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MICRO MINIMAL QUESTIONS Flashcards

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1
Q

What does sterilisation mean?

A

Killing procedure of any kind of germs

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2
Q

What does disinfection mean?

A

Procedure where the number of germs are reduced to a safety level

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3
Q

Which parameters can influence the effectivity of the sterilisation?

A
  • the number of the germs
  • the resistance of the germs
  • the concentration of the disinfectants
  • the presence of the organic materials
  • the initial time
  • the presence of the biofilm
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4
Q

Parameters of the hot-air sterilisation cupboard protocol?

A
  • 180 C for 1 hour
  • 160 C for 2 hours
  • 140 C for 3 hours
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5
Q

Parameters of the autoclaving?

A

+ 1 atm overpressure, 121 C, for 20-30 minutes

OR

+2 atm overpressure, 134 C, for 10 minutes

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6
Q

Chemical agents used for gas sterilisation?

A
  • Etilene oxide
  • Formaldehyde
  • Beta-propiolacton
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7
Q

The theoretical background of plasma sterilisation?

A
  • Hydrogen-peroxide (H2O2) in high electric field will form plasma stage.
  • The produced free radicals will kill the microbes.
  • At the end of the procedure will be produced water, oxygen and other nontoxic products
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8
Q

Biological method used for checking the effectivity of the sterilisation.

A
  • By Bacillus/Geobacillus stearothemophilus spores.

- It the procedure was performed in correct way, the spores cannot be cultivated.

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9
Q

Detection of the presence of pyrogenic material in drugs?

A

LAL test; the blood of the horseshoe crab will coagulate in the presence of the LPS

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10
Q

What are the disinfectants?

A

Chemical agents used on non-living surfaces

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11
Q

What are the antiseptic agents?

A

Chemical agents used disinfection on animate (tissue, skin, mucous membrane) surfaces.

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12
Q

What does serological reaction mean?

A

Reaction based on antigen-antibody reaction performed in vitro.

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13
Q

What does agglutination mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is cell mediated

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14
Q

What are the bacterial cell surface antigens?

A
  • O: cell wall
  • H: flagella
  • K: capsule
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15
Q

What does antibody titre mean?

A

The highest dilution fold or the lowest antibody concentration where we can see in vitro antigen-antibody reaction.

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16
Q

What does precipitation mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is soluble (enzyme, toxin or virus particle)

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17
Q

What does iatrogenic infection mean?

A

Infection caused by medical staff during the investigation or treatment.

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18
Q

What does nosocomial infection mean?

A

Infection occurred in hospital after 48 hours of the hospitalisation

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19
Q

What are the contents of the vaccines?

A

Live attenuated microbe;

  • killed microbe
  • toxoid
  • antigens of the microbe
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20
Q

What does native examination of the microbe mean in microbiology?

A

The microbe is examined without killing procedure

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21
Q

What kind of information can we get by light microscopically examination? (3 examples)

A
  • size of the microbe
  • shape of the microbe
  • motility of the microbe
  • the staining can be examined
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22
Q

The solutions of the Gram-stain?

A
  • Sodium oxalate
  • Crystal violet
  • Iodine solution
  • 96% of ethanol
  • Fuchsin or Safranin
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23
Q

What kind of devices can be used for anaerobic cultivation?

A
  • Anaerostate
  • Gas-pack jar
  • High agar
  • Anaerobic chamber
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24
Q

Definitions: bacteriostatic, bactericide

A
  1. Bacteriostatic - inhibits bacterial growth

2. Bactericide - kills bacteria

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25
Definition: selective toxicity
- The antibiotic has an effect only on the bacteria, but not on the human host
26
Chemotherapeutic index?
Dosis tolerata maxima (DTM)/dosis curativa minima (DCM)
27
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor antibiotics?
- Penicillin - Cephalosporin - Carbapenem - Glycopeptide
28
Glycopeptide antibiotics
- Vancomycin | - Teicoplanin
29
Membrane function alternating antibiotics are:
- Polymixines
30
What are the protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics? (3 examples)
- Aminoglycosides - Tetracycline - Macrolide - Chloramphenicol - Linezolid
31
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors are... (2 examples)
- Quinolones - Rifampicin - Sulphonamide - Trimethoprim
32
Three possible ways of horizontal gene transfer?
1. Conjugation (plasmid) 2. Transduction (bacteriophage) 3. Transformation (uptake of naked DNA from the environment)
33
Antibiotic resistance mechanism are..
- Enzymatic degradation or modification of the antibiotics - Efflux pump - Modifying of the antibiotic binding site
34
What does MRSA mean?
Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
35
What does ESBL mean?
Extended Spectrum of Beta Lactamase enzyme
36
What does MIC mean?
Minimal bacteriostatic concentration of an antibiotic measured in ug/ml.
37
What does MBC mean?
Minimal bactericidal concentration of an antibiotic measured in ug/ml
38
Definitions: MBL, MACI, PACI
1. MBL: metallo-beta-lactamase 2. MACI: multi-resistant Acinetobacter 3. PACI: pan-resistant Acinetobacter
39
Which 3 vaccines contain capsular polysaccharide?
1. Hib (against Haemophilus influenzae type b) 2. Preventar/Pneumovax (against 13/23 serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae) 3. Meningococcus vaccines (against serotypes ACWY) - but NOT B!
40
What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiological diagnostic laboratory in the case of typical pneumonia?
Sputum and haemoculture
41
What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiology diagnostics laboratory in case of atypical pneumonia?
- Blood - Urine - Broncho-alveolar lavage
42
What kind of bacterial infection can be treated by antitoxin?
Infections caused by bacterial exotoxins: - tetanus - botulism - diphtheria
43
Which bacteria can be differentiated with catalase test?
- Staphylococci (+) | - Streptococci (-)
44
Which bacteria can be differentiated with the coagulase test?
Staphylococcus aureus (+) and the other staphylococcus species (-. so called "coagulase-negative staphylococci")
45
Microscopic morphology of Staphylococci
Gram-positive cocci, arranged in grape-like structures
46
Colony morphology of Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar plate
- Average size - Round colonies with butter consistency - Golden pigment production - Beta-haemolysis
47
What are the non-toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus Aureus? (3 examples)
- Protein A - Endocoagulase (clumping factor) - Exocoagulase - Adhezins - Teicoic acid - Hialuronidase - Protease - Lipase DN-ase
48
What are the toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus Aureus?
- Leucocidin - Toxic shock syndrome toxin - Exfoliative toxin - Enterotoxin - Haemolysin
49
Disease caused by Staphylococcus Aureus?
- Folliculitis - Furuncle - Carbuncle - Impetigo - Pneumonia - Osteomyelitis - Food poisoning
50
Diseases caused by Staphylococcus Aureus exotoxins? (2 examples)
- Food poisoning - Scalded skin syndrome - Toxic shock syndrome
51
List at least 2 coagulase-negative staphylococcus species !
- S. Epidermidis - S. Saprophyticus - S. Haemolyticus - S. Lugdunesis
52
Diseases caused by coagulase negative Staphylococci?
- Nosocomial infections | - Biofilm production on the surface of plastic devices
53
Which bacterium can cause "Honeymoon cystitis"?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
54
Colony morphology of Streptococcus pyogenes on blood agar plate?
- Small - Pin-point colonies - Surrounded by large, strong beta-haemolytic zone
55
Which streptococci show beta-haemolysis?
- Streptococcus pyogenes | - Streptococcus agalactiae
56
Which streptococci show alpha-haemolysis?
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Viridans streptococci (e.g. S. mutans, S. mitis, S. salivarius)
57
Which species is the Lancefield group A Streptococcus?
Streptococcus pyogenes
58
Which species is the Lancfield group B streptococcus?
Streptococcus agalactiae
59
What is the causative agent of scarlet fever?
Streptococcus pyogenes
60
Which bacterial virulence factor is the causative agent of scarlet fever?
Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin or Erythrogenic toxin
61
What is the capsule of S. pyogenes made of?
Hyaluronic acid
62
Disease caused by Streptococcus pyogenes? (3 examples)
- Pharyngitis - Tonsillitis - Sinusitis - Impetigo - Erysipelas - Necrotising fasciitis - Scarlet fever - TSST
63
What kind of post streptococcal infections can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
- Acute rheumatic fever | - Glomerulonephritis
64
Which two streptococcus species show 100% penicillin sensitivity still now?
- Streptococcus pyogenes | - Streptococcus agalactiae
65
What kind of diseases can be caused in new-borns by streptococcus agalactiae?
In new born meningitis, sepsis, penumonia
66
Which bacterium is the leading cause of neonatal meningitis?
Streptococcus agalactiae
67
Microscopic morphology of streptococcus pneumoniae
Gram-positive diplococci
68
How can be prevented the invasive disease caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
By 23 valent polysaccharide capsule (adults) or by 13 valent conjugated vaccine (children, elderly)
69
Which two bacteria can be differentiated based on their optochin sensitivity / resistance
Streptococcus pneumonia (S) and Viridans streptococci (R)
70
What kind of diseases can be caused by viridans group streptococci?
Dental decay or endocarditis
71
What are the two most frequent Enterococcus species?
E. Faecalis and E. Faecium
72
Microscopic morphology of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
Gram-negative, non capsulated diplococci
73
What kind of culture media can be used to cultivate Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
Chocolate agar or Thayer Martin agar
74
Microscopic morphology of Neisseria meningitidis?
Gram-negative, capsulate diplococci
75
How can Neisseria meningitidis spread?
By respiratory droplets and will colonize the nasopharynx
76
What kind of disease can be caused by Neisseria meningitidis?
- Sepsis - Meningitis - Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
77
What kind of diseases can be caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
- Gonorrhoea - Blenorrhoea neonatorum - Proctitis - Orchitis
78
What is the causative agent of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?
Neisseria meningitidis
79
What kind of tests can be performed from liquor in case of Neisseria meningitidis infection?
- Macroscopic examination - Gram-stain - Latex agglutination
80
What can we do prophylactic with the contact person who suffering by Neisseria meningitidis infection?
Chemoprophylaxis by rifampicin or ciprofloxacin
81
What can cause Neisseria gonorrhoeae in newborns?
Opthalmoblenorrhoea neonatorum
82
Which serotype of Haemophilus influenzae can cause invasive infection?
The Haemophilus influenzae with capsule "b" serotype.
83
How can be prevented the invasive infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae strains?
By Hib vaccine

Microbiology (4 decks)

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