MH65 1U-65A-1 Study Flashcards
(459 cards)
1
Q
Rotor diameter
A
39 ft 2 in
2
Q
Overall static length
A
44ft 5in
3
Q
Height to top of rotor head
A
12 ft 9in
4
Q
Height to top of fin
A
13 ft 5in
5
Q
Cyclic full forward, dynamic
A
5 ft 2 in
6
Q
What are the engines named?
A
Turbomecca Adriel 2c2-cg
7
Q
What are the shp ratings?
A
1058 shp single engine operation, 853 shp for dual engine operation, 100% mob torque represents 1294 shp
8
Q
What are the five modules?
A
- Transmission shaft and accessory gearbox
9
Q
How many fuel nozzles in each engine?
A
2
10
Q
At what rpm does the centrifugal wheel rotate inside the combustion chamber?
A
52000 rpm
11
Q
How is the free power turbine connected to the gas generator?
A
It is mechanically independent
12
Q
What does the reduction gearbox do?
A
Reduces engine power turbine speed from 39000rpm at 100% n2 to 6000 rpm engine output shaft speed
13
Q
What does the gas generator turbine turn at at 100% n1?
A
52000 rpm
14
Q
Where is n1c sent?
A
Ebcau and vemd
15
Q
What is n1c measured by?
A
Electro magnetic sensor mounted on the fadec alternator driveshaft
16
Q
What are n1a andn1b derived from?
A
Dual channel engine alternators
17
Q
What does the gas generator drive?
A
Oil pump, starter generator, fuel pump, and faded alternator
18
Q
Where are the three sensors that measure n2?
A
Reduction gearbox casing and power turbine case
19
Q
Where is n2a transmitted?
A
Nr gauge in cockpit
20
Q
Where are n2b and n2c transmitted?
A
Faded and vemd for n2 speed control and overspeed protection
21
Q
What does the power turbine drive?
A
Output shaft and engine compartment cooling fan
22
Q
Each engine is protected from overspeed by what?
A
It’s respective faded in conjunction with the engine interface unit (bim)
23
Q
When will the fadec operate the stop electro-valve via the bim and shut the engine down?
A
When n2 b and n2c sensors detect an n2 speed of 122.5% /-1%
24
Q
Once an engine is shut down by the faded/bim, what is inhibited?
A
Overspeed protection on the second engine
25
Once tripped the system will remain in overspeed mode until what?
Bim is reset
26
The bim acts as a what between the faded and respective engine?
Start relay
27
At what pressure does the respective eng oil 1 and eng oil 2 p, located on the wca panel, illuminates in addition to the red engine status light on the overhead quadrant?
When oil pressure drops below 25 psi minimum
28
What does the conformation box do?
Provides average tot signal to faded and vemd
29
What are the three vemd modules?
One display module and two processing modules
30
Where do the vemd processing modules receive info?
Both fadecs and air data unit
31
What are the three vemd modes?
Operational, maintenance, configuration
32
What do the processing modules receive info from?
Both fadecs and air data unit
33
What are the three modes?
Operational, maintenance, configuration
34
How do you set the vemd in nvg compatible mode?
Pressing both brt and brt- buttons simultaneously for 3 seconds
35
What does vemd stand for?
Vehicle and engine multifunction display
36
Under normal conditions what will the screens display?
Top LCD: first limit indicator
37
If either screen fails, what will remain on other screen?
Scrollable between fli, vehicle, and fuel pages. Epc and system status page will no longer be available
38
What is the bleed air symbol and when is it displayed?
Green and white striped rectangle, anytime respective bleed air valve is open
39
What parameters does the fli zone display?
Torque (trq) turbine outlet temperature (tot) and engine turbine speed ( n1)
40
What does the single needle in the center of the screen measure in fli?
Parameter closest to reaching it's limit
41
What is displayed on fli page when training mode is active?
A yellow triangle with the letter t inside
42
What is displayed on fli page when bleed air is used for cabin heating?
White circle inside a white square with a diagonal bar through it
43
When will the fli appear in aeo (all engine operating) mode?
Both engine n1 are above 40% and neither fadec is in oei, training or idle status
44
What is max continuous?
8.8 fli
45
What is max takeoff?
10
46
What is max transient?
10.7
47
What does the hips arm counter look like?
White pie shape underneath the needle
48
When will the hipsarm counter appear?
When fli needle exceeds 8.8 for 5 minutes with either n1 or tot as the limiting parameter or anytime max takeoff power is exceeded and either n1 or tot is the limiting parameter
49
How long will the hipsarm counter flash before turning solid white at 30 minutes?
2 minutes and 30 seconds
50
When will the fli start mode appear?
Whenever either fadec is in stop mode or the n1 of the engine is increasing and lower than 60% or decreasing and lower than 40%
51
In fli start mode the digital value for tot will be underlined with flashing red line when? Solid red line?
Tot greater than 750*c ... Tot reaches 840*c
52
When will the fli oei mode be displayed?
Whenever n1 of either engine is lower than 40% or either engine is in idle
53
What does the single engine display include?
1. Yellow dashed bar indicating continuous oei power
54
When will the fli oei training mode be displayed?
Anytime both engine n1's are above 40% and fadec is in training mode
55
What are the engine parameters displayed on the simulated failed engine?
Actual engine values of trq tot and n1
56
When will the oei gov mode be displayed?
Whenever n1 on both engines is higher than40% and one of the fadecs is in an oei state but not in an idle state
57
Oei gov mode resembles aeo display with what exceptions?
The current oei setting will be displayed in the upper information zone and the maximum transient limit ( red diode) will shift to match the max takeoff power
58
What parameters does the vehicle page display?
Engine oil temperature, engine oil pressure, mgb oil pressure, mgb oil temperature, primary and secondary hydraulic pressures
59
What does the vehicle page display?
Engine oil temperature, mgb oil temperature, engine oil pressure, mgb oil pressure, primary and secondary hydraulic pressures, oat fuel state and fuel endurance
60
What does the fuel page display?
Fuel pressure, fuel flow, quantity and endurance
61
When fuel bar and quantity change to amber and a "low" alert appear?
Whenever fuel quantity drops below 3%
62
What annunciations does the fuel page contain?
Eng 1 chip, eng 2 chip, mgb chip, tgb chip, servo limit, pedal limit, ldg lock
63
When can an epc be performed?
Whenever nr is between 340 and 360 rpm, n1 is between 92 and 101% and the bleed air valve is closed
64
What does the system status page display?
Fadec system data
65
What is generated automatically at the end of each flight?
Flight report
66
The maintenance mode allows the recall of what?
Past 256 internal vemd failures, last 8 epc results, last seven flight reports, last two flights worth of over limit recording
67
The maintenance mode is only accessible when?
On ground, and when vemd is off
68
How many boost pumps are incorporated into each fuel system?
2
69
The outlet side of the low pressure pump is fitted with a switch that will activate the eng fuel p on wca whenever fuel pressure is less than what?
8.4 psi
70
When fuel filt 1 or fuel filt 2 caution light illuminate?
If pressure differential across the filter increases to approximately 10 psi and pre blockage switch closes
71
Actual bypassing of the fuel filter occurs at what?
17 psi differential
72
Fuel enters the metering assembly where flow is controlled by what?
Fadec
73
On startup fuel flow is preset to a basic flow amount based on what to allow proper starting of the engine?
Oat and residual tot
74
What maintains a constant fuel pressure differential across a metering valve?
A bypass valve
75
What is actuated when the fadec sends a fuel demand and controls the fuel flow and returns a signal to the fadec?
Dual stepper motor
76
What will illuminate in the event of a dual stepper motor failure?
Fadec fail
77
Upon shutdown the stepper motor automatically goes to what position?
Closed
78
Which part of the engine driven fuel pump is centrifugal and includes an impeller that is driven proportional to the n1 speed?
Low pressure pump
79
Which part of engine driven fuel pump is a gear type pump?
High pressure pump
80
How many cells does the number 1 fuel system have?
3. Right forward, left forward, left center
81
What is the combined capacity of the number one fuel system?
964 lbs
82
How many cells does the no. 2 fuel system have?
2. Right center and aft
83
What is the combined capacity of the no. 2 fuel system?
1005 lbs
84
Each fuel system has an engine feed tank..what is the capacity of each tank?
43 lbs
85
What shall be on if operating above 8000ft to prevent a possible feed tank failure?
Both boost pumps
86
What is the fuel jettison rate?
270 lbs per minute
87
When will jettison able fuel be exhausted?
6.5 minutes
88
What will remain after jettison able fuel is exhausted?
43 lbs in each feed tank plus residual fuel which is retained by cells without a jettison valve...158 lbs in no. 1 system and 174 lbs in the right system
89
The remaining fuel after jettisoning is consumable except for what?
27 lbs in the left system, 14 lbs in the right system
90
What functions during hifr to provide overfill protection?
High level shutoff
91
What is the maximum allowable pressure for pressure refueling?
55 psi
92
Which cell is not provided with a variable capacitor fuel gauge transmitter?
Forward right cell
93
When will the feed tank 1 and feed tank 2 lights illuminate?
Feed tank drops below approximately 37 lbs
94
What is indicated fuel at normal hover attitude (4 degrees nose up)?
10% less than actual fuel
95
A pressure relief valve refitted oil to the inlet side of the pump at what?
218.5 psi
96
The oil filter also incorporates what?
Fuel- oil heat exchanger
97
The pre blockage indicator will activate at what in the oil system?
36 psi
98
Actual bypass of filter occurs at what?
82 psi
99
The low pressure switch activates when oil drops below what?
25 psi
100
How many magnetic plugs will give the pilots an indication on the vemd and wca panels?
One
101
When will the oil bypass the cooler?
Oil temp is less than 45 degrees
102
Each oil tank has what capacity?
2 gallons
103
Proper servicing levels of oil will be checked when?
Within 15 minutes of engine shutdown
104
Where should the oil level be during a preflight?
Between minuend max lines
105
What provides air flow through the coolers?
A fan driven by the mgb, above 75 kias forward, ram air alone is sufficient
106
What are the main functions of the fadec?
Starting, speed control, automatic backup control, overspeed protection, system monitoring, and fault management
107
The fadec is redundantly powered by what?
Engine driven, dual channel alternators as well as aircraft power supply
108
What will happen if both alternators fail?
The internal transformer rectifier will allow the fadec to operate normally on dc power
109
The fadec is designed to match what in both engines?
N1
110
What happens if neither channel can control the engine?
A major fadec failure has occured and fuel metering is frozen
111
Backup operation is available through what?
Emergency backup control auxiliary unit ( ebcau)
112
When is the fadec energized?
When the battery is turned-on and will perform a self test
113
Fadec fault detection logic will prevent the second engine from starting on what?
An alternate power source
114
What will happen if there is a failure of tot or oat inputs upon start?
Fadec will use conservative baseline parameters to avoid overtemperature
115
When will automatic engine shutdown occur during the start phase?
Fadec detects a tot of 840 degrees c or if the tot does not exceed 100 degrees c by 27% n1
116
In the event of an inflight restart, the start sequence will not initiate until when?
N1 is below 17%
117
What happens when the fcs is placed in the idle position?
The engine will complete the start sequence and remain at 68% n1
118
In idle, the fadec is powered by it's dual channel alternator once n1 reaches what?
65%
119
What enables the rotor brake to remain engaged for the start of one engine only?
Engine start-low idle function
120
What will the engine idle at with start RBk/ on?
52%
121
The engine will remain at 52% with engine start- low idle function until what?
Mode is canceled and rotor brake is released
122
During flight, collective lever position represents the power required and will determine the n1 operating datum. What is this function also known as?
Anticipation
123
What are the nr hi limitations?
135 kias and 40 degrees angle of bank
124
How is n2 datum calculated?
Calculated according to the control mode and dependent on aircraft altitude
125
What is designed to increase rotor rpm at higher altitudes to maintain rotor efficiency and reduce surcharge noise signature?
Variable nr system ( which is a function of the n2 controller)
126
Above 1650 ft nr is increased 1 rpm for every how many feet? It will increase to a maximum of 360 rpm at what altitude?
840 ft, 5740 ft
127
If the nr system fails, the nr will default to what?
360 rpm
128
In normal torque limitation flight envelope, where does the fadec stop torque at?
110%
129
The fadec will begin increasing trq up to 118% (11.8) when nr decreases to what?
< 335 rpm
130
If nr continues to decrease to less than 317 rpm, the torque stop will increase up to a minimum of what?
125% (12.5)
131
At what drooping rate will the torque stop be immediately increased to a minimum of 125% as soon as nr reaches 324 rpm?
2 rpm/ second
132
What is a level 1 fadec failure?
Loss of redundancy
133
Level 1 fadec failures will be annotated by what?
Flashing gov light on the wca panel
134
What is a level 2 fadec failure?
Loss of non redundant resource
135
What will a level 2 fadec failure manifest?
Steady gov light on the wca panel
136
What is a level 3 fadec failure?
Major fadec failure
137
What is the hips arm power rating and when is hips arm used?
Rating is a dual engine rating above max continuous (8.8) and below the maximum takeoff power (10.0)... Used during demanding hover maneuvers
138
What is not used to determine hips arm time?
Engine torque
139
What is enabled any time the fadec detects a 6% n1 split or a frozen fuel meter in oei?
The oei hi operation is enabled; if in training mode, the oei lo range
140
How is the ebcau energized?
Switching the fadec normal/ backup control switch
141
What happens when the training mode is selected by placing the switch in either idle 1 or idle 2?
The simulated failed engine is governed to 320rpm n2 and the oei training mode is displayed on the vemd
142
What will happen to the idled engine in training mode if nr droops to 320 rpm?
The n2 controller on the idled engine will increase n1 and power the mgb to prevent excessive droop below 320 rpm
143
Nr will not increase above 320rpm in the training mode until what happens?
The collective is reduced to a power level below the good engines topping (approximately 62% torque)
144
When nr droops below 320 in training mode, the idled engine will continue to increase torque without regard to what?
Aircraft limitations
145
When should the training switch be switchedback to the flight position?
With the fli below8.0 and the nr stable at 355rpm
146
The two bimetallic fire detectors located on the accessory/ reduction gearbox are rated at what?
200* c
147
The fire detector located on the gas turbine is rated at what?
400* c
148
What do the fire bottles contain?
Bromtrifloromethane
149
When will the caution lights labeled l ext and r ext illuminate?
When pressure in the corresponding extinguisher drops below 230 psi
150
What kind of leading edge strip does each main rotor blade have?
Stainless steel
151
What is installed inside the leading to counteract natural flapping frequencies that result from the light composite?
Integral brass weight
152
What will prevent engine start unless the rotor brake is released or the start rbk function is utilized?
Fadec logic
153
Each tail rotor blade is constructed of composite materials by what means?
Resin transfer molding
154
Resin transfer molding eliminates what?
Debonding
155
What protects the leading edge of the tail rotor blades?
Reinforced stainless steel cap
156
Why are the tail rotor blades arranged in an uneven pattern?
Reduce the noise signature
157
The main gearbox is a ----------- stage reduction gear system.
Three
158
At what ratio does the reduction gear system reduce engine input rpm to drive the main rotor?
17 to 1
159
At what ratio does the reduction gear system reduce engine input rpm to drive the tail rotor?
1.5 to 1
160
What does the left accessory gearbox drive?
Secondary hydraulic pump and no. 1 alternator
161
What does the right accessory gearbox drive?
Primary hydraulic pump and no. 2 alternator
162
What is the total quantity of self contained oil?
9.34 quarts
163
At what pressure will oil bypass to the mgb sump through the main system relief valve?
130.6 psi
164
What will occur when the auxiliary pump is providing mgb lubrication?
An increase in oil temperature and a lower oil pressure
165
At what speed is ram air sufficient for mgb oil cooling?
120 kias
166
At what pressure at the filter outlet will the mgb press warning light illuminate and the two master warning lights on the instrument panel to flash?
9 /- 1
167
What is the maximum allowable mgb oil temperature?
120*c
168
Where does the copilot indicator receive main rotor speed?
Tachometer generator mounted on and driven by the mgb
169
Where does the pilot indicator receive main rotor speed?
A phonic wheel located on the upper left housing of the mgb
170
When is the 3 hz modulated tone for rotor under speed heard?
When rpm is less than or equal to 345
171
When is the 10hz modulated tone for rotor overspeed heard?
Rpm is greater than or equal to 380
172
During rotor engagement, the under speed warning tone is suppressed until rotor speed reaches what?
172 rpm
173
The tgb reduces tail rotor drive output rpm by what ratio?
1 to .0914
174
How is the tgb lubricated?
Splash lubricated from a self contained oil supply
175
At 100% rpm, what speed does the tail rotor spin?
4000rpm
176
What do the mgb driven alternators supply what?
200 volts, three phase (115 volts single phase) ac
177
What do the engine driven generators supply?
28 volts
178
What does the battery supply?
24 volts
179
What should not be used to charge the aircraft battery?
Spike suppression swithch
180
What is the aircraft battery rated at?
43 amperes
181
How long will a fully charged battery power the dc system?
30 minutes
182
What supplies 28 vdc emergency power to both main dc buses?
Transformer rectifier
183
What powers the transformer rectifier?
Three phase 115 vac from alternator no. 2
184
When will the transformer rectifier energize the battery bus?
When both generators are switched off or have failed
185
What will happen if the voltmeter switch Is left in the bat position for an extended period of time?
Deplete the battery
186
What supplies power for the navigation instruments?
Two 26 vac transformers
187
What can not be used to start engines?
External ac
188
What kinds of protection do the alternator control units provide?
Short circuit, overload protection, under voltage, over voltage, underfrequency
189
When is under frequency protection provided?
Ground operations
190
Two transformers convert 115 vac into 26 vac for what?
Instrument and avionics use
191
Under voltage detection circuits for the 26vac transformers will illuminate fail lights when transformer outputs drop below what?
14 /- 1 volts
192
What is the primary hydraulic system rated at?
870 psi
193
What does the primary hydraulic system provide for?
Upper bodies of the main rotor servos and right body of tail rotor servo
194
What is the capacity of the primary reservoir?
1 gallon
195
Where is the clogging indicator for the primary system?
On the regulation manifold
196
What is the secondary system rated at?
3000 psi
197
Where is the clogging indicator for the secondary system?
On top of the reservoir and another on the generation manifold
198
When fully charged, the wheel brake accumulator will allow for how many braking cycles?
Approximately 20
199
Placing the elec pmp switch to bkp actuated the electric pump only and pressurizes the accumulator to a maximum of what?
1800 psi
200
What is the capacity of the secondary hydraulic system reservoir?
2.1 gallons
201
When will one isolation valve downstream of the of the 3000 to 2000 psi reducer close to isolate the landing gear, wheel brake, and talon as well as isolate normal electrical power to the rescue hoist and the other isolation valve close to isolate the left body of the dual body tail rotor flight control servo?
If secondary hydraulic reservoir drops below one gallon
202
What will be isolated if the tail hyd isolate switch is placed in cutoff?
Landing gear, wheel brakes, talon, normal electrical power to hoist, left body of the dual tail rotor flight control servo
203
The 2000 psi isolation valve is what?
Fail safe open
204
The tail rotor isolation valve requires what to open it?
Power
205
What will happen in the event of a #2 dc bus short or sec hyd breaker popped?
Tail rotor isolate valve will close
206
What kind of switch is the low level probe in the secondary hydraulic reservoir?
Magnetic float switch
207
Where is the isolation relay located?
Copilot landing/ hover light
208
When will the servo jam lights illuminate?
Should one or more distributor valves become jammed or of there is a loss of hydraulic pressure to either system
209
When will the pri servo p or sec servo p warning lights illuminate?
When hydraulic pressure to the flight controls in either primary or secondary drops below 145 psi
210
When will the sec hyd lo press warning light illuminate?
When secondary system hydraulic pump pressure drops below 2450 psi
211
When will the sec hyd hi press warning light illuminate?
When secondary system hydraulic pump pressure exceeds 3480 psi
212
Sec hyd lo press, sec hyd hi press, servo jam and sec hyd isolate lights will be accompanied by what?
Flashing master warning light
213
When will the elec pmp warning light illuminate?
Electric pump switch is positioned to bkp and system pressure rises above 1377 psi
214
When will both limit lights illuminate?
When aircraft is on the ground and cyclic travel exceeds 20 percent on either side of the neutral stick position
215
There is no limit warning for what?
Lateral cyclic travel
216
What do the parallel trim/feel units work in conjunction with?
Afcs
217
What controls the magnitude of rotor lift by varying the pitch angle on all main rotor blades simultaneously and equal?
Collective
218
When will the load limit warning light illuminate?
If there is a main rotor condition that could exceed design limits
219
How is the landing gear powered?
28 vdc from the no. 1 main bus
220
Retraction of the main landing gear will only take place when?
The nose wheel is centered and all of the oleo struts are fully extended
221
What is a restriction with skis installed?
Landing gear must remain down
222
What kind of gas and at what psi is the blow down bottle?
Nitrogen pressurized to 2500psi
223
What happens when the landing gear emergency extension handle is raised?
Nitrogen is discharged through a shuttle valve which isolates the secondary hydraulic system from the emergency system and electrical power to the landing gear solenoid valve is shut off
224
At what altitude will both l gear lights illuminate in conjunction with an aural intercom signal?
200 ft radar altitude if the wheels are up
225
The beak is free to rotate how many degrees?
360
226
What will prevent the probe from extending?
Two weight on wheel switches, one on each main landing gear
227
What are the four light segments on the master switch?
One to provide illumination and three that indicate the status of the system: 1. On indicates there is electrical power to the system 2. Arm indicates the momentary switch is in the engage position 3. Lid indicates the probe is engaged
228
Why is the front of turbojet boom painted black?
To reduce glare during nvg operations
229
What is the hoist capable of lifting?
600 lbs
230
What is the limit of the 10 ft cable extremities?
0-50 ft per minute
231
What is the speed capabilities of the hoist cable?
0-200 ft per minute (except for 10 ft extremities)
232
When controlling the hoist with the pilots collective, what is the speed of the hoist?
Fixed rate of 100ft per minute, except for 10 ft extremities which are limited to 50
233
What is the total length of the cable?
245 ft
234
In case of an electrical failure, the hoist may be manually operated using what?
Hydraulic controls mounted inside the hoist operators control box
235
When is the cable shearing power circuit armed?
Anytime the hoist selector switch is in the ply or crew position
236
In case of total generator failure, cable shear power is provided through what?
Battery bus
237
What does the emergency hoist power switch do?
Provides power directly from the battery bus should the electrical system fail
238
Hoist rate in the manual mode is preset at what?
50 ft per minute
239
Who does not have hoist controls?
Copilot
240
What is the hoist cams field of view?
34* at a 30 ft hover
241
Where is the audio signal for the hoist cam obtained?
From the alternate output of the left passenger audio control box
242
What kind of power does the pru utilize?
115 volt ac
243
Since the pru records all selected audio from the flight mechanic station, hat should be done to prevent unintentional recording of sensitive or classified information?
Secure radios over which such transmissions may be received
244
What does the air data system display in the cockpit?
Indicated airspeed, vertical speed, altitude
245
The airdta system provides airspeed and altitude data to what?
FDs, mfds, afcs, fms, air data converter, and iff transponder
246
The system is made up of how many separate systems?
2: for pilot and copilot
247
What does the pilots system consist of?
Pitot head, static ports, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter encoder, static source select valve, tubing and drains
248
What does the folklore system consist of?
Pitot head, static ports, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter, indicated airspeed sensor, electronic altitude controller, tubing and drains
249
What does the pilots system provide?
Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude indications to the pilots side of the cockpit and an encoded altitude output to the iff transponder for transmission whenever mode c is interrogated
250
What does the cookouts system provide?
Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude indications to the cookouts side of the cockpit
251
What is provided by the ias sensor and altitude controller
Airspeed, altitude, altitude rate, altitude error, and valid air data outputs
252
What can be done if the pilots altimeter encoder and vertical speed indicator display erratic or erroneous information?
The static press valve can be positioned to standby
253
The static press valve is secured to what position with breakaway wire?
Normal
254
Where is static pressure taken from if the static press valve is in the stand by position?
Cockpit
255
What does the pilots pitot static system have that the copilots does not?
Alternate static pressure source
256
What can be done if the copilots altimeter and vertical speed indicator display erratic or erroneous indications?
Use the static press isolating valve, which shuts off static pressure to the avionics rack
257
What is used to shut off pitot pressure to the avionics rack if the copilots airspeed indicator displays erratic or erroneous information?
Total press isolating valve
258
What provides avionics compartment. And cabin cooling through the upper duct system?
Vapor cycle air conditioning unit
259
What might happen if the cool switch on both fcss are idle?
Damage ecs systems
260
What happens any time either engine exceeds approximately 101.9 n1 /- .8%?
Bleed air shutoff valve automatically closes and the air conditioner compressor clutch disengages
261
When will bleed air automatically shutoff?
Engine failure
262
Control of the cabin heat selector knob is limited to what temperature unless placed in the override position?
68* f
263
When will the freon hi pres caution light illuminate and compressor disengage?
Condenser inlet pressure execs approximately 392 psi for more than 20 seconds
264
What will happen approximately 20 seconds after low pressure is detected at the evaporator outlet?
Compressor disengages, no visual indications
265
A thermostatic probe is installed in the lower right heat duct aft of the 9 degree frame, which will direct the regulator valve to close if duct temperature reaches what?
185* f
266
When will the heat o/heat warning light illuminate?
Temperature of approximately 275* f and above is detected at one or more thermoswitches near the fadec computers, the bleed air pneumatic control valve in the aft cabin overhead or the lower duct system
267
If oat is above what, the ecs system may not provide adequate cooling to the avionics rack?
85* f
268
When will the av rack o/ heat light illuminate?
Inlet air to av rack goes above 68*f or thermoswitch detects 109.4*f
269
When should the windshield wipers never be operated?
On a dry surface
270
Describe the contents of the windshield wiper plastic tank
Filled with water-ethylene glycol solution and has a capacity of three pints
271
At what temperature will heating of the windshields occur?
Temperature sensed atwindshiekd is below 22* c
272
When will heating at windshield stop?
Temperature rises to 28*c
273
What will happen if the temperature sensor in one windshield fails?
Control is automatically provided through the temperature regulator of the opposite windshield
274
Which interior lights are not nvg compatible?
Crew cabin lights
275
When will the emergency lights illuminate?
Impact force in ecxess of 3.2 vertical g's or 4.0 horizontal g's
276
At what rate does the anti collision lamp illuminate?
50 times per minute
277
The focus knob for the searchlight can adjust the beam within what parameters?
2* to 10*
278
What is the maximum airspeed for opening and closing the sliding door?
80kias
279
The sliding door must be maintained closed above what speed?
100kias
280
What is the maximum speed for opening and closing the hatch?
60kias forward airspeed and 30 knots sidewrd flight
281
When must the hatch be fully latched open?
Speeds from 60 to 80 kias forward airspeed and up to 35 knots sideward flight
282
What kind of portable fire extinguisher is in the cabin?
Halon
283
On what frequencies does the elt transmit?
121.5 and 243.0 mhz
284
At what distance will the elt transmit?
200 miles
285
When will the elt automatically start transmitting?
Impact of 5 g's or more in the direction of flight
286
What is the battery life of the elt?
In excess of 100 hours
287
What is the underwater acoustic beacon attached to?
Vfdr
288
The underwater acoustic beacon can withstand deep water immersion up to what depth?
20,000ft
289
When will the underwater acoustic beacon automatically activate?
When immersed in water
290
On what frequency does the underwater acoustic beacon transmit?
37.5 khz
291
What is the operating life and detection range of the underwater acoustic beacon?
30 days and 2000 to 4000 yards
292
How many independent air bags are in each cylindrical float?
Three
293
What kind of air fills the floats?
Helium
294
With all four floats properly deployed, how long will the helicopter stay afloat?
At sea state 2 condition, at least four minutes with the waterline below the cabin floor
295
What kind of landing should be made with the flotation gear inflated?
Vertical landing
296
The floats are inflated to shape in what amount of time?
2.5 seconds
297
The helium cylinders are completely discharged in what amount of time?
Less than four seconds
298
What does the pilots adi receive signal inputs from?
Flight director computer, radar altimeter, altitude gyro no. 1, yaw rate gyro no.1 and the vor/localized receiver
299
Where does the copilots adi receive signal inputs from?
Flight director computer, radar altimeter, attitude gyro no.2, yaw rate gyro no.2 and the vor/ localized receiver
300
The attitude gyros provide inputs for which axis?
Pitch and roll
301
Attitude gyro no.1 send inputs to what?
Pilot adi and arcs computer
302
Attitude gyro no.2 send inputs to what?
Copilot adi, afcs computer, fd computer, radar antenna stabilization
303
When does the decision height annunciator light?
When the aircraft descends to the radar altitude that has been set on the respective radar altimeter
304
When will the radar altitude pointer retract from view on the adi?
Radar altitude is greater than 200 ft
305
What does the collective command pointer represent?
Collective pitch required to obtain the commanded flight profile
306
What will appear in the upper left corner of the adi whenever there is a loss of adi power or loss of a valid signal from the attitude gyros?
Red flag marked att
307
What will appear in the upper right corner whenever there is a loss of a valid Fdc signal?
Red flag marked fd
308
What will appear in the lower right corner of the adi if there is a loss of valid radar altitude?
Red flag marked alt
309
What is the hsi?
Horizontal situation display mode of the mfd
310
What will happen if there is a loss of compass validity on the mfd?
The lubber line will disappear and a slashed heading symbol to appear in it's place....the desired course pointer will point to the original position of the lubber line and the display becomes a course deviation indicator
311
Why does the double bar pointer point to on the bdi?
Vor or adf/df
312
What does the single bar pointer point to on the bdi?
Vor or tacan
313
What is the digital electronic clock time controlled by?
Quartz crystal oscillator
314
What combines a conventional barometric type altimeter with a counter drum pointer display and an altitude reporting encoder in one self-contained unit?
Altimeter encoder
315
What is the difference between the altimeter encoder and the copilot altimeter?
It does not have an altitude encoder or a code off display mechanism
316
Where is the oat reading on the cdu taken from?
Temperature sensor on the oads assembly
317
Where is the oat on the vemd taken from?
Adu
318
The radar altimeter system provides altitude for what range?
Above ground level flight below 2500ft
319
When is the self test function inhibited on the radar altimeter?
If the radar altimeter is coupled to the flight director computer when t-hov, hov, aug, or appr mode is selected
320
What should the altitude pointer read when the radar altimeter is tested?
400 /- 40
321
What audio signals does the radar altimeter provide?
Whenever the help descends below 200ft and 40ft radar altitude with the landing gear not down and locked, decision height warning,
322
How can low altitude warnings be canceled?
Placing the horn aural warn switch in the rst position
323
What are the indications of the radar altimeter?
Black and yellow striped NO TRACK flag will appear in both indicators, a continuous aural tone will sound in pilot and copilot headsets, the altitude pointer will go behind the NO TRACK mask, the RA flag will appear on the MFD hover page, vertical guidance in the THOV and HOV AUGmodes of the flight director will become inoperative, the red ALT flag will appear in the lower right corner of each ADI
324
The primary control of the fms is through what?
Cdu's
325
Utilization of the data bus is controlled by what?
System coupler computers (scc)
326
What does the siu do?
Provide signal interfacing and conditioning for the fms
327
What provides complete integration of the tuning, control, and display of the communication and navigation radios?
Scc
328
What do the scc's contain to interface those avionics lru's that are not connected directly to the dual data bus?
Interface adapter modules (iam)
329
During normal operation, which cdu assumes data bus control?
Pilots (bc), copilots acts as a remote terminal (rt)
330
What does the rt cdu do?
Processes keystrokes and displays data
331
Both rru's are controlled by what?
Scc 1
332
What two tests does the cdu provide?
Initiated built-in-test (ibit), continuous built-in-test (cbit)
333
When is the ibit available?
Through activation of the weight on wheels switch
334
What happens when the hoist operator selects alternate?
Switched in parallel to nearest auxiliary audio control nd hd intercom capability only
335
What happens when the pilots audio bypass is placed in bypass?
Continued radio communication on comm 1 only
336
What happens when copilots bypass is placed in bypass?
Also places hoist operator in bypass ics and provides continued radio communication on comm 2 only
337
How can the pilot and copilot communicate in bypass?
Both switches must be in bypass
338
What does the remote readout unit (rru) do?
Dedicated to the display of comm 1 or comm 2 active and alternate frequency display/selection
339
What are the radio guard frequencies?
40.5 fm, 121.5am, 156.80 am, 243.0 am
340
What is the hf frequency range?
2000.0 to 29999.9 kHz
341
Why is the frequency range of the fm system?
150.0000 to 173.9975 MHz
342
How many series actuaries are there?
Four...two for roll, one for one in pitch, one in yaw
343
What provides airspeed inputs for the yaw axis sideslip prevention function?
The ias transducer and the lateral accelerometer
344
What does the trim switch on the overhead panel do?
Merely engages or disengages the electromagnetic clutch that provides cyclic stick position holding....does not turn the cyclic trim on or off
345
What must be on to power the trim release button?
Overhead trim switch
346
What will activate the force breakout switch and permit pilot induced "fly-through"?
One half pound of cyclic pressure
347
The afcs will maintain the attitude selected by the pilot to what limit?
45* left or right
348
What is the limit of pitch attitude selected by the pilot?
12*
349
What is not possible during single gyro operation?
Hardcover protection
350
What is the horizontal situation indicator (hsi)?
Full 360* compass which displays deviation data and selected course information to the aircrew for navigation
351
What is the map page?
A compass rose with an 80* arc displaying a pictorial of the current flight plan
352
What is the weather radar with map page?
(rmap) the same as the map mode with the addition of a weather radar video overlay
353
What is the circle map page?
(cmap) provides a 360* top-downed pictorial of the current flight plan
354
What is the hover page?
Provides flight director visualization and indications to attain and control the aircraft at designated hover points
355
What is the video page?
Displays the selected video source, wxr, flir, or video camera
356
On which pages are mfd and aircraft sensor failure/validity flags displayed?
All mfd pages
357
What is mode 1?
Security identification. 32 possible codes
358
What is mode 2?
Personal identification 4096 codes available
359
What is mode 3a?
Traffic identification. 4096 possible codes
360
What is mode 4?
Special encrypted military code identification
361
What is mode c?
Altitude interrogation 4096 codes available
362
What is emergency mode?
Enables all modes, and switches mode 3a to the emergency code 7700
363
How many hours of flight data can be recorded on the vfdr?
25 hours
364
How many hours of audio monitored by the pilot, flight mechanic and area microphone can be recorded by the vfdr?
Four hours
365
On what frequencies does the Tcas transmit and receive?
Generates 1030mhz interrogation pulses and receives 1090mhz reply
366
What are the four Tcas modes?
Normal, above, below, ground
367
What does the traffic alert symbol look like on the Tcas?
Solid yellow circle
368
Tcas system may not display targets in what area?
/- 8* aft and above own aircraft
369
When are aircraft considered a traffic alert?
It will intercept your own aircrafts track within approximately 15-30 seconds or when an intruder is within 0.55nmand /- 800 feet vertically
370
When does Tcas automatically revert to the standby mode?
24 seconds after the aircraft weight on wheels switch senses the aircraft has landed
371
At what speed does the omnidirectional airspeed sensor rotate?
720 rpm
372
What are the radar ranges?
2.5, 5.0, 10.0, 20.0, 40.0, 80.0, 160.0 nautical miles
373
What are the radar modes?
Search 1, search 2, search 3, test, wx,wxa
374
What are the ranges for search 1 and search 2?
2.5 to 10 nm
375
What ranges are search mode 3 and the weather modes best suited for?
20nm or greater
376
When is search 1 primarily for?
Target search when operating in a high sea state environment
377
What is search 2 primarily for?
High resolution target search in low sea states or precision ground mapping
378
What is search 3 designed for?
Maximum clutter returns as required for mapping oil slick areas
379
What does the scan integration switch do?
Enhances target detection in high sea clutter
380
The antenna will no longer be stabilized in relation to the horizon if what fails?
The copilot vertical gyro
381
When will the afc/agc monitor lamp illuminate?
When the radar mode select knob is in the stby or test position. If in srch 1,2,3, wx or wxa illumination will indicate a malfunction in the automatic frequency control or automatic gain control
382
When shall the hoist hook be in the locked position?
Direct deployments of the rescue swimmer to a vertical surface, rescue litter recoveries
383
The hoist should be in the locked position for what?
Rescue basket deliveries and recoveries, rescue litter deliveries
384
When shall the the hoist hook be in the unlocked position?
Bare hook recoveries of the rescue swimmer
385
When should the hoist hook be in the unlocked position?
All other rescue swimmer deployments and recoveries
386
When is the rescue litter used?
Where the survivor is not ambulatory
387
How should the sling be delivered?
Only one end connected to the hook
388
Describe the trail line
Triple strand polypropylene, 105 feet in length
389
What force will cause the weak link to fail?
300 lbs
390
What is the direct method of delivering a dewatering pump?
Standard hoist with or without a trail line
391
Describe the procedure for the indirect method for delivering the dewatering pump
The weak link end of trail line, with weight bag, is lowered to the vessel. The helicopter is moved left and a low hover is established. The non weak link end of the trail line is clipped to the two pump bridle d-rings and the pump is dropped into the water
392
How much does the lru-20 raft weigh?
65 lbs
393
How do you deliver the lru-20 raft to a vessel?
The same as a dewatering pump except the hoist hook is attached to one of the raft handlesvfor a direct delivery
394
How do you deliver an lru-20 to people in the water?
Indirect method. Attach float strobe and weight bag to weak end and other end to raft case handle. Attach additional flotation, such as swing to trail line.
395
Main gearbox fire
Corrective action:
396
Engine compartment fire in flight
Corrective action:
397
Engine compartment fire on deck
Corrective action:
398
Internal fire (cabin, electrical, and/or avionics)
1. Designate crew member to fight fire
399
Smoke and fume elimination
1. Heat/cool switches -off
400
Engine post shutdown fire
1. Fadec control switch - check off
401
Tgb chip detected
1. Establish safe altitude and airspeed for possible loss of tail rotor thrust
402
The big four
1. Nr- maintain
403
N1 divergence/partial power loss
1. Complete the big "4"
404
Major fadec/governor failure
1. Complete the big 4
405
Minor fadec/governor failure
Complete the big four
406
Primary hydraulic system failure
1. Cruise airspeed - 75 to 100 kias
407
Dual ac bus failure
Flight controls - stabilize aircraft
408
Ac system failure (main ac bus short, alternator, alternator control unit or 115/26 vac system failure)
1. Flight controls- stabilize aircraft
409
Battery over temperature/thermal runaway
Batt relay switches - both off
410
Engine fuel pressure low
1. Complete the big 4
411
Nose wheel shimmy damper failure
1. Lift aircraft off ground immediately or reduce taxi speed
412
Heater overheat
Heat switch- off
413
Hoist cable fouled/damaged
If injury or damage is imminent:
414
Hoist failure
1. Advise the pilot "committed" or "not committed"
415
Hoist boom failure
1. Hoist master switch - check crew position
416
Hoist electrical runaway
1. Secure hoist power at the hoist control panel only
417
Lost communications during hoisting operations
1. Flight mechanic - tap the pilot and give hold signal (closed fist)
418
Emergency egress procedures
1. Wait for all violent motion to stop
419
Malfunctioning cabin sliding door
Flight mechanic - remain secured to aircraft
420
What is the minimum required crew?
One pilot in the right seat and one crew member in the cabin
421
The fli will provide information in the message zone to alert crew to what limit exceedances?
Fuel, hydraulics, or engine
422
What are the airspeed and angle of bank limitations with nr hi?
135 kias and 40*
423
What is the maximum operating density altitude for takeoffs and landings?
10,000 ft
424
What is the maximum operating density altitude for forward flight?
18000 ft
425
What is the tot limit for engine starting and what are the indications?
750*, will be underscored with a red blinking line when reached. If tot exceeds 840*c during start cycle, it will be indicated as a solid red line and the fadec will automatically shut down the engine
426
What is the max tot for continuous?
891*c
427
What is the max tot for max takeoff 5 min?
929 *c
428
What is the max tot for hip/Sarm 30 min?
929* c
429
What is the max tot for transient 5 sec?
944*c
430
N1 limit values change based on what?
Altitude and oat
431
What happens should a difference >_ 6% n1 develop between the two engines?
Fadec assumes an engine failure and arms oei 30 second rating for both engines
432
When will the fadec overspeed safety feature shut down an engine?
429 rpm /- 4 rpm
433
When shall nr hi be used?
Hover flight greater than 10 ft gal and all lateral flight
434
What's the limit on starter engagements?
Five consecutive attempts; allow a minimum of 60 seconds between start attempts and 30 minutes after the fifth attempt
435
What is the maximum limit for cranking?
20 seconds, max of three consecutive crankings with 5 minute cooling periods
436
What will happen if the crank button is used with the efsl pulled?
Severe damage to the engine fuel pump
437
What is the minimum fuel pressure required prior to engine start?
5.8psi
438
What is the minimum fuel pressure required for the starting and operating phase?
3.6 psi
439
What is the maximum voltage for the dc electrical system?
30 volts
440
What is the maximum voltage for the ac electrical system?
120 volts
441
What is the maximum gross weight?
9,480 lbs
442
Weight on the cabin deck should not exceed what?
125 pounds per square foot
443
What is the tiedown ring strength?
1800 lbs acting upward or through a 30 degree arc from vertical
444
What is the maximum allowable weight in the baggage compartment?
440 lbs, center composite panel is limited to 125 lbs, two outboard metal panels limited to 61.5 pounds per square foot
445
What is the maximum permissible forward airspeed?
175 kias at sea level, at a gross weight not exceeding 6614 lbs
446
What is the maximum cargo hook load speed?
90 kias
447
What is the max speed with floats armed or inflated?
90 kias
448
What is the maximum touchdown speed
60 kgs
449
What is the maximum brake speed?
Gross weight at or less than 8900lb: 38 kgs
450
What is the maximum light extension speed?
135 kias
451
What are the rotor engagement limitations?
55 knots within 20 degrees of aircraft heading, 35 knots from all other directions
452
What is the maximum touchdown sink rate at maximum gross weight of 8900lbs?
600 ft per minute
453
What is the maximum speed for touchdown?
60knots
454
What is the slope limitation for landing and stopping the rotor?
10 degrees
455
What is the maximum rotor speed for using the rotor brake?
170rpm
456
What is the maximum rotor braking time?
13 seconds
457
What is the maximum permissible hook load weight?
2000 lbs
458
At what airspeeds may fuel be jettisoned?
40 to 120 kias
459
What are the prohibited maneuvers?
1. Aerobatic flight
