Micro Flashcards
1
Q
What is the stain used to visualize legionella?
A
Silver Stain
2
Q
Is nocardia or actinomyces acid fast?
A
Nocardia
3
Q
What agar is used for C. diptheria?
A
Cysteine - Tellurite agar (black colonies)
4
Q
What do E. coli look like on EMB agar?
A
Dark purple colonies with green metalic sheen
5
Q
What are common encapsulated bugs?
A
S. Pneumoniae H. Flu N. Meningitides E. Coli Salmonella K. pneumoniae GBS
6
Q
Is listeria catalase positive?
A
Yes
7
Q
What are some weird urease + bugs?
A
Cryptococcus, S. Epidermidis, S. Saprophyticus
8
Q
What bacteria produce a red pigment?
A
S. Marcescens
9
Q
What bacteria express IgA protease?
A
SHiN bacteria
10
Q
How does shiga toxin inactivate 60S ribosome?
A
Removes adenine from rRNA
11
Q
Does heat stabile toxin decrease reabsorption or increase secretion?
A
Decreases reabsorption of NaCl and H2O in the gut
12
Q
How does B. Anthracis edema factor work?
A
Mimics adenylate cyclase
13
Q
How do the toxins of V. Cholera and B. Pertussis differ?
A
Cholera - permanently activates Gs
Pertussis - Disables Gi
14
Q
What toxins are encoded in a lysogenic phage (specialzied transduction)?
A
ABCDE: shigA like toxin Botulinum toxin Cholera toxin Diptheria toxin Erythrogenic toxin of S. pyogenes
15
Q
Are viridans group strep bile soluble or insoluble?
A
Bile insoluble
16
Q
What kind of hemolysis does L. monocytogenes exhibit?
A
Beta hemolysis (and tumbling motility)
17
Q
Which strain of viridans group strep causes subacute bacterial endocarditis?
A
S. Sanguis (makes dextrans which bind to fibrin-platelet aggregates)
18
Q
What factor is produced by Group B Strep?
A
CAMP factor - enlarges the area of hemolysis formed by S. Aureus.
19
Q
Which bacterium has metachromatic blue-red granules?
A
C. Diptheriae
20
Q
What bacterial spores are found in soil?
A
Antharax, C. perfringens, C. tetani
21
Q
How does one differentiate atropine poisoning and botulism?
A
Atropine only blocks muscarinic receptors, so it wouldn’t have skeletal muscle weakness
22
Q
What are the 3D’s of botulism?
A
Diplopia, Dysphagia, Dysphonia
23
Q
What two types of poisoning can B. cereus cause?
A
Nausea/Vomiting - 1-5 hr onset (cerulide toxin)
Diarrheal - 8-18 hr onset
24
Q
What forms the rocket tails of listeria?
A
Actin polymerization
25
What gram positive produces LPS?
Listeria
26
What granulomatous disease might show false - PPD?
Sarcoidosis, use IFN-gamma release assay
27
What is the key virulence factor in Mycobacterium?
Cord factor - causes serpentine growth pattern. Inhibits Mphage maturation
28
What is the treatment of leprosy?
Tuberculoid - Dapsone, Rifampin for 6 months
| Leparomatous - Dapsone, Rifampin, clofazimine for 2-5 yrs
29
What enzyme does E. coli produce?
Beta galactosidase
30
What is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?
Inflammation of the liver capsule. Gonoccoci
31
What bacteria can provide the needed factors for H. flu?
S. Aureus
32
What is used for H. flu mucosal infections?
Amoxicillin
33
What electrolyte abnormality is seen with Legionella?
Hyponatremia
34
What media is needed to culture legionella?
Charcol-yeast extract with Fe and Cysteine
35
What is a common finding in malignant otitis externa in diabetics?
Granulation tissue in the ear cannal
36
How does EPEC cause disease?
Adheres to apical intestinal surface and flattens villi causing malabsorption (pediatric diarrhea, rx with quinolones)
37
What is a key finding for EHEC?
Does not ferment sorbitol. Also usually no fever and no PMNs in stool b/c it is not invasive
38
What are the 4 A's of klebsiella?
Aspiration, Abscess (lung, liver), Alcoholics, diAbetics
39
Do antibiotics help in Shigella? Salmonella?
Shigella - shorten duration of organism excretion
| Salmonella - May prolong fecal excretion of organisms
40
What is the difference in inflammatory response between shigella and salmonella?
Shigella - PMN response
| Salmonella - Monocytic response
41
Does shigella have animal reservoirs?
No
42
What temp does campylobacter grow at?
42 C
43
What temp does Yersinia grow well at?
Less than body temp
44
Which spirochete can be visualized with aniline dyes?
Borrelia
45
What population is leptospirosis common among?
Sufurs
46
What is Weils disease?
Icterohemorrhagic leptospirosis, jaundice, azotemia, hemorrhage, anemia
47
What stage of syphilis has a rash?
Secondary
48
What is the vector of Borellia recurentis?
louse
49
What is the disease and vector for R. Prowazekii?
Epidemic Typhus - Louse
50
What is the disease and vector for R. typhi?
Endemic typhus - Fleas
51
What drug are ehrlichia and anaplasma resistant to?
Chloramphenicol
52
What type of discharge is seen with gardnerella vaginalis?
Gray/fishy vaginal discharge
53
What disease does brucella abortus cause?
Caseating granulomas and mild FUO. Veterenarians and ranchers
54
What bug causes localized skin infection in meat and fish handlers?
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
55
What disease causes black-based ulcers with epitrochlear LAD?
Tularemia
56
What disease can systemic mycoses mimic?
TB (granuloma formation) but no person-person dissemination
57
What type of lesion is seen in the brain with crytococcus?
Soap Bubble
58
What do P. Jiroveci look like?
Disc-shaped yeast on methenamine silver stain
| Honeycomb on HnE
59
What drugs are used for P. jiroveci?
Treatment: TMP/SMX, Pentamidine
Prophylaxis: Above + dapsone, atovaquone
60
What are the treatments for Sporothrix?
Itraconazole or KI
61
What can be used to treat cryptosporidium?
Nitazoxanide
62
How do you diagnose cryptosporidium?
Oocysts are acid-fast
63
What is the classic triad of congenital toxo?
Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications
64
What drugs can be used to treat E. histolytica?
Metronidazole or iodoquinol
65
What organism causes quartan malaria?
P. malariae
66
What cells clear plasmodium infected RBCs?
NK cells
67
What two forms of plasmodium can be seen on a smear?
Schizont containing merozoites or trophozoite ring form
68
What is the treatment of malaria?
Chloroquine (blocks heme polymerase)
Resistant: mefloquine, atovaquone/proguanil
Life threatening: Quinidine (test G6PD)
Vivax/Ovale: primaquine
69
What is the treatment of babesia?
Atovaquone + Azithromycin
70
What is the classic finding on RBC smear for babesia?
Maltese Cross. Asplenia increases risk of severe disease
71
What is used to treat T. cruzi?
Benznidazole or nifurtimox
72
What is used to treat Leishmani donovani?
Ampho B or Sodium Stibogluconate
73
What is used to diagnose leishmania?
See Mphages containing amistigotes
74
How is T. vaginalis transmited?
Sexual, cannot exist outside human b/c it can't form cysts
75
What is used to treat pinworms, Ascaris, Ancyclostoma, and Necator?
Bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate
76
What can the pain of S. stercoralis mimic?
Peptic ulcers
77
What are the skin findings for onchoceriasis?
hyperpigmented black spots
78
What is used to treat S. Stercoralis?
Ivermectin or albendazole
79
What is used to treat filariasis?
Diethylcarbamazine
80
What does toxocara canis cause?
Visceral larva migrans (fecal-oral tranmission)
81
What is used to treat T. solium, D. latum, schistosoma and Clonorchis sinensis?
Praziquantel
82
What is used to treat neurocysticercosis and E. granulosum?
Albendazole
83
What causes neurocysticercosis?
Ingestion of tapeworm eggs
84
What hosts schistosoma?
Fresh water snails
85
What fluke causes biliary tract inflammation?
Clonorchis sinesis
86
What shicstosomes infect the liver/portal tract?
S. mansoni and S. japonicum (pipe-stem fibrosis)
87
What is recombination?
Occurs in non-segmented genomes
88
What is reasortment?
Occurs in segmented genomes
89
What is complementation?
1 of 2 viruses infecting a cell has a mutation resulting in a on-functional protein provided by the other virus
90
Which vaccines are live-attenuated?
Smallpox, Yellow Fever, VZV, Sabin, MMR, Flu (nasal)
91
Which vaccines are killed?
Rabies, Flu (injected) Salk, HAV
92
Which vaccines are recombinant?
HBV and HPV
93
Which three DNA viruses have non-linear genomes?
Papiloma, Polyoma, and Hepadnavirus
94
Which DNA virus replicates in the cytoplasm?
Poxvirus
95
What are HHV-4 and HHV-5?
```
HHV4 = EBV
HHV5 = CMV
```
96
What are the two polyoma viruses?
JC - causes PML in HIV patients
| BK virus - targets kidneys in transplant patients
97
Where is EBV immortalized? CMV?
EBV - Infected B cells
| CMV - monocytes
98
What is the rash of roseola (HHV-6)?
Diffuse and macular following high fevers
99
What nuclear inclusions do infected cells with herpesvirsues have?
Cowdry Type A on a Tzank smear
100
Which viruses transcribe a polyprotein that is cleaved?
ssRNA + viruses
101
Which RNA viruses have circular genomes?
Arenaviruses (Lasa)
Bunyaviruses (Hanta)
Delta virus
102
Which viruses are segmented?
```
BOAR
Bunyaviruses
Orthomyxoviruses
Arenaviruses
Reovirus
```
103
What is the mechanism of rotavirus diarrhea?
Villus destruction and atrophy - decreased Na absorption, loss of K.
Vaccinate infants
104
How does the live-attenuated flu vaccine work?
It is temp sensative so can replicate in nose but not in lung
105
What is a blueberry muffin rash of rubella indicative of?
Extramedulary hematopoeisis
106
What protein do all paramyxoviruses contain?
F protein which causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form MNGCs (blocked by Pavalizumab)
107
When is a Warthin-Finkeldey giant cell seen? (MNGC with eosinophilic cytoplasm and nuclear inclusion bodies)
In measels infection, particularly the rare giant cell pneumonia sequelae
108
What vaccine can cause post-vaccination lymphadenitis?
MMR
109
What is worse for HDV? Superinfection or Coinfection?
Superinfection is worse, shorter incubation as well
110
What diagnostic test is used for the various phases of HBV?
Incubation: HBsAg
Prodrome/Acute Disease: HBsAg or anti-HBc
Early Convalescence: Anti-HBc
Late Convalescence: Anti-HBs or Anti-HBc
111
What are the functions of gp41 and gp120?
gp120 - attachment to CD4+ cell
| gp41 - fusion and entry
112
What receptors does HIV bind to?
CCR5 (early) or CXCR4 (late) on T cells
| CCRF and CD4 on Macrophages
113
When are HIV tests usually falsely negative?
In the first 1-2 months of HIV infection
114
Why are HIV tests often falsely positive in newborns of HIV infected mothers?
anti-gp120 crosses the placenta
115
How many antigens must be positive on western blot?
2/3, otherwise use PCR to confirm
116
What supplement is required to grow F. tularensis?
Cysteine + blood agar. VERY DANGEROUS highly infective
117
What are the types of tularemia?
Ulceroglandular - ulcer + nodal swelling
Pneumonia - inhalation or blood stream
Oculoglandular - direct into eyes
Typhoidal - from ingestion
118
What are the reservoirs for F. tularensis?
Rabbits and squirrels as well as ticks
119
What is used to treat tularemia?
Gentamicin, Streptomycin, doxycycline (intracellular parasite)
120
How does one contract Brucella?
Contact with live-stock or placentas (likes erythritol)
Ingestion of milk products
Aerosolization
121
What is brucellosis?
Undulating fever (peaks in evening), weakness, anorexia
122
What do you use to treat brucellosis?
Doxycycline + streptomycin/gentamicin/rifampin
| Cattle are imunized
123
What drug class is Y. enterocolitica resistant to?
Cephalosporins! Use Fluoroquinolone or TMP-SMX
