Micro Final Flashcards

(82 cards)

1
Q

Contamination with ________ is a concern because they are highly resistant to killing.

A

endospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The ________ are the largest known group of archaea.

A

methanogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cyanobacteria carry out the reactions of nitrogen fixation in specialized cells called

A

heterocysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Members of the genus ________ are Gram-positive bacteria that show a distinctive process for cell separation known as “snapping cell division”, form an arrangement known as “palisades”, and cause the disease diphtheria.

A

Corynebacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with bacteria that form endospores?
tuberculosis, anthrax, botulism, gangrene, tetnus

A

tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which bacterial genera produce(s) endospores?

A

Bacillus and Clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following bacterial genera includes species that protect areas of the body such as the intestinal tract and the vagina from invasion by pathogens?

A

Lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Members of which of the following genera are the most common sexually transmitted bacteria in the United States?

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A flexible, spiral, corkscrew-shaped bacterium is called a

A

spirochete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A Gram-positive rod-shaped ________ is a frequent contaminant of dairy products and meat and can cause fatal newborn meningitis.

A

Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A _______ is a slightly curved rod.

A

vibrio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a pleomorphic prokaryote?

A

a prokaryote whose cell morphology varies in shape and size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a means of reproduction in prokaryotes?
binary fission, meiosis, snapping division, budding

A

meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference between spores and endospores?

A

spores are reproductive structures and endospores are stable resting structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

________ form when planes of cell division are random.

A

staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a taxonomic domain?
protista, archea, bacteria, eukarya

A

protista

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Scientists classify prokaryotes based on similarities in _______.
DNA, RNA, protein sequences

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which statement BEST describes the extent of our current knowledge of prokaryotes?

A

most prokaryotes have never been isolated or cultured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why are rRNA gene sequences an excellent tool for classifying bacteria?

A

genes are present in all known bacteria, part of the gene sequence is highly conserved, and part of the gene sequence varies from species to species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which statement MOST accurately describes the taxonomy of bacteria described in Bergey’s Manual?

A

bacteria are classified based on the consensus opinion of experts at a particular point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a difference between bacteria and archaea?

A

all archaea are extremophiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an extremophile?

A

a microbe that requires extreme conditions of temperature, pH, and/or salinity to survive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How would you classify a microbe that requires temperatures over 80° C for growth?

A

hyperthermophile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An organism that requires an environment containing greater than 9% NaCl would be considered a ________.

A

halophile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Methanogens are obligate anaerobes that _______
convert CO2, H2, and organic acids into CH4
25
Which answer best describes “deeply branching bacteria”?
Microbes that appear to be similar to the earliest bacteria
26
An autotrophic bacterium ________.
produces organic compounds from carbon dioxide
27
How are phototrophic bacteria classified?
based on their pigments and sources of electrons for photosynthesis
28
According to the endosymbiotic theory, which group of phototrophic bacteria is MOST likely to have given rise to chloroplasts present in plants?
cyanobacteria
29
What is nitrogen fixation?
the reduction of nitrogen gas to ammonia
30
If organism X has a G + C content of 60% and organism Y has a G + C content of 35%, which of the following is most likely?
they are not closely related
31
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of mycoplasmas?
they lack cell walls
32
Which of the following does NOT have a high G + C content?
lactobacillus
33
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Corynebacterium?
they have a low G + C content
34
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the betaproteobacteria?
they are similar to alphaproteobacteria according to rRNA
35
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pseudomonads?
they are in the deltaproteobacteria group
36
Host specificity of a virus is due to
interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules
37
Which of the following lists stages of a lytic replication cycle in order, from earliest to latest stages? I. Synthesis II. Assembly III. Attachment IV. Release V. Entry
III, V, I, II, IV
38
A ________ is a bacterial virus which is integrated into the host cell DNA.
Prophage
39
Reverse transcriptase is associated with which of the following?
retroviruses
40
Naked capsid animal viruses are commonly released from the infected cell by ________, a process the host cell does not survive.
lysis
41
A lipid membrane is present in which of the following?
enveloped viruses
42
Which virus produces a rash and permanent scars on the skin, but has also been declared eradicated through mass vaccination?
Poxviridae
43
An older adult is complaining of an intensely painful rash that has appeared as a patch on one side of his chest. This description is consistent with
shingles
44
Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting are signs and symptoms associated with which of the following viruses, particularly common in large gatherings of people like cruise ship vacations?
norovirus
45
Which vaccine-preventable disease caused by an RNA virus has been nearly eradicated?
polio
46
All of the following are characteristics of life EXCEPT _______ A. the ability to carry out metabolic processes B. the ability to grow and respond to the environment C. the ability to live in the presence of oxygen D. the ability to independently reproduce
the ability to live in the presence of oxygen
47
acellular pathogens include _____, _______, ________
viruses, viroids, prions
48
A virion is composed of a ________
capsid surrounding a nucleic acid core
49
What is the size range of virus particles?
approximately 20 nm to 500 nm
50
________ are the proteinaceous subunits that make up the viral capsid.
capsomeres
51
What accurately describes lytic viral replication?
viral replication usually results in the death and lysis of the host cell
52
What are 3 ways that viruses can cause human cancer?
Viruses can carry copies of oncogenes, promote/activate host cell oncogenes, and interferes with tumor suppressor genes
53
The period of time required to complete the lytic cycle is called _______
the burst time
54
How is the T4 virus able to penetrate the cell wall of E. coli?
it releases lysozymes, which weakens cell walls
55
If one virus particle infects a cell, approximately how many infectious virus particles are present during the synthesis step of the virus replication cycle?
0
56
What is the difference between phage T4 and lambda phage?
phage T4 uses lytic replication and lambda follows lysogenic replication
57
A prophage is _______
a copy of the viral genome inserted into the host cell chromosome
58
_______ may result in induction of prophage.
damage to the host cell's DNA
59
Can a lysogenic virus ever switch to the lytic replication cycle?
Yes, but it can switch only after the viral DNA is excised from the host genome by induction
60
A distinguishing characteristic of retroviruses is ______
they carry reverse transcriptase within their capsid
61
_____, _______, ______ are used to culture animal viruses?
cultured cells, embryonated chicken eggs, and mature animals
62
______ is a common and relatively inexpensive method for estimating numbers of phage.
a plaque assay
63
What is the BEST method to use when attempting to culture bacteriophages?
mix the phages with bacteria in a liquid media and pour over an agar plate
64
Diploid cell cultures can be derived from ______, _______, ______ cells.
embryonic animal, plant, and human
65
How do scientists introduce virus particles to the inside of a chicken egg?
the virus particles are injected directly into specific embryonic tissues within the egg
66
What are viroids?
small circular pieces of ssRNA that are infectious to plants
67
How are viroids different from viruses?
viruses produce proteins and viriods produce free RNA that lack a protein coat
68
What is a prion?
a proteinaceous infective particle
69
How do disease-causing prions produce more disease-causing prions?
They change the shape of cellular PrP
70
Prion diseases of the brain are called _______
spongiform encephalopathies
71
What is an accepted argument for why viruses should be considered living?
They possess genomes with instructions for replicating themselves
72
Merozoites are a result of
schizogony
73
single-celled eukaryotes lacking a cell wall are
protozoa
74
the ______ is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism
mycelium
75
hyphae are associated with what?
molds
76
lichens are composed of a symbiosis of fungi, ______, and _______
cyanobacteria, green algae
77
An elderly woman is experiencing fever, chest pain, difficulty breathing, and a cough that occasionally brings up mucus containing blood. She reports having visited family in rural New Mexico over the Labor Day weekend. A sample from her lungs shows the presence of large spherules. Which of the following is the most likely infecting agent?
Coccidioides immitis
78
What fungal infection was extremely rare prior to the AIDS epidemic?
Pneumocystis pneumonia
79
Which of the following is the most common parasitic disease in industrialized nations?
Trichomonas infection
80
After a trip to several South American countries, a middle-aged man becomes ill. He becomes anemic, loses weight, and runs a fever. The clinician notes a recently healed sore near his lip. The patient then seemingly improves and recovers. Several months later, the patient suddenly dies from congestive heart failure. What parasitic infection is considtent with this scenario?
leishmaniasis
81
Which of the following organisms can colonize the nasal cavity and enter the brain to cause meningoencephalitis?
Naegleria