Micro 107 Unit 6 Flashcards

(95 cards)

1
Q

Which is the only Enteric bacteria whcih is oxidase positive?

A

Plesiomonas spp.

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2
Q

What are the selective and differential media for Enterobacteriacae(Enterics)?

A

MAC, EMB, HE(K), XLD.

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3
Q

What is MAC differential for?

A

Lactose fermentation

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4
Q

What is EMB differential for?

A

Lactose and Sucrose fermentation

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5
Q

What is HE(K) differential for?

A

Lactose and Sucrose fermentation. Bile salts inhibit gram-positive and some gram-negative

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6
Q

What color do Shigella colonies apear as on AXD agar?

A

Colorless or red

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7
Q

What are the two major types of pathogens?

A

Opportunistic: Normal Flora
Primary: Ingesting contaminated food or water

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8
Q

What are the key 3 primary Enteric pathogens?

A

Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia

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9
Q

What are the general characteristics of Escherichia coli (E. coli)

A

Dry pink colony with a halo on MAC
Green metallic sheen on EMB

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10
Q

What are the key tests described in the IMViC accryonym

A

Indole
Methyl red
Voges-Proskauer
Citrate

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11
Q

What is the IMViC for E. coli

A

++–

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12
Q

What carbs does E. coli ferment

A

Glucose, Lactose, Trehalose, and Xylose
GTXL

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13
Q

Why is Uropathogenic E. coli clinically significant

A

Most common cause of UTI’s in humans

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14
Q

What are the 5 major categories of E. coli

A

ETEC
EPEC
EIEC
EHEC
Enteroadherent
- DAEC
- EAEC

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15
Q

What climate is ETEC generally acquired in giving it the name “travelers diarrhea”

A

tropical and subtropical climates

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16
Q

Where do EPEC outbreaks occur

A

Nurseries and daycares

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17
Q

What conditions can EHEC O157:H7 lead to

A

Hemorrhagic diarrhea
Colitis
Watery diarrhea progressing to bloody diarrhea in young children and elderly
HUS

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18
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for E. coli O157:H7

A

Primary screening on a stool culture
MAC agar with sorbitol (SMAC)

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19
Q

What seperates E. coli 157:H7 from most other E. coli

A

Does not ferment sorbitol in 48 hours

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20
Q

Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, Pantonea, Cronobacter, and Hafnia are associated with what kind of infections

A

opporunistic and nosocomial

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21
Q

Klebsiella pnumoniae is the most common isolate of the Klebsiella family and appears ______ on a BAP

A

moist, gray, mucoid colonies

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22
Q

What are the 4 clinically significant species of Enterobacter

A

E. cloacae
E. aerogenes
E. geroviae
E. hormaechei

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23
Q

Which 2 Enterobacter species are the most commonly isolated

A

E. CLoacae
E. aerogenes

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24
Q

Proteus Species are what kind of bacteria

A

normal intestinal microbiota (Normal Flora)

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25
What is the colony morphology of Proteus spp.
Swarming colonies and a distinct "burnt chocolate" smell
26
The Morganella spp.'s only species, M. morganii is isolated in ___ infections and is a cause of ___
UTI Neonatal Sepsis
27
P. stuartii is implicated in nosoomial outbreaks in what unit of the hospital
Burn unit
28
P. stuartii is isolated in ___ cultres
Urine
29
What makes Providencia spp. difficult to treat
High resistance to antimicrobials
30
Edwardsiella does not grow on what medium
Simmon's citrate
31
Of the 11 Citrobacter spp. what are the 3 most common isolated
C. freundii C. koseri C. braakii
32
What infection is C. freundii associated with
UTI
33
What infection is C. koseri associated with
Neonatal Meningitis
34
What is the colony morphology of Salmonella spp.
Clear, colorless, non-lactose fermenting colonies with black centers on MAC agar
35
What tests do we run to dfferentiate Salmonella subgroups
Lysine decarboxylase rules out S. paratyphi Ornithone decarboxylase rules out S. typhi Trehalose fermentation rules out S. cholaraesuis
36
What is the primary virulence factor of S. enterica
Enterotoxin: involved in gastroenteritis
37
Clinical infections of S. enterica present as ____ and are caused by ___
Food poisoning with vomiting and diarrhea Ingestion of organism in contaminated food
38
When do symptoms of S. enterica appear
8-36 hours after ingestion of contaminated food
39
Most cases of Salmonella gastroenteritis (Salmonellosis) are ____
Self Limiting
40
Development of Typhoid fever, caused by S. typhi can lead to
Fever, malaise, anorexia, lethargy, myalgia, and a dull headache
41
Define Carrier State
Individuals who recover from infection but harbor the organisms in the gallbladder
42
All Shigella spp. can cause ___
Dysentery
43
The only resivoir of Shigella spp. is ___
Humans
44
Local inflammation and shedding of intestinal lining containing mucus, blood, ulcer formation, and tenesmes (rectal prolapse)
Dysentery
45
Biochemical identificaton of SHigella spp.
No urease production No H2S in TSI Nonmotile
46
Which Yersinia spp. is considered a class A bioterrorism agent
Y. pestis
47
Y. pestis causes _____
Plague in the Bubonic, Septicemic, and Pneumonic forms
48
When does the septicemic form of the plague occur
when the bacteria migrate to the bloodstream
49
What specialized agar is used for the identification of Y. enterocolitica
CIN agar
50
What cultures is Kluyvera isolated from
Respiratory, Urine, and Blood
51
What transport media must labs provide for Enterobacteriaceae
Cairy-blair Amies Stuart
52
What should all fecal specimens be screened for
Salmonella Shigella Campylobacter
53
What selective media should be used for stool specimens
HE(K) XLD EMB
54
What environment is Vibrio commonly found in
Aquatic environments including fresh and salt water
55
An increase in the isolation of Vibrio can be linked to
Increased consumption of seafood Undercooked or raw seafood
56
V. cholera is the causative agent of ____
cholera
57
Where does V. cholera originate
The Bengal region of India and Bangledesh
58
What are the clinical manifestations of cholera
Severe acute gastroenteritis Rice-water stool ( stool with fleks of mucus)
59
What is the recomended treatment of cholera
IV and oral fluids containing electrolytes
60
What is the second most common Vibrio spp.
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
61
V. parahaemolyticus was discovered in ___
Japan in 1950 Known as summer diarrhea
62
As of 2007 the CDC requires that cases of _____ be reported to local and state public health agencies
V. vulnificus
63
If clinical history indicates Vibrios use
thiosulfate, citrate, bile salts, sucrose (TCBS agar)
64
Biochemical identification of Vibrios spp.
Catalase positive Oxidase positive Ferments glucose Reduces nitrate to nitrite Susceptible to Vibriostat disc
65
Biochemical identification of Aeromonas
Oxidase positibe Indole positive
66
Where is Plesimonas found
Soil and aquatic environments
67
What are the 3 major clinical types of gastroenteritis
Watery diarrhea Subacute or chronic disease( 2 weeks to 3 months) Dysenenteric form resemblig cholitis
68
Who is most at risk of Plesimonas
Vets and zookeepers
69
What agar can be used to enhance the isolation of Plesimonads
IBB
70
Biochemical Identification of Plesimonas
Oxidase Positive
71
What is unique to Campylobacter spp.
They are Microaerophillic organisms - They require oxygen but at a concentration of only 5%
72
The transmisson of Campylobacterioses has ben attributed to
Infected pets such as dogs cats and birds
73
What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis
Campylobacter jejuni
74
What symptoms follow infection of Campylobacer jejuni
Cramps, bloody diarrhea, fever, chills, and rarely nausea and vomiting
75
Helicobacter pylori is repsonsible for
Damaging tissue, resulting in gastric, peptic, and duodenal ulcers
76
What transport medium must be used for Campylobacter
Cary-Blair for stool samples
77
What environment must Campylobacter plates be incubated in
Microaerophillic, and Capnophilic 5%-10% oxygen and 10% CO2 at 42*C
78
What is the microscopic morphology of Campylobacter
Non-spore forming gram negative rods S or segull-wing shape
79
biochemical identification of Campylobacter
Oxidase positive Exhibits a "darting" motility on hanging drop preperations
80
For the laboratory identification of Helicobacter, gastric biopsy can be tested for the presens of a ___
Rapid Urease reaction
81
Rapid Urease reaction test
Requires christensen's urea Rapid color change in 2 hours
82
Another commercial rapid test for Helicobacter
Urea breath test
83
Miscellaneous Gram negative bacilli
Do not ferment carbohydrates grow only in aerobic environments prefer moist environments
84
Clinical infections of non-fermenters
Account for 15% of all gram-negative bacilli isolated in clinial infections (Pseudomonas aeruginosa 5-15%)
85
Pseudomonas aeruginosa accounts for ____ of all nosocomial infections, especially pneumonia and bacteremia
5-15%
86
Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause
pulmonary disease, especially among individuals with cystic fibrosis
87
What is the primary virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Alginate -A polysaccharide polymer
88
Overproduction of the Alginate factor in Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces
Mucoid colonies. Seen primarily in cystic fibrosis patients
89
Laboratory identification of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Many strains produce a fruity grape like odor caused by the presence of 2-aminoacetophenone
90
Biochemical identification of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Motile Indole negative ADH positive Growth at 42*C
91
Antimicrobial susceptibility for Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Carbapenems Flouroquinolones
92
Clinical infections for P. stutzeri
Endocarditis Septic arthritis Conjunctivitis
93
Culture and colony morphology for P, stutzeri
Wrinkled, leathery, adherent colonies that may produce a light yellow or brown pigment
94
P. mendocina is considered
A contaminant
95
Acinetobacter spp. appears as
gram negative coccobacilli