- decreases glucagon secretion and slows gastric emptying
281
What is the metabolic syndrome?
Co occurrence in the same individual of a number of cardiovascular risk factors such as dyslipidaemia, hypertension, insulin resistance and glucose intolerance, usually in association with overweight or obesity and a sedentary lifestyle
282
What is the WHO criteria for metabolic syndrome?
``` Waist: hip ratio >0.9(men) ; >0.8(women) BMI > 30 kg/m(squared) BP > 140/90 mmHg Triacylglycrides >1.7 mM HDL < 0.9mM(men) ; 0.8mM(women) Glucose uptake in lowest quartile ```
283
What is the overall opinion of the metabolic syndrome by the medical profession at the moment?
Not yet universally accepted by medical profession
284
Brief outline of the developmental origins of health and disease (DOHad) theory
Barker hypothesis- Several health surveys of large cohorts of adult males; Statistical analysis showed the strongest association between incidence of adult disease (CHD, hypertension, T2 diabetes) and low birth and placenta weight Fetal programming- biochemical adaptation took place in the foetus according to the supply of nutrients via the placenta ; these adaptations were programmed in for adult life and predisposed the individual to developing chronic diseases throughout life; adaptations which appeared to be heritable- passed through the mother
285
What is epigenetics?
A stably inherited phenotype resulting from changes in a chromosome without alterations in the DNA sequences; mechanism appears to involve methylation of DNA and changes to histone structure which causes suppression of gene transcription
286
What is fetal programming?
Biochemical adaptations which are programmed in for the predisposing individuals to chronic conditions
287
What is hypoglycaemia?
Blood glucose level < 3.0 mM Rapidly can be fatal- glucose is essential for CNS function (without it CNS will starve and die) Often mistaken for drunkenness- slurred speech, reduced coordination, dizziness, headache, coma and then death
288
What is hyperglycaemia?
``` Random blood glucose level > 11.1mM Fasting blood glucose level > 7mM Glucose in urine- above renal threshold Polyuria and polydipsia due to osmosis Non enzymatic glycosylation of proteins- haemoglobin - HbA1c ```
289
What is diabetes mellitus?
Chronic condition/ State of hyperglycaemia due to insulin deficiency and or resistance, leading to small and large vessel damage in which there is premature death (of vessels) from cardiovascular disease
290
Main differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes
Type 1- insulin deficiency (loss of all or most of B cells); develops in young; can be rapidly fatal; must be treated with insulin; ketone bodies are produced Type 2- insulin resistance (body not able to use insulin that is produced) and insulin deficiency (develops with slow progressive loss of B cells); develops in older individuals; may be present for a long time before diagnosis; may not initially need treatment with insulin- but eventually will; ketone bodies are not produced
291
What is the believed cause of type 1 diabetes?
It’s likely that a genetic predisposition to the disease interacts with an environmental trigger to produce immune activation. This leads to the production of killer lymphocytes and macrophages and antibodies that attack and progressively destroy b-cells (an auto-immune process). The genetic predisposition is associated with the genetic markers HLA DR3 and HLA DR4.
292
What is the typical pattern of presentation of Type 1 diabetes?
Typically for type 1 - a lean young person with a recent history of viral infection who present a triad of symptoms: - Polyuria – excess urine production. Large quantities of glucose in the blood are filtered by the kidney, so not all of it is reabsorbed. The extra glucose in the nephron places an extra osmotic load on it, meaning that less water is reabsorbed to maintain osmotic pressure. - Polydipsia – thirst and drinking a lot, due to polyuria. - Weight loss - as fat and protein are metabolised because insulin is absent Ketoacidosis may also be apparent- nausea, vomit, coma, death (Due to increased amount of fatty acid in liver) Dehydration, tiredness, weakness, lethargy, blurring of vision
293
What is the typical progress of type 1 diabetes?
People can be found with the relevant HLA markers and auto-antibodies but without glucose or insulin abnormalities. They may then develop impaired glucose tolerance, then diabetes (sometimes initially diet controlled) before becoming totally insulin dependant.
294
How is type 1 diabetes diagnosed?
Type 1 can be diagnosed by measurement of plasma glucose levels. Blood glucose is elevated because of the lack of insulin. Diabetes is diagnosed in the presence of symptoms i.e. polyuria, polydipsia and unexplained weight loss plus: - A random venous plasma glucose concentration > 11.1 mmol/l or - A fasting plasma glucose concentration > 7.0 mmol/l (whole blood > 6.1 mmol/l) or - Plasma glucose concentration > 11.1 mmol/l 2 hours after 75g anhydrous glucose in a oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) - smell of acetone on breath
295
Why does a type 1 diabetic display hyperglyceamia and hence glycosuria?
The lack of insulin causes: - decrease in the uptake of glucose into adipose tissue and skeletal muscle - decrease in the storage of glucose as glycogen in muscle and liver - Gluconeogenesis in liver The high blood glucose will lead to the appearance of glucose in the urine (glycosuria) as glucose exceeds the renal threshold of the kidney, and if not dealt with rapidly the individual will progress to a life-threatening crisis (diabetic ketoacidosis)
296
Why does a type 1 diabetic display ketoacidosis in severe cases?
High rates of b-oxidation of fats in the liver coupled to the low insulin/anti-insulin ratio leads to the production of huge amounts of ketone bodies (such as acetoacetone, acetone and b-hydroxybutyrate). Acetone, which is volatile may be breathed out, and smelt on the patient’s breath. The H+ associated with ketones produce a metabolic acidosis – ketoacidosis. The features of ketoacidosis are: prostration, hyperventilation, nausea, vomiting, dehydration and abdominal pain. Ketoacidosis is a very dangerous condition. It is most important to test for ketones in the urine when assessing diabetes control.
297
How can ketoacidosis in a type 1 diabetic patient be recognised?
Acetone, which is volatile may be breathed out, and smelt on the patient’s breath Test for ketones in the urine Ketone plasma conc (normally 10mM
298
What three metabolic processes does diabetes primarily affect?
Lipolysis Glycogenesis Gluconeogenesis
299
What is the believed cause of type 2 diabetes?
Genetic predisposition- only manifested with the influence of the environment- OBESITY Impaired glucose intolerance for example with pregnancy (ie, body cannot produce extra insulin to deal with demands of pregnancy)
300
What is the typical presentation of someone with type 2 diabetes?
Elderly individual with weight related problems (obesity) Slower onset of symptoms (triad of polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss) Tiredness, thrush, blurring of vision etc. Can be asymptomatic depending on progress stage Ketoacidosis is never apparent in type 2 (as some insulin is present and so lipolysis not activated and hence fewer fas available to make ketone bodies)
301
What is the typical progress of type 2 diabetes?
People can be found with insulin resistance then as insulin production fails they develop impaired glucose tolerance. Finally they will develop diabetes that can initially be controlled by diet, then tablets, then insulin. If the process continues long enough they may lose all insulin production.
302
How can type 2 diabetes be diagnosed?
Type 1 can be diagnosed by measurement of plasma glucose levels. Blood glucose is elevated because of the lack of insulin. Diabetes is diagnosed in the presence of symptoms i.e. polyuria, polydipsia and unexplained weight loss plus: - A random venous plasma glucose concentration > 11.1 mmol/l or - A fasting plasma glucose concentration > 7.0 mmol/l (whole blood > 6.1 mmol/l) or - Plasma glucose concentration > 11.1 mmol/l 2 hours after 75g anhydrous glucose in a oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
303
In an asymptotic diabetes patient, how is diabetes diagnosed?
With no symptoms diagnosis should not be based on a single glucose determination but requires confirmatory venous plasma glucose determination. At least one additional glucose test result on another day with a value in the diabetic range is essential, either fasting, from a random sample or from the two hour post glucose load.
304
In a diabetic patient, what are the causes and consequences of hypoglycaemia?
A diabetic can become hypoglycaemic with an excess of insulin, coupled with less than usual glucose in diet and/or excess exercise compared to usual (plasma glucose <3mmol/l) This can become fatal as the CNS and other glucose dependant tissues require a constant supply of glucose. The patient may experience sweating, anxiety, hunger, tremor, palpitations, confusion, drowsiness, seizures, coma. The severe consequences of hypoglycaemia are a reason why a diabetic is more likely to maintain a higher blood glucose level.
305
In a diabetic patient, what are the causes and consequences of hyperglycaemia?
High intake of glucose, and wrong (too low) dosage of insulin Blood glucose >11 mmol/l. Symptoms include polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, fatigue, blurred vision, dry or itchy skin, poor wound healing. Plasma proteins may become glycosylated, affecting their functions
306
What is the typical treatment of type 1 diabetes?
Exogenous insulin by subcutaneous injections (directly below epidermis and dermis) several times a day Patients must be educated to treat themselves at appropriate times with appropriate doses so as to mimic as closely as possible the behaviour of pancreatic islets in controlling blood glucose. On occasion, if the patient has an infection or suffered a trauma, insulin dosage needs to be increased or there is a risk of ketoacidosis. The social and psychological implications are huge, and the degree of control achieved by patients can be very variable. Dietary management and regular exercise are vital components of the treatment regime. The management of blood glucose requires frequent blood glucose measurement. A small amount of blood from a finger prick is sufficient to measure blood glucose using the BM stick and reader. There is always a risk that blood glucose will fall too low – hypoglycaemia – so both patients and their associates need to be aware of the signs and symptoms of hypoglycaemia, which can occasionally be fatal unless treated with glucose either my mouth or by infusion.
307
Why must insulin be injected subcutaneously?
It is a peptide hormone that can be digested in the stomach
308
What is the typical treatment of type 2 diabetes?
Education Lifestyle: diet and exercise Non insulin therapies: “oral hypoglycaemic” drugs such as sulphonylureas that increase insulin release from the remaining b-cells, and reduce insulin resistance and particularly metformin that reduces gluconeogenesis Insulin can be given when all B cells have become damaged and no more insulin is produced
309
How is uptake of glucose into the eye, kidney and peripheral nerves controlled?
Not by insulin | By the extracellular glucose concentration
310
What happens to the eyes, peripheral nerves and kidney in a state of hyperglycaemia?
During hyperglycaemia the intracellular concentration of glucose in these tissues increases and glucose is metabolised via the enzyme aldose reductase which catalyses the reaction: ​Glucose + NADPH + H+ --> Sorbitol + NADP This reaction depletes NADPH and leads to increased disulphide bond formation in cellular proteins altering their structure and function. The accumulation of sorbitol causes osmotic damage to cells.
311
In a state of hyperglycaemia what happens to haemoglobin?
Glucose in the blood will react with the terminal valine of the haemoglobin molecule to produce glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c).
312
What is the effect of hyperglycaemia on plasma proteins?
Hyperglycaemia is also associated with increased non-enzymatic glycosylation of plasma proteins (e.g. lipoproteins) that leads to disturbances in their function. Glucose reacts with free amino groups in proteins to form stable covalent linkages. The extent of glycosylation depends on the glucose concentration and the half-life of the protein. Glycosylation changes the net charge on the protein and the 3D structure of the protein, therefore affects the function of the protein.
313
What is the relevance of glycosylated haemoglobin?
The percentage of HBA1c is a good indicator of how effective blood glucose control has been. As RBCs normally spend ~3 months in the circulation the %HbA1c is related to the average blood glucose concentration over the preceding 2-3 months Glucose reacts non-enzymatically with the terminal valine of haemoglobin to form glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c). Extent of glycosylation depends on blood glucose concentration and half-life of haemoglobin (~60days). Poor glycaemic control = high blood glucose = high HbA1c. Good glycaemic control = normal blood glucose = normal HbA1c (~5%).
314
What test can be done to check the long term management of diabetes?
HbA1c
315
What are some of the macrovascular complications of diabetes?
risk of stroke risk of myocardial infarction Poor circulation to the periphery – particularly the feet
316
What are some of the micro vascular complications of diabetes?
Diabetic eye disease: Changes in the lens due to osmotic effects of glucose (glaucoma) and possibly cataracts. More important problem is diabetic retinopathy – damage to blood vessels in the retina, which can lead to blindness. Damages blood vessels may leak and form protein exudates on the retina or they can rupture and cause bleeding in the eye. New vessels may form (proliferative retinopathy) - these are weak and can easily bleed. Diabetic kidney disease (nephropathy): This is due to damage to the glomeruli, poor blood supply because of change in kidney blood vessels, or damage from infections of the urinary tract (more common in diabetics – excess glucose for bacteria to thrive). An early sign of nephropathy is a ­protein in the urine (microalbuminuria). Diabetic neuropathy: Damage to the peripheral nerves which directly absorb glucose causing changes of or loss of sensation, and changes due to alteration in the function of the autonomic nervous system. Diabetic feet: Poor blood supply, damage to nerves and increase risk of infection all sum up to make the feet of a diabetic vulnerable. In the past, loss of feet through gangrene was not uncommon. Care is needed to keep feet in good condition.
317
Describe the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas
Large mixed exocrine/endocrine gland Adjacent to duodenum Exocrine: acinar (99%); produces digestive enzymes; secreted directly into the duodenum; alkaline secretions through pancreatic duct into the duodenum Endocrine: islet cells (1%) near to capillaries for direct secretion; hormone production
318
What do the various cells of the endocrine pancreas secrete?
B cells - insulin (regulation of metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats) A cells - glucagon (regulation of metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats) D cells - somatostatin (inhibits release of hormones from islet cells) F cells - pancreatic polypeptide (GI function) 5th cell - ghrelin (appetitie- also secreted by wall of stomach)
319
What is the role of insulin?
Anabolic- glucose storage Released by B cells of pancreas when blood glucose levels are high Targets liver, adipose tissue and skeletal muscle Causes glycogenesis, lipogenesis, (protein synthesis)
320
What is the structure of insulin?
2 unbranched peptide chains which a connected by 2 disulphide bridges- ensures stability 51 amino acids (A= 21, B=30)
321
What is the role of glucagon?
Catabolic- glucose release Released by A cells of pancreas when blood glucose is low Targets liver and adipose mainly Causes glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, ketone body synthesis
322
What is the structure of glucagon?
29 amino acids in 1 polypeptide chain | No disulphide bridges = flexible
323
What is the synthesis of glucagon compared to insulin?
Simpler synthesis than insulin Synthesised in RER Transported to Golgi Packaged into granules Margination- movement of storage vesicles to cell surface Exocytosis- fusion of vesicle membrane with plasma membrane with release of vesicle contents
324
How is insulin synthesised?
Pre- pro insulin produced on RER ribosomes and enters the RER Cleavage of pre signal = pro insulin Pro insulin folds to ensure correct alignment of cysteine residues so that correct disulphide bonds form Pro insulin is transported from the ER, through the golgi and packaged into vesicles Proteolysis in the storage vesicles by endopeptidases results in the excision of the C peptide in the middle of the chain Results in two single chains held together by two disulphide bonds (Storage vesicles contain equimolar amounts of mature insulin, 4 basic amino acids and C peptide) These are all secreted together in exocytosis from the cell
325
What is the clinical relevance of C peptide?
Measurement of plasma C peptide levels in patients receiving insulin can be used to monitor any endogenous insulin secretion
326
What is margination?
Movement of storage vesicles towards the cell membrane
327
How is insulin secreted from B cells?
An increase in glucose in the ECF is a stimulus for insulin release Glucose enters B cells by facilitated diffusion through Glut2, resulting in an increase in ICF concentration of glucose in B cells This causes an increase in glycolysis which leads to an increase in ATP High ATP causes an inactivation of ATP sensitive potassium ion channel (so no more potassium can enter the cell) which causes a depolarisation of the membrane As a result the voltage gated calcium channels open, and there is an influx of calcium into the cell Increase in ICF calcium triggers the exocytosis of insulin containing secretory granules
328
How is insulin stored in the B cells?
Insulin is stored in the B cell storage granules as a crystalline zinc- insulin complex
329
How does insulin travel in the blood?
Freely- it is a water soluble polypeptide hormone so does not require a binding protein
330
How does insulin activate a target cell receptor?
Insulin receptor is a dimer (2 subunits each made up of 1B chain (which spans the membrane) and protruding 1A chain- 1A and 1B are connected via a single disulphide bond) When insulin detected A chains move together and fold around the insulin B chains then move together making the B chains an active tyrosine kinase This initiates a phosphorylation cascade - which results in an increase in Glut4 expression (increase in uptake of glucose into cells) So cell takes up more glucose
331
How does glucagon activate a target cell receptor?
It takes up its active conformation on binding to its receptor on the surface of target cells. Binds to a specific glucagon receptor in the cell membrane, a type of receptor termed a G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR). Binding to the receptor activates the enzyme adenylate cyclase, which increases cyclic AMP (cAMP) intracellularly High levels of cAMP activate protein kinase A (PKA), which phosphorylates and :. activates important enzymes within the target cell.
332
List the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary and their functions
ACTH- acts on adrenal gland to release cortisol (initiates bodies response to stress) (corticotrophs) GH- acts on liver to release IGF1 (growth, muscle strength metabolism, bone density) (somatotrophs) TSH- acts on thyroid to release T3 and T4 (metabolism) (thyrotrophs) Prolactin-acts on mammary glands to release milk (initiates and maintains lactation) (lactotrophs) FSH/LH- acts on ovaries or testes (FSH- sperm production (m) and release of follicle from ovaries and oestrogen stimulation (f) / LH- testosterone secretion (m) and oestrogen and progesterone release (ovulation) (f)) (gonadotrophs)
333
List the hormones produced by the posterior pituitary
Oxytocin ADH osmolality and Na+ concentration of blood plasma is constantly monitored by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus- monitor release of ADH- which has effect on the kidney of causing an increase in permeability of the collecting ducts to water thus n reseeding the reabsorption of water from urine into the blood
334
List the hormones produced by the adrenal gland and their functions
Mineralocorticoids- aldosterone- regulates body Na+ and K+ levels Glucocorticoids- cortisol- regulate carbohydrate metabolism Androgens- sex hormones- dehydroepiandrosterone Adrenaline- epinephrine
335
What are the two layers of the adrenal gland called?
Cortex and medulla
336
What are the three layers of the adrenal cortex called and what does each layer produce?
Zona glomerulosa- mineralocorticoids Zona fasisculata- glucocorticoids Zona reticularis- glucocorticoids and androgens
337
How is adrenaline synthesised in the adrenal medulla?
The catecholamines are synthesised in a series of enzyme-catalysed steps. The catecholamines are stored in the medullary cells in vesicles. Tyrosine --> Dopa --> Dopamine --> Noradrenaline -->(methylation)--> Adrenaline
338
Describe the actions of adrenaline
Adrenaline is released as part of the fright, flight or fight response in man and it is secreted in response to stress situations. It has effects on: - Cardiovascular System (­Cardiac Output, ­ Blood supply to muscle) - Central Nervous System (­Mental alertness) - Carbohydrate Metabolism (­Glycogenolysis in liver and muscle) - Lipid Metabolism (­Lipolysis in adipose tissue)
339
What are the clinical consequences of over secretion of adrenaline?
``` Overproduction by the adrenal medulla, usually due to a tumour (Phaemochromocytoma), may be associated with: o Hypertension o Palpitations o Sweating o Anxiety​ o Pallor o Glucose intolerance ```
340
Describe the general structure of steroid hormones
Produced from cholesterol via progesterone ina series of enzyme catalysed reactions All steroid hormones are hydrophobic and must be transported in the blood bound to proteins (90% with transcortin/ or with corticosteroid binding globulin) Steroid hormones differ from each other in number of C atoms, essence of functional groups and distribution of C=C bonds Cortisol is part of C21 steroid family
341
Explain how steroid hormones affect their target tissues
Corticosteroids are hydrophobic and so can cross the cell membrane of target cells and bind to cytoplasmic receptors The hormone/receptor complex then enters the nucleus to interact with specific regions of DNA This interaction changes the rate of transcription of specific genes and may take some time Affects gene expression
342
Explain how cortisol secretion is controlled
Physical (temperature/pain), chemical (hypoglycaemia) and emotional stressors stimulate release of CRH CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone) released from hypothalamus and travels via hypophyseal portal vessels to anterior pituitary CRH stimulates the release of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) from the corticotrophins of the anterior pituitary ACTH stimulates adrenal gland to secrete cortisol Negative feedback - cortisol on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland
343
How can ACTH lead to increased pigmentation in certain areas of the body?
Proopiomelanocortin (POMC) is a biosynthetic precursor molecule which is cleaved to produce ACTH and alpha MSH (melanocyte stimulating hormone) (and other molecules- like endorphins in control of appetite) Alpha MSH is contained within the ACTH sequence in POMC giving ACTH some MSH like activity when present in excess Therefore increased ACTH => increased alpha MSH => increased production of melanin from melanocytes => pigmentation
344
Describe the action of ACTH on adrenal gland ( peptide hormone action)
ACTH is a hydrophilic peptide hormone and so interacts with high affinity MC2 receptors on the cell membrane of cells in the zona fasisculata and reticularis in cortex Binding of ACTH to mc2 receptors stimulates cAMP inside the cell to act as a secondary messenger This causes the activation of cholesterol esterase and conversion of cholesterol esters into free cholesterol and stimulates other steps in the synthesis of cortisol from cholesterol =release of cortisol
345
Describe the main actions of cortisol (steroid hormone action)
Cortisol is a hydrophobic steroid hormone and so is transported in the blood bound to plasma proteins (transcortin/ corticosteroid binding globulin) Cortisol can cross cell membranes of target cells and bind to cytoplasmic receptors The hormone receptor complex then enters the nucleus and interacts with specific regions of DNA This interaction changes the rate of transcription of that specific gene/portion of DNA and may take some time to occur Cortisol- stress response => affects metabolism - decrease in aa uptake and protein synthesis, increase in proteolysis - increase in hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis - increase in lipolysis in adipose tissue (to really high levels of cortisol can lead to an increase in lipogenesis in adipose tissue) -decrease in peripheral uptake of glucose (anti insulin hormones increase) OVERALL EFFECT increase in blood glucose, aa and fatty acids
346
Describe the pituitary glands
Located in base of brain Suspended from hypothalamus by a stalk Blood supply via hypophyseal portal vessels as well as arterial supply from superior and inferior hypophyseal arteries Anterior pituitary derived from up growth of primitive pharynx Posterior pituitary derived from down growth of neural tissue from hypothalamus
347
Describe the adrenal glands
Endocrine glands which cap the upper lobes of the kidney and lie against the diaphragm Contain the outer cortex (mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids and androgens) and inner medulla (adrenaline)
348
What are the 5 main disorders of the pituitary gland?
``` Prolactinoma Gonadotrophinoma GH adenoma ACTH adenoma TSHoma ```
349
What are the 5 main causes of prolactinoma?
``` Pregnancy Physiological Pharmalogical Pituitary Poly cystic ovaries ```
350
What drug is used to control prolactinomas?
Dopamine agonist (capergoline/ quinagolide)
351
What symptoms can a gonadotrophinoma female patient present with?
``` Hair growth Acne Menstrual problems Virilisation Increased muscle bulk Deepening of voice ``` More obvious in females than males
352
What symptoms can a gonadotrophinoma male patient present with?
Growth and development of male genital tract, height, body shape and hair Lower voice pitch
353
How can a GH adenoma affect a patient?
``` Acromegaly = Growth of hands and feet Coarse features Sweating Headaches Hypertension Diabetes Gigantism ```
354
What is another name for a pituitary ACTH adenoma?
Cushings disease
355
What are some key symptoms of ACTH adenoma?
``` Rounded/ plethoric face Central obesity with striae Easy bruising Proximal myopathy Hypertension Diabetes ```
356
How can a pituitary adenoma affect vision?
Compression of structures by adenoma -optic chiasm (upwards) and cavernous sinus (laterally) can cause visual defects
357
If the anterior pituitary fails what is the effect in the hormones it secretes?
GH LH FSH TSH ACTH all decrease | Prolactin increases
358
How do you test for a adrenocortical diseases?
1. basal test when suspecting adrenocortical disease- stable hormone levels at any time of the day ; 24hr urinary excretion 2. dynamic test in differential diagnosis of adrenocortical disease- (e.g dexamethasone suppression tests and ACTH stimulation test)
359
How can a pituitary adenoma be treated?
Control or removal of tumour- surgery (transphenoidal or transcranial) / radiotherapy (external beam gamma knife) / medical therapy Reduction of excess hormone secretion Replacement of hormone deficiencies
360
What are the advantages of radiotherapy for pituitary adenomas?
Prevention of tumour growth | Protection of vision
361
What are the disadvantages of radiotherapy for pituitary adenoma?
Damage to normal pituitary gland | Increased risk of stroke
362
What are the three main disorders of the adrenal glands?
Hyperactivity Hypoactivity Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
363
What is hyperactivity of the adrenal gland also called?
Cushing's syndrome- excess secretion of cortisol
364
What are the 4 main causes of Cushing's syndrome?
Pituitary adenoma (Cushing's disease) Adrenal adenoma Ectopic secretion of ACTH (cancer) Use of exogenous steroids
365
What are the general signs and symptoms of a cushingoid individual?
Moon face and fat deposition on face, neck, abdomen Apple on a stick body shape (central obesity with wasted skinny arms and legs) Purple striae on lower abdomen Easy bruising High blood pressure Polyuria Polydipsia Back pain and collapse of ribs- osteoporosis
366
What are the metabolic effects of Cushing's syndrome (adrenal hyperactivity)?
Increase in cortisol Increase in hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis- hyperglycaemia Increase in proteolysis- muscle wastage and purple striae (protein structures affected) Increase in lipogenesis in adipose tissue (at v high cortisol levels)- fat ********* Disturbances in calcium metabolism and loss of bone matrix protein - back pain and osteoporosis Cortisol binds to mineralocorticoid receptors- increased retention of sodium and water in kidney and increased wasting of potassium- hypertension
367
What can a cushingoid individual be confused with?
Consumer of excess alcohol = pseudo Cushing's
368
What tests should be done on a suspected cushingoid individual?
MRI - size and site of adenoma/ carcinoma - adrenal or pituitary? Plasma concentrations of ACTH and cortisol 24hour urinary cortisol excretion Dexamethasone suppression test
369
What dynamic test is used to test for an excess in cortisol secretion/ Cushing syndrome?
Dexamethasone suppression test
370
How does the dexamethasone suppression test work?
Normally DMS increases the negative feedback effect which decreases CRH and ACTH secretion and hence a decrease in cortisol secretion = Normal pituitary and adrenal function cortisol secretion is suppressed In a patient with a pituitary ACTH tumour (Cushing's disease) DMS at low doses will increase the negative feedback effect a little bit which decreases CRH secretion but ACTH secretion will still be high and so will cortisol. At high doses CRH secretion will decrease, and so will ACTH secretion as suppression will occur since diseased pituitary still has some sensitivity to the effect of the dexamethasone and thus cortisol secretion will also decrease = suggests Cushing's disease In a patient with an Ectopic secretion of ACTH, DMS will increase the negative feedback effect which decreases CRH secretion but ACTH secretion will still be high and thus so will cortisol secretion = suggests Ectopic secretion of ACTH In a patient with an adrenal tumour, DMS will increase the negative feedback effect which decreases CRH and ACTH secretion but cortisol secretion will still be high = suggests problem with adrenal gland
371
How can one determine the cause of Cushing syndrome?
Dexamethasone test - low and high doses
372
What is hypoactivity of the adrenal gland also called?
Addison's disease - deficient secretion of cortisol
373
What are the 2 main causes of Addison's disease?
Diseases of adrenal cortex (autoimmune destruction) -reduces glucocorticoids, androgens and mineralocorticoids Disorders in pituitary or hypothalamus that lead to decreased secretion of ACTH or CRH which only affects glucocorticoids
374
What are the general signs and symptoms of an addisonian individual?
``` Tiredness Extreme muscular weakness Weight loss and anorexia Occasional dizziness Dehydration Hypotension Increased pigmentation ```
375
What are the metabolic effects of Addison's?
Decrease in cortisol Decrease in gluconeogenesis- hypoglycaemia Decrease in glycogenolysis- hypoglycaemia Decrease in proteolysis- weight loss Decrease in lipogenesis- maybe some lipolysis (at low cortisol levels) - weight loss Less binding of cortisol to mineralocorticoid receptors- so decreased retention of Na and water in kidney and so hypotension Increase in levels of alpha MSH (due to less negative feedback) and so hyperpigmentation Reduced appetite - weight loss
376
How does Addison's with an adrenal cause affect the production of steroids?
Glucocorticoids- decreased production- less gluconeogenesis, less preoteolysis, less lipogenesis =dizziness and tiredness (hypoglycaemic on fasting) Mineralocorticoids- under secretion of aldosterone, Na+ not reabsorbed in kidney so increased water loss (increased retention of K+) = dehydration and low blood pressure (hypotension) Androgens= less facial and body hair
377
How does Cushing's syndrome with an adrenal cause affect the production of steroids?
``` Glucocorticoids= increase in cortisol, increase in gluconeogenesis, proteolysis and lipogenesis (= fat, muscle wastage, energy burst) Mineralocorticoids= increased reabsorption of Na+ in kidneys and hence increased retention of water (loss of K+) ( hyper tension) Androgens= over secretion means increased growth a development of male genital tract and male and female secondary characteristics (hair, deeper voice, body shape) ```
378
Is there pigmentation in both Cushing's and Addison's? Why?
Yes as pigmentation is related to an increase in ACTH production (as alpha MSH is contained within ACTH from POMC) Cushing's- increased ACTH due to pituitary tumour or ectopic secretion (won't get pigmentation with adrenal tumour causing Cushing's) Addison's- decreased secretion of cortisol means there is less negative feedback on ACTH, so increase in ACTH production
379
What can cause an addisonian crisis?
In trauma or sever infection- effects of addisonian crisis can be exacerbated
380
What does an addisonian crisis consist of?
``` Nausea Vomiting Extreme dehydration Hypotension Confusion Fever Coma CLINICAL EMERGENCY ```
381
How is a patient in addisonian crisis treated?
Must be treated with IV cortisol and fluid replacement (dextrose in normal saline) to avoid death
382
What tests should be done on a suspected addisonian sufferer?
Plasma concentrations of ACTH and cortisol 24hour urinary cortisol excretion Synacthen stimulation test Insulin tolerance test- normal ppl would secrete cortisol due to the stress response of starvation/fasting which would stimulate gluconeogenesis but this doesn’t happen in hypoadrenalism.
384
What dynamic test is used to test for a deficiency in cortisol/ Addison's?
Synacthen stimulation test (synthetic analogue of ACTH) | Insulin tolerance test (not on individuals with ischaemic heart disease or epilepsy)
385
How does the synacthen stimulation test work?
Synacthen is an analogue of ACTH Normally synacthen (intramuscularly) would cause there to be an increase in cortisol secretion by > 200nmol/l = excludes Addison's and secondary cause of hypoadrenalism In an Addison's patient- administration of synacthen has no effect on cortisol levels which still remain low = hypoactivity of adrenal gland (primary)
386
What is the general rule of dynamic tests?
Where there is a suspected hormone deficiency in production by a gland => stimulation test should be carried out Where there is a suspected hormone excess in production by a gland => suppression test should be carried out
399
How can Adrenocortical disorders be treated?
Transphenoidal surgery Pituitary irradication Medical treatment Bilateral adrenalectomy
400
What syndrome can arise post adrenalectomy?
``` Nelsons syndrome Lack of negative feedback Uncontrolled pituitary growth Very high secretion of ACTH Pigmentation Difficult to treat ```
401
What two drugs can be used to treat Addison's?
Hydrocortisone (increases cortisol) Fludrocortisone (increased mineralocorticoids) REPLACEMENT
402
Explain how cortisol can have weak androgen and mineralocorticoid effects
The steroid receptors form part of a family of nuclear DNA-binding proteins (steroids pass through the cell membrane acting in the cell) that include the thyroid and vitamin D receptors. They all have three main regions: - A hydrophobic hormone-binding region - A DNA-binding region rich in cysteine and basic amino acids - A variable region There is sequence homology in the hormone-binding region of the receptors. The percentage homology of the hormone-binding region of the glucocorticoid receptor with receptors is: - Mineralocorticoid is ~64% ​​- Androgen is ~62% - Oestrogen is ~31% ​​​- Thyroid is ~24% Therefore, cortisol will bind to the mineralocorticoid and androgen receptors with low affinity. This binding may become significant when high levels of the hormone are present. The actions of cortisol on target tissues are mediated by binding to receptors in the cytoplasm/nucleus. All steroid hormone receptors have similar basic structure with hormone and DNA binding domains. The hormone binding domains of the mineralocorticoid and androgen receptors have over 60% sequence homology with the hormone-binding domain of the glucocorticoid receptor. Thus, cortisol can bind to these receptors to a limited extent causing their partial activation
404
Where is the thyroid gland located?
In the neck in front of the lower larynx and upper trachea
405
What are the two major cell types of the thyroid gland and their structure/ location?
Two major cells types are found in the gland: - Follicular cells - arranged in units called follicles separated by connective tissue. The follicles are spherical and are lined with epithelial columnar/ cuboidal (follicular) cells surrounding a central space (lumen) containing protein - colloid. - Parafollicular (C-cells) - found in the connective tissue.
406
What is the colloid?
Lumen in thyroid gland which is lined by follicular cells | Where t3 and t4 are stored
407
What is produced by the follicular cells?
Thyroxine (T4) | Triiodothyronine (T3)
408
What are the basic structures of T3 and T4?
Amino acid derivative hormones Derived from tyrosine (aa found on thyroglobulin) Attached to iodine (3 or 4) Fat soluble/ hydrophobic/ bind to proteins to be transported in blood/ can cross cell membranes and bind to cytoplasmic/ nuclear receptors
409
What is produced by the parafollicular cells?
Calcitonin- believed to be involved in lowering plasma calcium levels in calcium metabolism
410
How are T3 and T4 hormones produced? ATE OIFC
Active transport of iodide into epithelial cells using ATP Thyroglobulin synthesis (tyrosine rich) in epithelial cells Exocytosis of thyroglobulin into colloid (in prep for storage of hormones) Oxidation of iodine to produce iodinating species Iodination of side chains of tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin Formation of DIT and MIT Coupling of DIT and DIT= T4 and coupling of DIT and MIT = T3
411
What is the structure of the thyroid gland?
Butterfly shape with two lateral lobes joined by a central isthmus 15-20g weight (largest endocrine gland in the body) Highly vascularised with 3 supplying arteries and 3 draining veins (superior, middle and inferior) Two nerves lie close to the gland - recurrent laryngeal, external branch of superior laryngeal
412
How are T3 and T4 stored in the thyroid gland?
Stored extracellularly in the colloid as part of the thyroglobulin Storage amounts T3= 0.4 micro moles ; T4= 6 micro moles Can last for several months with normal amounts of secretion
413
How are T3 and T4 secreted from the thyroid gland?
Thyroglobulin is taken into the epithelia (follicular cells) from the colloid by endocytosis Proteolytic cleavage then occurs releasing T3 and T4 from thyroglobulin which diffuse from epithelial cells into circulation
414
How are T3 and T4 transported in the blood?
Hydrophobic/ not water soluble Bound to thyronine binding globulin (TBG) Bound to albumin or pro albumin 1% free in plasma = biologically active
415
Which of T4 and T3 is most commonly found bound to TBG and why?
T4 has a greater affinity for TBG than T3 and so is more commonly found bound to TBG
416
Which of T3 or T4 has a greater affinity for TBG?
T4
417
Which of T3 and T4 has a shorter half life?
T3 (2days) because it has a lesser affinity for TBG and so is found free more greatly T4 (8 days)
418
Do cytoplasmic (nuclear or mitochondrial) receptors have a higher affinity for T3 or T4?
T3
419
Which of T3 and T4 do cytoplasmic (nuclear/mitochondrial) receptors have a higher affinity for?
T3
420
How does oestrogen affect the binding of T3/4 to TBG?
In pregnancy an increase in oestrogen causes an increase in TBG- meaning that there is less free T3/4 in the blood = less negative feedback on hypothalamus and pituitary gland = more TRH and TSH and hence there is an increase in secretion of T3/4 and thus more active free T3 and T4 circulating in the blood
421
Does a hormone bound to a protein in the blood have a negative feedback?
No only free hormones in the blood can have a negative feedback!
422
Describe the action of T3 and T4 on target cells
T3 & T4 act within the target cell, interacting with high-affinity (10x greater affinity for T3) receptors located in the nucleus and possibly mitochondria. - Binding of T3 to the hormone-binding domain (is thought to) produce a conformational change in the receptor that unmasks the DNA-binding domain. - Interaction of the hormone-receptor complex with DNA increases the rate of transcription of specific genes that are then translated into proteins. - The ­increase in rate of protein synthesis stimulates oxidative energy metabolism in the target cells to provide the extra energy required for protein synthesis. - Also, protein synthesis produces more specific functional proteins, therefore increases cell activity and demand for energy.
423
Describe the metabolic effects of thyroid hormones on the body
T3 and T4 increase the metabolic rate of many tissues: - Increased Glucose uptake and metabolism - Stimulate mobilization and oxidation of fatty acids - Stimulate protein metabolism Since the metabolic effects of T3 and T4 are mainly catabolic, this leads to: - Increased BMR- increase in number and size of mitochondria, increase in oxygen consumption and heat production (UCPs), increase in nutrient utilisation - Stimulate most metabolic pathways- Catabolic>Anabolic (lipolysis, glycolysis, glycogenolysis, proteolysis) - promote normal growth and development of tissues- increase in synthesis of specific proteins - Increase responsiveness of tissues to SNS (adrenaline) and various metabolic and reproductive hormones
424
Describe the effects of thyroid hormones on growth and development?
T3 and T4 are important for normal growth/development - T3 and T4 directly affect bone mineralisation and increase the synthesis of heart muscle protein. - The CNS is sensitive to T3/T4, especially during development as they’re required for the development of cellular processes of nerve cells, hyperplasia of cortical neurons and myelination of nerve fibres. In the absence of thyroid hormone from birth-puberty the child remains mentally & physically retarded (cretinism). If the deficiency isn’t corrected within a few weeks of birth there’s irreversible damage. All newborns have their thyroid function assessed soon after birth. In adults lack of thyroid hormones is characterised by poor concentration and memory, lack of initiative. - T3 and T4 are also indirectly related to interactions with hormones and neurotransmitters. T3/T4 stimulate hormone and neurotransmitter receptor synthesis in tissues (i.e. heart muscle, GI) that can increase responsiveness of these tissues to regulatory factors. - In heart muscle – tachycardia. In the GI tract – increased motility. - T3 and T4 have a permissive role in the actions of hormones such as FSH and LH. - Ovulation fails to occur in the absence of thyroid hormones.
425
What is the relevance of converting T4 to T3 and how is this achieved?
T4 can be converted to T3 by the removal of the 5’-iodide. This helps to regulate the amount the amount of active (free) hormone in cells, as T3 is 10x more active than T4. Removal of the 3’-iodide produces the inactive reverse T3 (rT3)
426
How is thyroid hormone secretion controlled?
Hypothalamus --(Thyrotrophin releasing hormone, TRH- tripeptide released from cells in dermomedial nucleus of hypothalamus)--> anterior pituitary gland--(thyroid stimulating hormone-released by thyrotrophs)--> follicular cells of thyroid gland --> T3 and T4
427
What is TSH?
Thyroid stimulating hormone! Glycoprotein consisting of 2 non covalently linked subunits (alpha and beta) Released in low amplitude pulses following an a diurnal rhythm: high at night, low in morning
428
What are the actions of TSH on the thyroid?
TSH interacts with receptors on the surface of the follicle cells and stimulates all aspects of the synthesis and secretion of T3 and T4 Also TSH has trophic effects on the gland that result in increased vascularity, increase in size and number of follicle cells --> enlarged thyroid gland (GOITRE) with an over and under active thyroid
429
How do thyroid hormones affect the nervous system?
Development (birth --> puberty) and functioning (adults) Increased myelination of nerve fibres and neurone development Increased speed of reflexes Increased mental activity (alertness, emotional tone, memory) Development of cellular processes of nerve cells Hyperplasia of cortical neurons Myelination of nerve fibres
430
How do thyroid hormones affect the cardiovascular system?
Increases responsiveness of heart to SNS and catecholamines | Increases synthesis in heart muscle protein
431
How do thyroid hormones affect skin and subcutaneous tissue?
Increases turnover of proteins and glycoprotein (mucopolysaccharides)
432
What is hyperthyroidism?
Over activity of the thyroid gland leading to over secretion of thyroid hormones
433
What are some symptoms of hyperthyroidism?
HUGE EYES Heat intolerance, Increased oxygen consumption, Increased BMR Weight loss Physical and mental hyperactivity Tachycardia Intestinal hyper mobility Skeletal and cardiac myopathy= tiredness, weakness, breathlessness Osteoporosis- increased turnover of bone and preferential resorption Common signs and symptoms: • Weight loss • Heat intolerance, sweating, warm vasodilated hands. • Irritability, emotional lability • Tachycardia (noticeable heart beat) often irregular. • Fatigue and weakness • Increased bowel movements - increased appetite • Menstrual dysfunction • Hyper-reflexive • Possible tremor of outstretched hands
434
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?
Graves' disease Others include: thyroid adenoma, pituitary or hypothalamus cause, drugs
435
What is Graves' disease?
Affects ~1% of population- mostly women Autoimmune disease in which antibodies are produced to stimulate TSH receptors on follicle cells, resulting in increased production and release of T3/4
436
What happens to TSH and T3/4 levels in hyperthyroidism?
``` TSH Low (due to negative feedback from high T3/4) T3/4 High ```
437
How can hyper and hypothyroidism be diagnosed?
TSH and T4 levels in blood Technetium scan- diagnostic scanning using technetium 99m and a gamma camera; picks up radioactivity produced by iodine producing thyroids Normal= some iodine lights up Diseased= dark
438
How can hyperthyroidism be treated?
Using an anti thyroid drug- carbimazole Surgical removal of thyroid and then treat for hypothyroidism Radioactive iodine- following surgery that didn't remove the entire gland- destroys the remaining diseased portion of the thyroid gland
439
How does carbimazole work?
Inhibits the enzyme thyroid peroxidase and so prevents coupling and iodination of tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin Inhibits incorporation of iodine into thyroglobulin
440
What is the risk of treatment of hyperthyroidism by surgical re movement of thyroid glands?
Risk of causing consequential hypothyroidism
441
What is hypothyroidism?
Underactivity of thyroid gland leading to under secretion of thyroid hormones
442
What are some symptoms of hypothyroidism?
``` Cold intolerance and reduced BMR Weight gain Tiredness and lethargy Bradycardia Neuromuscular system- weakness, muscle cramps and cerebella ataxia (clumsiness of movement) Skin dry and flaky Alopecia (hair loss) Voice is deep and husky ``` If it occurs in embryo/ new born = cretinism (failure in CNS development, protruding tongue and delayed sex development) Weight gain due to reduced BMR. • Cold intolerance due to reduced BMR. • Lethargy/tiredness due to reduced uptake of nutrients by muscle. • Bradycardia – slow heart rate due to reduced responsiveness to catecholamines and reduced heart muscle protein synthesis. • Dry skin and hair loss due to reduced synthesis of proteins. • Slow reflexes and clumsiness due to reduced sensitivity to catecholamines. • Constipation due to reduced responsiveness of GI tract • Hoarse voice.
443
What is the the most common cause of hypothyroidism?
Hashimotos Others include a pituitary or hypothalamus cause, or iodine deficiency
444
What is hashimotos disease?
Affects 1% of population- mostly women Autoimmune disease that results in either the destruction of thyroid follicles or the production of an antibody that blocks the TSH receptor on follicle cells preventing them from responding to TSH
445
What happens to T3/4 levels and TSH levels in hypothyroidism?
``` T3/4 LOW TSH HIGH (due to less negative feedback from low T3/4) ```
446
How can hypothyroidism be treated?
Oral T4/ thyroxine Dose adjusted according to patients signs, symptoms and TSH levels Increased latke of iodine if cause is iodine deficiency
447
How does oral T4 work?
Can be converted to more active T3 | Replaces the T3/4 lost and reinstates negative feedback on TSH
448
What is the risk of using oral T4 in hypothyroidism?
Risk of it causing hyperthyroidism
449
Why is a goitre formed in hyperthyroidism?
Don't need to know but just know that they are formed
450
Why is a goitre formed in hypothyroidism?
In hypothyroidism there is low T3/4 and hence less negative feedback on TSH- therefore TSH levels increase which causes there to be an increase in trophic effects on follicular cells - increase in size and number of follicular cells = GOITRE
451
What is a goitre?
Swelling of the thyroid gland Lump on throat of varying sizes Caused by hypo/hyper thyroidism
452
Why does the body need to maintain serum calcium levels within set limits?
Calcium plays a critical role in many cellular processes: - Hormone secretion - In/activation of enzymes - Muscle contraction - Exocytosis -Nerve conduction Therefore, the body very carefully regulates the plasma concentration of free ionised calcium ([Ca2+]), the physiologically active form of the metal, and maintains free plasma [Ca2+] within a narrow range (1.0 to 1.3mM, or 4.0 to 5.2mg/dl). Other things: can calcify the osteoid of bone- more rigid structure (main storage of calcium in body)
453
What concentration of free ionised Ca2+ should be maintained in the blood?
1.0 to 1.3mM, or 4.0 to 5.2mg/dl
454
What hormones are involved in the control of calcium serum levels?
Parathyroid hormone Vitamin D (calcitriol) Calcitonin
455
What is the parathyroid hormone?
Produced in the parathyroid gland in the chief cells Regulated by negative feedback Raises Ca2+ concentration of blood- short term regulation Straight chain polypeptide hormone (water soluble) Pre hormone = 115 aa and hormone = 84 aa Half life = 4 mins
456
How is PTH synthesis and release regulated in high [Ca2+]?
High [Ca2+] = increase in binding of Ca2+ to G receptors on surface of chief cells = * stimulates Phospholipase C = inhibits adenylate cyclase = decrease in cAMP = decrease in release of PTH * = down regulation of gene transcription = accelerated cleavage and degradation of PTH in chief cells (already released PTH cleaved in liver) = decrease in synthesis of PTH
457
How is PTH synthesis and release regulated in low [Ca2+]?
Low [Ca2+] = decrease in binding of Ca2+ to G receptors on surface of chief cells = * inhibits Phospholipase C = stimulates adenylate cyclase = increase in cAMP = increase in release of PTH * = up regulation of gene transcription = less cleavage and degradation of PTH in chief cells = increase in synthesis of PTH * prolonged survival of mRNA
458
What is calcitriol?
Activated vitamin D, 1,25dihydroxyvitaminD Vitamin D- 25 hydroxyvitamin D -1,25dihydroxyvitaminD (calcitriol) Raises [Ca2+] of serum- long term regulation Vitamin D is made in skin when exposed to UVB in sun Vitamin D is sourced in cheese, butter, margarine, fortified milk, fish, fortified cereals Steroid hormone (not water soluble) Vitamin D has a very short half life whereas the half life of calciferol (2weeks) and calcitriol (few hours) is much higher
459
How is calcitriol synthesised?
Pro vitamin D used UVB to be converted into pre vitamin D, which is cleaved to form vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol) and D2 (ergocalciferol) These undergo a hydroxylation in the liver = 25 hydroxyvitamin D (calciferol) This undergoes a further hydroxylation In the kidney = 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) Calcitriol raises serum [Ca2+]
460
How do PTH and Calcitriol affect bone?
Vitamin D / PTH stimulate osteoblast cells on bony surface to secrete cytokines which stimulate the differentiation of osteoblasts and stem cells into osteoclasts which results in stimulated activity of osteoclasts and consequential decrease in activity of osteoblasts (also inhibited by PTH) Bony surface is then exposed to osteoclast action Resorption of mineralised bone Release of phosphate and calcium into ECF INCREASE IN serum conc of Ca2+ and Pi
461
How do PTH and calcitriol affect the kidney?
Vitamin D/ PTH affect the tubular cells in the kidney: - increases the reabsorption of Ca2+ in the dct, thus reducing excretion of Ca2+ - increase P filtration in kidney- Pi removed from circulation bu inhibition of kidney reabsorption This has the effect of preventing kidney stone for action as their wise calcium and phosphate stones (hydroxyapatite crystals) would form causing blockages INCREASE IN serum conc of Ca2+ DECREASE IN serum conc of Pi
462
How do PTH and calcitriol affect the gut?
Vitamin D --(1st hydroxylation in LIVER)--> calciferol --(2!pnd hydroxylation in KIDNEY- requires PTH)--> calcitriol Calcitriol increase the uptake of Ca2+ from the gut (active uptake and extrusion, transcellular transport, endocytosis and exocytosis using CaBP complex) Increased serum calcium concentrations means that there can be increased calcification of osteoid (organic matrix) in bone INCREASE IN serum conc of Ca2+
463
What are some symptoms of hypercalcaemia?
``` Kidney stones and damage Constipation Dehydration Tiredness and depression Moans(depression), groans(abdominal pain), stones (kidney) ```
464
What is hypercalcaemia?
Raised serum concentration of Ca2+
465
What are some symptoms of hypocalcaemia?
Hyper excitability of neuromuscular junction (low Ca2+ in ECF slightly depolarises cells such that they have a reduced firing threshold) Paraesthesia (pins and needles) Tetanic contraction of muscles Convulsions and if respiratory muscles are involved = DEATH
466
What is hypocalcaemia?
Low serum concentration of Ca2+
467
What is the usual cause of hypercalcaemia?
Excess PTH due to hyperparathyroidism Parathyroid hormone related peptide from Cancers Excess calcitriol
468
How can hypercalcaemia be treated?
Replace fluid as less calcium and water is reabsorbed in the kidneys Remove tumour from parathyroid gland
469
What is the usual cause of hypocalcaemia?
Hypoparathyroidism (very rare) PTH deficiency- uncommon, normal serum Ca2+ conc can't be maintained, can be caused by removal of pt, symptoms w/i 48 hrs Removal of parathyroid gland Vitamin D and calcium deficiency
470
How can hypoparathyroidism be treated?
Supplements of vitamin D and or calcium | Normally fixes itself
471
If your diet is deficient in calcium how is serum concentration maintained?
At the expense of bone
472
What is the only way of increasing the whole body concentration of calcium?
Increase dietary intake of calcium
473
What is rickets?
Failure to mineralise long bones as a result of a vitamin d deficiency Symptoms include- bowed legs, big lumpy joints, curved bone, bony necklace, slow closing soft spot on baby head
474
What is the believed effect of calcitonin?
Lower Ca2+ levels in animals In humans it lacks pathology associated with either hyper/hypo secretion; removal or destruction of thyroid- lack of calcitonin has no effect on homeostasis May be important in pregnancy, may serve to preserve the fetal skeleton
475
Where is parathyroid hormone produced?
Chief cells of parathyroid gland
476
Where is calcitonin produced?
Parafollicular cells of thyroid gland
477
What is gestational diabetes?
During pregnancy the rate of insulin secretion and synthesis normally increases When the pancreas fails to respond to the demands if pregnancy less insulin than is required is released Loss of metabolic control and rise in blood glucose, leads to diabetes Normally reverses after birth of child Increase chance of future diabetes
478
What can be caused as a result of a deficiency in ADH?
Diabetes insipidus
479
What happens to cholesterol in tissues?
It's used for synthesis of the cell membrane | It's used for steroidogenesis- adrenal cortex
480
What happens to cholesterol in the liver?
Converted to bile salts
481
What is hyperammonaemia?
Increase in the concentration of ammonia in the blood Due to high protein diet, urea cycle defect, amino acid metabolism defect, refeeding syndrome with kwashiorkors Toxic to CNS - tremors slurred speech, coma and death Increased pH of blood - basic ammonia Reaction with alpha ketoglutarate removes TCA substrate and so leads to reduction or energy supply
482
Why do ketone bodies and lactate cause acidosis?
Both contain acidic groups
483
Why are tags a better source of energy than glycogen?
Hydrophobic - so not associated with lots of water | More reduced than glycogen so yield more energy when oxidised
484
How do UCPs increase heat?
Increase permeability of mitochondrial membrane for protons Reduces pmf so that energy is dissipated as heat rather than being used in ATP synthesis Expressed as bat and involved in thermogenesis
485
What is hyperlipoproteinaemia?
Any condition in which, after a 12 hour fast, the plasma cholesterol and/or plasma triglyceride is raised.
486
How are LDLs taken up by tissues?
Tissues obtain the cholesterol they need from LDLs by the process of receptor-medicated endocytosis. LDL particles are taken up by the cell and the cholesterol released inside the cell. All cells (except erythrocytes) are able to synthesise cholesterol from acetyl~CoA and could satisfy their requirements by biosynthesis. In practice, all cells appear to prefer the uptake of pre-formed cholesterol circulating in plasma lipoproteins. o Cells requiring cholesterol synthesise LDL receptors that are exposed on the cell surface. o These receptors recognise and bind to specific apoproteins (Apo B100) on the surface of the LDL. o The LDL receptor with its bound LDL is then endocytosed by the cell and subjected to lysosomal digestion. o Cholesterol esters are converted to free cholesterol that is released within the cell. o The cholesterol can be stored (as cholesterol esters) or used by the cell o This also inhibits the synthesis of cholesterol by the cell and reduces the synthesis and exposure of LDL receptors. This prevents the cell from accumulating too much cholesterol.
487
How can hyperlipoproteinaemia be treated?
Diet and lifestyle modifications (e.g. increase in exercise) are considered first to treat hyperlipoproteinaemia. Aiming to reduce/eliminate cholesterol from the diet and reduce the intake of triacylglycerols (especially those with saturated fatty acids). In some patients this will have little effect. Drug therapy – statins (e.g. simvastin) are a group of drugs that may lower plasma cholesterol by reducing the synthesis of cholesterol in tissues. The liver can dispose of cholesterol by converting it into bile salts and secreting a small amount directly in the bile. The bile salt sequestrants (e.g. cholestyramine) lower plasma cholesterol by increasing its disposal from the body. They act by binding to bile salts in the GI tract preventing them from being reabsorbed into the hepatic-portal circulation and promoting their loss in the faeces.
488
What happens in feeding?
Increase in insulin (affects glucose, fas, aas) Increase in: Glycolysis and oxidation by skeletal muscle and adipose tissue Glycogenesis Protein synthesis Lipogenesis
489
What happens in fasting?
``` Increase in glucagon (affects glucose and fas- not aas) Increase in: Glycogenolysis Gluconeogenesis Lipolysis ```
490
What happens in starvation?
``` Even more glucagon than in fasting Increase in: Gluconeogenesis Lipolysis Ketogenesis Protein breakdown ```
491
In BAT how is heat produced?
Cold weather Release of norepinephrine Increase in lipolysis Fatty acids activate the uncoupling protein thermogenin in mitochondrial membrane Increase in permeability of inner mitochondria membrane for protons Protons reenter the mitochondrial matrix ATP synthase not activated so no ATP synthesis Pmf is dissipated as heat Electron transport and thus NADH/FAD2H oxidation continues Free energy is released as heat Respiration continues to bring more NADH and FAD2H to mitochondria and uses up fuel molecules (fatty acids, glucose etc) More and more heat production
492
What happens in leptin deficiency/ resistance?
Severe obesity can result due to loss of control of the balance between energy intake and energy expenditure
493
How is insulin secretion controlled?
Stimulated by: fatty acids, glucose, amino acids in high conc; gut hormones in readiness for absorption of raw materials Inhibited by: The catecholamines adrenaline and noradrenaline inhibit insulin secretion. This enables the catecholamines released during stress to raise the blood glucose concentration and for the concentration to be maintained while the stress is dealt with. If insulin secretion was not inhibited the increase in blood glucose caused by the catecholamines would stimulate insulin secretion and the blood glucose concentration would fall prematurely.