Metallurgy, shafts, fits, lubrication test from teacher Flashcards

(131 cards)

1
Q

what is the best definition of metallurgy

study of science

study of metal characteristics during welding

study of mining

study of structure, properties, extraction and refining of metals

A

study of structure , properties extraction and refining of metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

alloy steel has other elements in it to improve its mechanical properties

true

False

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

aluminium is used because it is has a light weight and it resists corrosion

true

False

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which of the following is not a mechanical property of metals

hardness

toughness

tensile strength

softness

A

softness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the difference between hot and cold rolled steel

hot rolled steel has a scale left on its surface after bing rolled and cooled

hot rolled is harder after cooling

colled rolled steel has a scale left on it after being rolled

cold rolled steel is made oversized to allow for machining

A

hot rolled steel has a scale left on its surface after bing rolled and cooled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

stress relieving high carbon steels to 400 - 600 degrees F and letting it cool down is an action of

tempering

annealing

normalizing

stretching

A

tempering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when quenching steel, you will use ______ to help cool it

air

oil

water or brine

any of the above, depending on how quickly it needs to be cooled

A

any of the above, depending on how quickly it needs to be cooled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which of the following is a physical property of metals

color

weight

texture

all the above

A

all the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the carbon content range of low carbon steel (mild) is

0.02 %- 0.30 %

0.30 % - 0.45 %

0.45 % - 0.75 %

0.75 % - 1.5 %

A

0.02%-0.30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

the lower critical temperature of carbon steel is ______________ degrees F

1333

1100

1450

2400

A

1333

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

an increase in carbon content of steel will

increase the ductility

increase the hardness

improves the machinability

decreases the brittleness

A

increase the hardness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

annealing is

to make a hardened work piece harder

to make a hardened work piece softer by quenching it at 1450 degrees F

to make a hardened work piece soft again so it can be machined

to relieve the hardening of the steel by machining

A

to make a hardened work piece soft again so it can be machined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

tempering steel is to relieve the amount of hardening______________________

by heating it to the upper critical point and quenching

by machining

and internal stresses by heating above the lower critical point and cooling at any desired rate

and internal stresses by heating the steel to below the lower critical temperature and cooling at any desired rate

A

and internal stresses by heating the steel to below the lower critical temperature and cooling at any desired rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

pearlite is a

form of steel at high temperatures

hardened form of steel

stucture of soft steel consisting of layers of ferrite and cementite

type of iron carbide

A

stucture of soft steel consisting of layers of ferrite and cementite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

martensite is a

form of steel at high temperature

a structure of hardened steel consisting of angular needle-like crystals

a mixture of ferrite and cementite

a type of iron carbide

A

a structure of hardened steel consisting of angular needle-like crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

austenite is a

form of steel at high temperatures, (ferrite and cementite dissolve into each other)

the hardened form of steel

layers of ferrite and cementite

type of carbide

A

form of steel at high temperatures, (ferrite and cementite dissolve into each other)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

cementite means

form of steel at high temperatures

the hardened form of steel

a mixture of ferrite and pearlite

a type of iron carbide

A

type of iron carbide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

toughness means the ability of a metal to

resist penetration

be deformed without breaking

withstand a pull without breaking

withstand shock or impact

A

withstand shock or impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hardness means the ability of a metal to

resist penetration

be defomed without breaking

withstand a pull without breaking

withstand shock or impact

A

resist penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ductility means the ability of a metal to

resist penetration

be deformed without breaking

withstand a pull without breaking

withstand shock or impact

A

be deformed with out breaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

tensile strength means the ability of a metal to

resist penetration

be deformed without breaking

withstand a pull without breaking

withstand shock or impact

A

with stand a pull with out breaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

pipes and tubes can be produced in 2 ways.______________ and __________

rolled and welded, pierced and formed

rolled and welded, drawn thru a die

rolled and welded, cast

pierced and formed, drawn thru a die

A

rolled and welded, pierced and formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cast iron is considered to have a carbon content of____________

0.60 % to 0.80 %

0.80 % to 1.0%

1.0 % to 1.5 %

1.7 % to 4.5 %

A

1.7%-4.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what makes stainless steel corrosion resistant

carbon

tungsten

aluminium

chromium

A

chromium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
brass is a mixture of copper and tin copper and zinc bronze and zinc bronze and tin
bronze and zinc
25
which of the following is not a tool steel sub group high speed water hardening shock resistant quench and temper
quench and temper
26
a light straw color when heating up steel during tempering and before cooling would be good for what type of tools cutting tools screw drivers wood saws shear blades
cutting tools
27
when testing a piece of steel with a file, you find that the file can barely cut the metal. what Rockwell hardness is the steel 20 30 40 50
50
28
in the classification 1141, what does the 41 stand for carbon content sulfur added carbon steel chromium steel
carbon content
29
hardness testing can be done in different ways. which one of the following is not a true test rockwell Brinell file torch
torch
29
MTR stands for _________________ (when dealing with steel orders) miller test results mill test reports material thermal resistance metal treatment reports
mill test reports
30
the main differences between ferrous and non-ferrous metals are carbon content and machinability iron content and magnetism color and texture hardness and ductility
iron content and magnetism
31
when using the spark test to find out the type of material, what spark shape would high speed steel have long, straight and yellowish short with branches that burst, dark yellow has many bursts with red color near the grinder orange color with little branching, ends up in ball shaped sparks
orange color with little branching, ends up in ball shaped sparks
32
which shaped beam will use tapered washers to help bolt it to the foundation standard beam (S) welded wide flange (WWF) wide flange (W) none of the above
wide flange (W)
33
how do you size a hollow structural section width and height width and inside diameter inside diameter and outside diameter wall thickness and outside diameter or dimensions
wall thickness and outside diameter or dimensions
34
only steel with a carbon content of ______ and above can be hardened 0.01% 0.05% 0.1% 0.2%
0.2
35
beryllium bronze is a health hazard when it is machined. the particles produced are toxic and must not be inhaled or permitted to touch the skin true false
true
36
keys are timing devices are designed to fail before any other part in a gear train, shaft or hub assembly true false
true
37
the width of a square or flat key should be about ____ of the shaft diameter 1/8 1/4 1/3 1/2
1/4
38
a pratt and whiteny key _______________________ does not require a key seat in the shaft is a boxed or blind key can be fixed or sliding has a taper 1 in 96 can be used on a parallel or tapered shaft
is a boxed or blind key
39
a woodruff key does not require a key seat in the shaft is boxed or a blind key can be fixed or sliding has a taper of 1 in 96 can be used on a parallel or tapered shaft
can be used on a parallel or tapered shaft
40
a tapered gib head key does not require a key seat in the shaft can be boxed or a blind key has a taper of 1 in 96 can be used on a parallel or tapered shaft
has a taper of 1 in 96
41
a saddle key does not require a keyseat in the shaft can be boxed or a blind key can be fixed or sliding has a taper of 1 in 96 can be used on a parallel or tapered shaft
does not require a keyseat in the shaft
42
a feather key does not require a key seat in the shaft can be boxed or a blind key can be fixed or sliding has a taper of 1 in 96 can be used on a parallel or tapered shaft
can be fixed or sliding
43
if you had a woodrufr key with a number of 406, the width would be_______ and the diameter would be______ 1/16, 1 1/8, 3/4 1/4, 1/2 1/8, 1/2
44
parallel key seats in shafts can be open or tapered true False
false
44
the accurate, proper depth of a key seat in a shaft is measured from the bottom of a key seat to the top of the key seat end the bottom of the key seat to the top of the key seat side the bottom of the shaft to the bottom of the key seat none of the above
the bottom of the shaft to the bottom of the key seat
45
you should not use a_______________key with a cast hub gib head parallel feather pratt and whitney tapered key
tapered key
46
key stock is manufactured with low to medium carbon steel (AISI) 1020 to a ___________tolerence minus (under sized) plus (over sized) size on size
plus (over sized)
47
key seats in hubs and attachments will be cut to a depth equal to half the key half the key plus the clearance half the hub width plus the tolerance half the key minus the clearance
half the key plus the clearance
48
you can cut key seats with portable key seat cutter hand broaching with an arbor press milling machines with endmills all the above
all the above
49
when installing keys, on shafts and in tapered bushings, you can put anti-seize on the keys and tapers of the bushings to help stop seizing and damage to the bushing, key seats and the key true false
false
50
when fitting keys, a class ______ fit has a tight fit while a class_______ fit has a clearance fit 1, 2 3, 2 2, 1 2, 3
2, 1
51
there should always be a clearance (0.005") on the ________ of a key top end bottom side
top
52
setscrews are used to lock attachments onto shafts. for positive locking power, you should use 2 setscrews of a similar width to the key. one on the key and one 90 degrees to the first lubricate the threads on the setscrew for maximum thrust use a knurled cup point setscrew for positive positioning all the above
all the above
53
to help facilitate removal of hubs and attachments, you should make sure there are not 2 setscrews in the hole file a flat where the setscrew fastens to the shaft to eliminate hang-ups from burrs use fox wedges to help in removal of gib head keys all the above
all the above
54
to help facilitate removal of tapered keys, the gib head should be about 1/4" away from the hub to allow for wedges true false
true
55
when removing stubborn parallel keys, you can use slide hammers welded to the end of the key a dutchman locking pliers all the above
all the above
56
a journal is the part of the spindle, shaft or axle that rotates in or on a plain friction bearing true false
true
56
finished shafting is manufactured to wide tolerances and uses finishes like cold rolled, machining, grinding and polishing true false
false
57
C 1045 is percision shafting (percision ground and polished from medium carbon steel) and has a carbon content of 1.0 % 0.1 % 4.5 % 0.45 %
0.45 %
58
hollow shafting is found on shaft mounted reducers true false
true
59
shaft stresses include bending, shear and ________________ axial thrust radial thrust torsional shear bearing pressure
torsional shear
60
whenever there is a shoulder machined into a shaft, there should be a __________at the base of the should to help strengthen the shaft and reduce the stress in this area. it should also allow the bearing to sit up against the _____________ fillet, shoulder square corner, shoulder taper, radius fillet, radius
fillet, shoulder
61
when checking for ____________, you should put the shaft in the lathe centres and set up_______________ to measure for it while rotating the shaft 360 degrees. runout, feeler gauges continuity, dial indicators runout, dial indicators critical speed, dial indicators
runout, dial indicators
62
if a bearing fit on a shaft is to loose, it will creep true false
true
62
the ________ bushing does not have a key in the taper of the bushing QD split
QD
63
tapered sleeves are used for positive bearing location and fit. they have a locking washer to lock the sleeve onto the shaft true false
false
64
shear pins____________the machine drive in an overload situation drive disconnect position center
disconnect
65
when locking eccentric locking collars onto the bearing and shaft, you must rotate the eccentrc locking collar in the direction of the shaft rotation true false
true
66
ine shafting has bearings located at a maximum distance of _____ between bearings and the fixed bearing should be located as close as possible to the ___________ 8', end of the shaft 8', drive unit 6', drive unit 6', end of the shaft
8', drive unit
67
tapered dowel pins have a taper of ________ per foot 1/16" 1/8" 1/4" 1/2"
1/4"
68
tolerances for dimensioning are the total permissible variation in it size and also determines the fit between mating parts true false
true
69
ANSI fits are broken down into 3 groups - running and sliding fits, location fits and force fits. true false
true
70
ISO metric fits have ______ case letters that represent the hole or bore size and _________ case letters that represent the shaft size upper, lower lower, upper in is not letters but numbers it depends on the size of the shaft
upper , lower
71
when selecting a puller, the ____________ determines the puller size reach spread force required all the above
all the above
72
presses must have proper gaurding in place before putting them to use true false
true
73
basic size is the nominal size after tolerances are added before adding tolerances after adding only one positive tolerance after adding one negative tolerance
before adding tolerances
74
if a shaft has a plus tolerance of + 0.004" and a minus tolerance of - 0.000", this would be a bilateral tolerance unilateral tolerance basic size all of the above
unilateral tolerance
75
allowance is the intentional difference between mating parts at MMC the minimum clearance (positive allowance) of mating parts maximum interference (negative allowance) of mating parts all the above
all the above
76
MMC is shaft is as big as allowed and hole is a big as allowed shaft is as big as allowed and hole is as small as allowed shaft is as small as allowed and hole is as big as allowed shaft is as small as allowed and hole is as small as allowed
shaft is as big as allowed and hole is as small as allowed
77
which type of fit can be both sliding and press interference clearance transition shrink
transition
78
freeze fitting is what type of fitting shrink expansion sliding forced
expansion
79
if you used a hydraulic press to push a hub onto a shaft, this would be a _____fit shrink expansion sliding force
force
80
surface roughness is measured in micro inches or micro meters with roughness grade numbers from N 1 to N 12 true false
true
81
lubrications main function is to reduce friction wear heat power consumption
friction
81
a revision number to a drawing is enclosed in a _______________ and is located near the revised dimension triangle circle all the above
all the above
82
sliding friction has no metal to metal contact. has electromagnetic bonds has adheasive wear and asperities touching and welding has a small contact area and is slightly deformed
has adheasive wear and asperities touching and welding
83
rolling friction has no metal to metal contact. has electromagnetic bonds has adheasive wear and asperities touching and welding has a small contact area and is slighly deformed
has a small contact area and is slighly deformed
84
fluid friction has no metal to metal contact. has electromagnetic bonds has adheasive wear and asperities touching and welding has a small contact area and is slightly deformed
has no metal to metal contact. has electromagnetic bonds
85
viscosity is the resistance to flow in a fluid the most important property of lubricating oil measured in centistokes and SUS all the above
all the above
86
viscosity index identifies the amount of change in the viscosity of a lubricant over a temperature range ( 40 to 100 degrees C). a high VI number means a major change in viscosity a small change in viscosity
a small change in viscosity
87
an oilwedge is formed by hydrodynamic principles as the shaft rotates true false
true
88
boundary film forms at low speeds at high speeds at low viscosity both the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
both the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
89
which is the correct sequence for the formation of the oil wedge 1. the oil wedge drags the oil into the loaded area 2. shaft journal starts to climb the boundary lubricated area on rotation 3. jounal starts to skid as it climbs onto the area of partial lubrication 4. boundary film adhears to the journal beside loaded area 1,2,3,4 2,4,3,1 4,2,3,1 3,4,2,1
4,2,3,1
90
to have full hydrodynamic lubrication (at running speed) you will need to have only boundary film have only partial film have a RPM and viscosity high enough to form full film lubrication none of the above
have a RPM and viscosity high enough to form full film lubrication
91
Naphtha based oils have the highest wax content true false
false
91
petroleum base oils do not wear out are stable up to 55 degrees C cheap compared to all other oils all the above
all th above
92
the total additive package added to base oils is about____________of the oil 11 % 22 % 33 % 1 %
22
93
synthetic oils eliminate wax problems made up of at least 10 chemical bases stable up to 250 degrees C all the above
all the above
94
which statement is not true about oxidation rate of oxidation of petroleum oils doubles with every 8 degrees C temperature rise above 55 degrees C produces sludge raises the viscosity of the oil increases in the presence of anti-oxidants
ncreases in the presence of anti-oxidants
95
rust and corrosion inhibitors work by forming a protective layer on the metal surfaces true false
true
96
on worm and wheel reducers, the worm passes oil to the wheel from the oil bath wheel passes the oil to the top bearings by having scrapers take it off the wheel flingers on the worm pass oil to the worm bearings all the above
all the above
97
load capacity control with additives such as ____________ and ___________________help with reducing wear during boundary lubrication E.P., anti-foam anti-foam, anti-wear anti-wear, E.P. anti-foam, E.P.
anti-wear, E.P.
98
E.P. additives with sulphur and phosphorous corrode copper and bronze true false
true
99
when oil and water have been separated, they are said to be dispersed emulsified demulsified washed
demulsified
100
once thru systems do not recycle the oil. which of the following is not a once thru system bottle wick feed hand oiler splash
splash
100
a lubrication system's job is to wet the surfaces of rolling elements and maintain the oil level 1/3 to 1/2 the way up the lowest rolling element 1/3 to 1/2 the way up the total bearing just over the bottom rolling element just touching the bottom rolling element
1/3 to 1/2 the way up the lowest rolling element
101
which of the following systems uses capillary action to move the oil bottle wick feed hand oiler splash
wick feed
102
the wick feed and drop feed have ways to adjust the amount of oil being delivered true false
true
103
block lubrication systems have advantages. which is not one of them single point adjustable flow volume with one pump rupture disc feature allows easy recycling of the oil to the tank modular design of divider blocks
allows easy recycling of the oil to the tank
104
oil mist lubrication is used for high speed bearings can be once thru is used for high speed roller chain all the above
all the above
105
in recirculating pressure lubrication systems, the reservoir helps cool the oil aerate the oil settle out contaminants both the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
both the 1st and 3rd answers are correct
106
an industrial mechanic can check oil by smell, touch, and sight. when using site, you can check the oil for oxidation dissolved water or air metallic particles all the above
all the above
107
oil analysis tells us about the types of contamintion viscosity wear rate and condition of the machine all the above
all the above
108
wear metal (in oil samples) is measured in parts per million and identifies the wearing components. this procedure is called spectroscopy true false
true
108
when taking samples of the oil, you should always take it at regular intervals and once the machine has cooled down true false
true
109
partical counts in oil samples tells us the number of particles per million for each of the following particle sizes 2,5,15 2,7,18 3,6,15 5,15,24
2,5,15
110
on-line flushing is done during machine operation true false
false
111
consistency of a grease is the degree to which it resists deforming under force and is a measure of its color measured using a cone penetration test and given a NLGI number measure of its drop point all the above
all the above
111
grease is made up of a liquid lubricant and a thickener that can be soap clay polyurea all the above
all the above
112
greases are classified by the type of thickener, NLGI number and its pumpability its drop point its application its color
its application
113
the base oil held in the thickener is released by the addition of soap fatty acides pressure the thickener
pressure
114
inorganic non-soap thickeners are good in high temperatures and wet conditions true false
true
115
a grease with a 6 NLGI grade will be a ______________ grease soft medium hard high penatration numbered
hard
116
low temperature operation of greases would require a NLGI of 0 to 1 with a oil viscosity of _________ about 15 centistokes between 75 and 200 centistokes 110 centistokes with additives to improve oxidation stability none of the above
about 15 centistrokes
117
when dealing with heavy loads with greases, you would want to have a grease with ___________ molybdenum E.P. additives water the 1st and 2nd answers are correct
the 1st and 2nd answers are correct
118
when packing a bearing with grease, you will pack the housing ________ full for high speeds and _______ full for slow speeds 1/2. 1/3 1/3, 1/2 2/3, 1/2 3/4, 2/3
1/3, 1/2
119
dry, solid lubricants like graphite, are used in pins and bushings where moisture is present true false
true
120
automatic centralized grease systems can lubricate many areas with a metered amount of grease at a given rate or time true false
true
121
teflon and molybdenum disuphate is used in engine oil to help with foaming issues true false
false