Micro Flashcards

(90 cards)

1
Q

staining for cryptococcus neoformans

A

india ink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

staining for pneumocystitis

A

silver staining or periodic acid-schiff stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

staining for candida

A

periodic acid-Schiff or methenamine silver stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

staining for aspergillus

A

methenamine silver stain or PAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

antigenic test for cryptococcus

A

glucoronoxylomannan (GXM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

antigen test for aspergillus

A

galactomannan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

antigen test for candida, PCP and aspergillus

A

Beta D Glucan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

antibiotic for bacterial vaginosis

A

metronidazole

stat or weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What organism is responsible for the sexually transmitted infection Chancroid, which causes multiple painful ulcers.

A

haemophilus ducreyi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what chemical reaction test can be diagnostic for the presence of tinea or trycophyton

A

potassium hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what infection is fungal serology used for

A

histoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pneumonia in plumbers

A

legionella pneumophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

abx for legionella

A

doxycycline, macrolides or fluroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how is pityriasis vesicolour diagnosed

A

Wood’s lamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

food poisoning within couple hours is most likely be caused by?

A

staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During which trimester of pregnancy is the risk of HSV transmission to a neonate greatest?

A

3rd Trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The presence of clue cells on microscopy of vaginal discharge suggests what diagnosis?

A

bacterial vaginosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the name of the neurological sign of a pupil that accommodates, but does not react to light?

A

Argyll Robertson pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

key feature of leptospirosis

A

subconjuctival haemorrhages

abnormal U&Es
farmers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What gram positive organism is associated with tumbling motility and rockets?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What diagnostic test is used to diagnose chlamydia infection?

A

Nucleic Acid Amplification tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What antiviral drug is typically given prophylactically to patients undergoing allogenic stem cell transplantation to protect against CMV infection?

A

gancyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the treatment of syphilis

A

IM benzylpencillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what reaction can develop hours after treating syphilis

A

Jarisch Herxheimer reaction

fever, headache and muscle aches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the first line antibiotic for the treatment of sinusitis in a systemically well patient with no known allergies, assuming there has been no improvement of symptoms for at least 10 days?
phenoxymethypenicillin
26
offensive smelling, yellow-green discharge
Trichomonas vaginalis
27
treatment of trichomonas vaginalis
metronidazole
28
what blood test should be done prior to starting a systemic anti fungal such as terbinafine
LFTs
29
which organs are affected by visceral leishmaniasis
liver, spleen and bone marrow. diagnosed with splenic or bone marrow aspirate
30
An adult with molloscum contagiosum must have which infection ruled out?
HIV
31
What is the most common organism that causes an aseptic meningitis?
enterovirus Other viruses such as herpes simplex, varicella-zoster, mumps, and HIV can also cause it.
32
what is aseptic meningitis?
Aseptic meningitis is inflammation of the membranes around the brain and spinal cord without any bacterial or fungal infection.
33
What is the bacteria responsible for Scarlet Fever?
Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Strep)
34
antiviral given to child with co-morbidities with Respiratory Syncytial virus
ribavirin
35
which pneumonia has a halo sign on chest x ray
aspergillus fumigatus
36
treatment for aspergillus fumigatus
voriconazole
37
treatment for cryptococcus neoformans
amphotericin B
38
fungi involved in pityriasis vesicolour
malassezia furfur
39
Lady came back from visiting her sister in Arizona with systemic sx responsible fungus?
coccidioides
40
Man in his 60s with poorly controlled diabetes presents with rapidly progressing periorbital swelling, sinus pain and confusion
rhizopus spp causing mucromycosis
41
A soldier returning from Afghanistan has a small ulcer on right ring finger that won’t heal and keeps getting bigger
Leishmaniasis
42
Snail trail oral ulcer in a homosexual man
treponema pallidum
43
Virus that may cause Hydrops fetalis if caught in first 20wks of pregnancy
parvovirus
44
Virus that require C-section if mother has an outbreak at 34wks or later due to risk of transmission vaginally
herpes simplex virus
45
Virus which if transmitted to baby: they can initially be symptomless but then come down with long term sequelae
cytomegalovirus
46
undercooked poultry at the barbecue causing bloody diarrhoea
campylobacter jejuni
47
associate with Guillaine Barre Syndrome
campylobacter jejuni
48
Beta lactam with anti-pseudomonal activity
ceftazidime
49
Broad spec, no pseudomonal activity usually given with a beta lactamase inhibitor
amoxicillin
50
A DNA synthesis inhibitor used to treat Pseudomonal infections but poor against anaerobes
ciprofloxacin
51
which STI causes a painless ulcer and which one is painful
painless: treponema pallidum (syphilis) painful: HSV
52
what causes genital warts, what causes genital ulcers
warts: HPV 6 and 1 ulcers: HSV 2
53
which STI can be identified on wet prep microscopy
trichomonas vaginalis
54
19 year old rugby player with boils, members of his team have similar boils, as do members of his family
staphylococcus aureus
55
Neonate has meningitis, Gram positive organism in chains
Group B strep
56
vaccine preventable disease: Virus that resides in pharynx and GIT - 1:100 encephalitis, 1:1000 destruction of motor neurons
poliovirus
57
vaccine preventable disease that develops a grey film over the back of the throat
diphtheria
58
vaccine preventable disease that causes a maculopapular rash moves from face that can cause encephalitis and pneumonitis
measles
59
vaccine preventable disease that causes lockjaw
tetanus
60
bacteria that causes cat scratch disease
Bartonella henselae
61
what is the definite of herd immunity threshold
The proportion of immune healthy people needed within a population to stop a pathogen’s spread: 1- (1/R0)%
62
what is the lifetime risk of immunocompetent getting active TB?
10%
63
Receptor/ cytokine mutation that could be protective in HIV
CCR5/MIP-1a
64
what drug is used to treat severe malaria is artesunate is not available
IV quinine
65
what does the Paul Bunnell test look for
presence of antibodies to EBV
66
Which vaccine-preventable organism causes cough, lymph node enlargement and has a potential to occlude the airway?
corynebacterium diphtheriae
67
Boy visits grandparents in Wiltshire, comes back with 5 days of diarrhoea, no vomiting, and unexplained bruises all over body, which organism has most likely triggered this
E.coli 0157:H7
68
Natural antibodies against what can confer protective immunity against HIV?
HIV gp120
69
most common cause of cellulitis
streptococcus pyogenes (group A)
70
which enzyme involved in HIV DNA formation is error prone
reverse transcriptase
71
Which vector transmits Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense?
tsetse fly
72
Which of these is the most likely causative organism of a hospital acquired pneumonia?
pseudomonas aeruginosa
73
what is the most common cause of fever in the returning traveller?
malaria
74
antigen test for asperigillus
galactomannan
75
most likely organism in prosthetic joint infection
CoNS
76
Which viral infection has the feature of owl eye inclusions
CMV
77
Difference in presentation between dengue and typhoid
Dengue: high fever sudden onset; maculopapular rash; haemorrhagic manifestations; severe abdominal pain; low platelets; intense joint and muscle pain Typhoid: gradual onset high fever; constipation; rose spots; systemically unwell
78
Which fungal infection requires systemic anti fungal
Tinea unguium
79
Which prion disease can be diagnosed with a tonsillar biopsy
Variant CJD
80
how is Q fever diagnosed
serology
81
treatment of Q fever
cipro or doxy
82
what can Q fever progress to
atypical pneumonia ARDS endocarditis
83
cause of endocarditis in IVDU
staph aureus
84
cause of endocarditis in someone with poor oral hygiene
streptococcus viridians
85
cause of endocarditis in someone with a prosthetic heart valve
CoNS i.e. epidermidis
86
most common cause of otitis media in children
strep pneumoniae other: haemophilus influenzae; mortadella catarrhalis
87
how is listeriosis diagnosed
culture
88
bacterial infection associated with COPD
haemophilus influenza
89
bacterial infection associated with alcoholics
klebsiella
90
bacterial infection (pneumonia) associated with the elderly
klebsiella