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Microbiology > Microbial Genetics > Flashcards

Microbial Genetics Flashcards

0
Q

Manifestation of the genotype; actual expressed properties.

A

Phenotype

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1
Q

Genetic makeup of an organism.

A

Genotype

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2
Q

The science of heredity; includes the study of what genes are, how they are replicated, how they are passed between generations/organisms.

A

Genetics

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3
Q

Genetic information in a cell (includes it’s chromosomes and plasmids).

A

Genome

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4
Q

Structures containing DNA that physically carry hereditary information.

Contains the genes.

A

Chromosomes

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5
Q

Segments of DNA (in some viruses - RNA) that code for functional products.

A

Genes

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6
Q

Repeating macromolecule units composing DNA; consists of a nucleobase (adenine, thymine, cystosine, guanine), deoxyribose (pentose sugar), and a phosphate group.

Each strand of the double helix has string of alternating sugar & phosphate groups with a nitrogenous base attached to a sugar.

A

Nucleotides

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7
Q

Nitrogenous bases held together by H bonds.

A

Base pairs

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8
Q

Set of rules that determines how a nucleotide sequence is converted into the amino acid sequence of a protein.

A

Genetic code

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9
Q

The resulting molecule produced from gene code.

A

Expression

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10
Q

Collection of genes.

A

Genotype

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11
Q

Collection of proteins.

A

Phenotype

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12
Q

Twisted DNA

A

Supercoiled

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13
Q

Number of base pairs in DNA of E. coli.

A

4.6 million

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14
Q

Length of DNA of one E. coli cell

A

1mm (1000 times longer than entire cell)

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15
Q

Repeating sequences of two- to five-base sequences; used in DNA fingerprinting.

A

Short tandem repeats (STRs)

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16
Q

Regions of DNA that are likely to encode a protein; base sequences between start and stop codons.

A

Open-reading frames.

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17
Q

The sequencing and molecular characterization of genomes.

A

Genomics

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18
Q

Blueprint for a cell’s proteins.

A

DNA

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19
Q

Genetic information transferred between generations of cells.

A

Replication

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20
Q

Genetic information transferred between cells of same generation.

A

Recombination

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21
Q

Genetic information used within a cell to produce the proteins needed for the cell to function.

A

Expression

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22
Q

The enzyme that relaxes the supercoiling when replication begins.

A

Topoisomerase or gyrase

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23
Q

Enzyme that unwindsdouble-stranded DNA.

A

Helicase

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24
Q

Enzyme that synthesizes DNA; proofreads and repairs DNA.

A

DNA Polymerase

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25
Q

The point at which replication occurs:

A

Replication fork

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26
Q

Each new double-stranded DNA molecule contains one original (conserved) strand and one new strand:

A

Semiconservative replication

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27
Q

Relaxes supercoiling ahead of the replication fork.

A

DNA Gyrase

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28
Q

Makes covalent bonds to join DNA strands; joins Okazaki fragments and new segments in excision repair.

(Bonds between phosphates and sugars)

A

DNA Ligase

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29
Q

Cut DNA backbone in a strand of DNA; facilitate repair and insertions.

A

Endonucleases

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30
Q

Cut DNA from an exposed end of DNA; facilitate repair.

A

Exonucleases

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31
Q

Adds methyl group to selected bases in newly made DNA.

A

Methylase

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32
Q

Uses visible light energy to separate UV-induced pyrimidine dimers.

A

Photolyase

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33
Q

RNA enzyme that removes introns and splices exons together.

A

Ribozyme

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34
Q

Copies RNA from a DNA template.

A

RNA Polymerase

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35
Q

An RNA polymerase that makes RNA primers from a DNA template.

A

RNA Primase

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36
Q

RNA-protein complex that removes introns and splices exons together.

A

snRNP

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37
Q

Relaxes supercoiling ahead of the replication fork; separates DNA circles at the end of DNA replication.

A

Topoisomerase

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38
Q

Cuts DNA backbone, leaving single-stranded “sticky ends.”

A

Transposase

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39
Q

Which end can DNA polymerases add new nucteotidesto?

A

3’

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40
Q

What is attached to the 3’ end of the DNA strand?

A

Hydroxyl

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41
Q

What is attached to the 5’ end of the DNA strand?

A

Phosphate

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42
Q

Where is the great deal of energy required for DNA replication supplied from?

A

Nucleotides (which are actually nucleoside triphosphates)

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43
Q

What is the only difference between ATP and the adenine nucleotide in DNA?

A

The sugar component

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44
Q

What is the sugar in the nucleoside used to synthesize DNA?

A

Deoxyribose

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45
Q

How many phosphate groups are removed to add the nucleotide to a growing strand of DNA?

A

Two

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46
Q

Process that is exergonic and provides energy to make the new bonds in the DNA strand.

A

Hydrolysis

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47
Q

Eukaryotic chromosomes are linear whereas prokaryotic chromosomes are ________.

A

Circular

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48
Q

Movement of the two replication forks in opposite directions away from the origin of replication.

A

Bidirectional

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49
Q

The separation of the two loops in a prokaryotic chromosome must be separated by ___________.

A

Topoisomerase

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50
Q

The rate of mistakes in DNA replication.

A

1 in every 10 to the 10th power bases incorporated.

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51
Q

Enzyme responsible for high accuracy due to the proofreading capability is:

A

DNA Polymerase

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52
Q

The three “STOP” codons:

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

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53
Q

Start codon:

A

AUG

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54
Q

Process where genetic information is copied, or transcribed, into a complementary base sequence of RNA:

A

Transcription

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55
Q

Information encoded in RNA used to synthesize specific proteins.

A

Translation

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56
Q

Synthesis of a complementary strand of RNA from a DNA template.

A

Transcription

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57
Q

The cellular machinery for protein synthesis; forms an integral part of ribosomes.

A

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

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58
Q

RNA that carries the coded information for making specific proteins from DNA to ribosomes, where proteins are synthesized.

A

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

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59
Q

A strand of mRNA is synthesized using a specific portion of the cell’s DNA as a template during:

A

Transcription

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60
Q

The process of transcription requires both:

A

RNA Polymerase and a supply of RNA nucleotides

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61
Q

Transcription begins when RNA polymerase binds to the DNA at a site called the:

A

Promoter

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62
Q

DNA and RNA are synthesized in the direction:

A

5’—->3’

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63
Q

RNA synthesis continues until RNA polymerase reaches a site on the DNA called the :

A

Terminator

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64
Q

The nitrogenous base that is an analog of thymine and plays well (doesn’t bond too much like thymine) in RNA:

A

Uracil

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65
Q

Code redundancy is useful for:

A

Silent mutation

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66
Q

Each codon codes for one amino acid; in contrast:

A

Each amino acid is coded by more than one codon.

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67
Q

We have the same evolutionary ancestors as bacteria. Our genetic code always starts with:

A

AUG (Methionine)

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68
Q

Protein synthesis

A

Translation

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69
Q

Decoding the “language” of nucleic acids and converting that information into the “language” of proteins.

A

Translation

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70
Q

Groups of three nucleotides.

A

Codons

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71
Q

Written in terms of their base sequence in mRNA.

A

Codons

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72
Q

Total number of amino acids.

A

20

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73
Q

Number of possible codons.

A

64

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74
Q

Most amino acids are signaled by several alternative codons:

Allows for certain amount of change, or mutation, in the DNA without affecting the protein ultimately produced.

A

Degeneracy of the code

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75
Q

Codons that code for amino acids (61).

A

Sense codons

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76
Q

Codons that do not code for amino acids (3).

A

Nonsense codons (stop codons)

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77
Q

Site of translation

A

ribosome

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78
Q

Type of RNA molectules that recognize the specific codons and transport the required amino acids

A

Transfer RNA (tRNA)

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79
Q

Process of translation (8 steps):

Components needed to begin translation come together.

A

Step 1 (Process of translation)

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80
Q

Process of translation (8 steps):

On the assembled ribosome, a tRNA carrying the first amino acid is paired with the start codon on the mRNA. The place where this first tRNA sits is called the P site. A tRNA carrying the second amino acid approaches.

A

Step 2 (Process of translation)

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81
Q

Process of translation (8 steps):

The second codon of the mRNA pairs with a tRNA carrying the second amino acid at the A site. The first amino acid joins to the second by a peptide bond. This attaches the poypeptide to the tRNA in the P site.

A

Step 3 (Process of translation)

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82
Q

Process of translation (8 steps):

The ribosome moves along the mRNA until the second tRNA is in the P site. The next codon to be translated is brought into the A site. The first tRNA now occupies the E site.

A

Step 4 (Process of translation)

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83
Q

Process of translation (8 steps):

The second amino acid joins to the third by another peptide bond, and the first tRNA is released from the E site.

A

Step 5 (Process of translation)

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84
Q

Process of translation (8 steps):

The ribosome continues to move along the mRNA and new amino acids are added to the polypeptide.

A

Step 6 (Process of translation)

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85
Q

Process of translation (8 steps):

When the ribosome reaches a stop codon, the polypeptide is released.

A

Step 7 (Process of translation)

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86
Q

Process of translation (8 steps):

Finally, the last tRNA is released, and the ribosome comes apart. The released polypeptide forms a new protein.

A

Step 8 (Process of translation)

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87
Q

Three parts of translation:

A

1) Chain initiation
2) Chain elongation
3) Chain termination

(ESSAY QUESTION!!!)

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88
Q

Sequence of three bases that is complementary to a codon

A

anticodon

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89
Q

In prokaryotic cells, the translation of mRNA into protein can begin even before transcription is complete. This is due to :

A

mRNA is produced in the cytoplasm; the start codons of an mRNA being transcribed are available to ribosomes before the entire mRNA molecule is even made.

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90
Q

In eukaryotic cells, transcription takes place in the:

A

Nucleus

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91
Q

Regions of expressed DNA.

A

Exons

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92
Q

Intervening regions of DNA that do not encode protein.

A

Introns

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93
Q

Particles that remove the introns and splice the exons together.

A

small nuclear ribonucleoproteins, or snRNPs (snurps)

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94
Q

In some organisms, the introns act as ________to catalyze their own removal.

A

Ribozymes

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96
Q

In the nucleus, __________ synthesizes a molecule called an RNA transcript that contains copies of the introns.

A

RNA polymerase

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97
Q

Many genes, perhaps 60-80%, are not regulated but are instead ______________, meaning that their products are constantly produced at a fixed rate.

A

Constitutive

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98
Q

Example of constitutive genes:

A

Enzymes of glycolysis

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99
Q

Protozoan parasite that causes African sleeping sickness

A

Trypanosoma

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100
Q

The two genetic control mechanisms (pre-transcriptional control)

A

Repression and Induction

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101
Q

Regulatory mechanism that inhibits gene expression and decreases the synthesis of enzymes

A

Repression

102
Q

The type of regulatory mechanism that is usually a response to the overabundance of an end-product of a metabolic pathway

A

Repression

103
Q

The type of regulatory mechanism that causes a decrease in the rate of synthesis of the enzymes leading to the formation of that product

A

Repression

104
Q

Repression is mediated by regulatory proteins called:

A

Repressors

105
Q

Regulatory proteins that block the ability of RNA polymerase to initiate transcription from the repressed genes.

A

Repressors

106
Q

The default position of a repressible gene:

A

On

107
Q

Bacteria control expression in a positive or negative manner?

A

Negative (most of their genes are turned on and need turned off)

108
Q

Constitutive genes are also known as:

A

“housekeeping” genes needed for metabolic activity; they replicate ~15 minutes - makes no sense to turn them off

109
Q

The process that turns on the transcription of a gene or genes is:

A

Induction

110
Q

A substance that acts to induce transcription of a gene is called an:

A

inducer

111
Q

Enzymes that are synthesized in the presence of inducers are:

A

Inducible enzymes

112
Q

A well-known example of an inducible system are the genes required for lactose metabolism in what bacteria:

A

E. coli

113
Q

One of the genes required for lactose metabolism in E. coli codes for _____________________, which splits the substrate lactose into two simple sugars, glucose and galactose.

A

B-galactosidase

114
Q

B-glactosidase splits substrate lactose in lactose metabolism in E. Coli into the following:

A

two simple sugars, glucose, and galactose

115
Q

_____ refers to the type of linkage that joins the glucose and galactose

A

B

116
Q

What happens when E. coli is placed into a medium in which no lactose is present?

A

The organisms contain almost no B-galactosidase.

117
Q

When lactose is added to a medium that E. coli is placed in, the bacterial cells produce a large quantity of:

A

B-galactosidase

118
Q

Lactose is converted in the cell for lactose metabolism to the related compound:

A

allolactose

119
Q

_____________ is an inducer for the genes that are required for lactose metabolism.

A

Allolactose

120
Q

The presence of _______________ thus indirectly induces the cells to synthesize more enzyme.

A

lactose

121
Q

Default position of an inducible gene:

A

Off

122
Q

Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod formulated this general model in 1961 to account for the regulation of protein synthesis.

A

The Operon Model

123
Q

In addition to B-galactosidase, the following enzymes that are involved with the induction of lactose catabolism in E. coli:

A

Lac permease

Transacetylase

124
Q

Involved in the transport of lactose into the cell (enzyme)

A

Lac permease

125
Q

Enzyme that metabolizes certain disaccharides other than lactose

A

transacetylase

126
Q

Genes which determine the structures of proteins and distinguish them from an adjoining control region on the DNA

A

structural proteins

127
Q

Short segment of DNA which is like a traffic light that acts as a go or stop signal for transcription of the structural genes.

A

Operator

128
Q

The other short segment of DNA in the control region of the lac operon (besides the operator)

A

promoter

129
Q

The region of DNA in the lac operon where RNA polymerase initiates transcription

A

promoter

130
Q

A set of operator and promoter sites and the structural genes they control:

A

Operon

131
Q

The combination of the three lac structural genes and the adjoining control regions is called:

A

Lac operon

132
Q

A regulatory gene called the ___________ encodes a repressor protein that switches inducible and repressible operons on or off.

A

I gene

133
Q

A protein that switches inducible and repressible operons on or off

A

repressor

134
Q

The lac operon is an ___________operon.

A

Inducible

135
Q

In _______________ operons, the structural genes are transcribed until they are turned off, or repressed.

A

repressible

136
Q

The genes for the enzymes involved in the synthesis of tryptophan are regulated by:

A

repressible operons

137
Q

Example: Tryptophan synthesis/Operon

The structural genes are transcribed and translated leading to tryptophan synthesis. When excess tryptophan is present, the tryptophan acts as a ______________, binding to the repressor protein. The repressor protein can now bind to the operator, stopping further tryptophan synthesis.

A

corepressor

138
Q

Regulation of the lactose operon also depends on the level of the glucose in the medium, which in turn controls the intracellular level of the small molecule:

A

cyclic AMP (cAMP)

139
Q

A substance derived from ATP that serves as a cellular alarm signal.

A

cyclic AMP (cAMP)

140
Q

Enzymes that metabolize glucose are ___________ , and cells grow at their maximal rate with glucose as their carbon source because they can use it most efficiently.

A

constitutive

141
Q

When glucose is no longer available, ____________ accumulates in the cell.

A

cAMP

142
Q

cAMP binds to the allosteric site of ________________.

A

catabolic activator protein (CAP)

143
Q

CAP binds to the lac promoter, which ____________________ by making it easier for RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter.

A

initiates transcription

144
Q

Transcription of the lac operon requires both the presence of ______________ and the absence of ____________________.

A

lactose; glucose

145
Q

Cyclic AMP is an example of an ______________, a chemical alarm signal that promotes a cell’s response to environmental or nutritional stress.

A

alarmone

for example, the lack of glucose

146
Q

The operon consists of:

A

Promoter
Operator
Structural genes that code for the protein

147
Q

The operon is regulated by the:

A

product of the regulatory gene

148
Q

When the repressor is inactive, the operon is:

A

On

149
Q

When the repressor is active, the operon is:

A

Off

150
Q

Inhibition of the metabolism of alternative carbon sources by glucose is termed:

A

Catabolite Repression

151
Q

When glucose is available, the level of cAMP in the cell is low, and consequently ____________ is not bound.

A

CAP

152
Q

Eukaryotic and bacterial cells can turn genes off by methylating certain nucleotides.

A

Epigenetic control

153
Q

The methylated genes are in the on or off position?

A

Off

154
Q

Single-stranded RNA molecules of approximately 22 nucleotides that inhibit protein production in eukaryotic cells.

A

microRNA’s (miRNAs)

155
Q

A permanent change in the base sequence of DNA is:

A

Mutation

156
Q

The change in DNA base sequence causes no change in the activity of the product encoded by the gene.

A

Silent mutations

157
Q

Silent mutations commonly occur when one nucleotide is substituted for another in the DNA, especially at a location corresponding to the third position of the:

A

mRNA codon

158
Q

What are the three parts of a nucleotide?

A

Nucleobase (adenine, thymine, cystosine, guanine)
Deoxyribose (pentose sugar)
Phosphate group

159
Q

Which part of the nucleotide forms the backbone of DNA?

A

Phosphate (sugar-phosphate backbone).

160
Q

What type of bonds are formed between the complementary base pairs?

A

H bonds

161
Q

How are the two strands of DNA aligned?

A

5’ opposite 3’ direction (antiparallel)

162
Q

Define semi-conservative replication:

A

Each new double-stranded DNA molecule contains one original (conserved) strand and one new strand.

163
Q

What enzymes are involved in DNA replication?

A 
DNA gyrase
DNA Ligase
DNA polymerase
endonucleases
exonucleases
helicase
methylase
photlyase
ribozyme
RNA polymerase
RNA primase
snRNP
topoisomerase
transposase
164
Q

How does DNA polymerase minimize mutations?

A

Proofreading - evaluates for proper complimentary base-pairing structure

Also replaces with correct complimentary base is mutation is found.

165
Q

What are structural genes?

A

They determine the structures of proteins.

166
Q

What class of molecules does RNA belong to?

A

Nucleic acids

167
Q

What are the three types of RNA?

A

Ribosomal - rRNA
Messenger - mRNA
Transfer - tRNA

168
Q

What is meant by gene expression?

A

A gene is expressed if a protein is produced.

Phenotype.

169
Q

How does RNA differ from DNA?

A

Uracil

170
Q

Define transcription:

A

The copying or synthesis of RNA from a DNA template.

171
Q

Define translation:

A

Protein synthesis.

172
Q

What is a codon?

A

The language of mRNA.
Groups of three nucleotides.
Sequence of codons on mRNA determines sequence of amino acids = genetic code.

173
Q

What is the start codon on mRNA?

A

AUG - methionine

174
Q

What protein is involved in mRNA synthesis?

A

RNA polymerase (binds to the promoter region)

175
Q

How many strands of DNA are copied into RNA?

A

One

176
Q

What are the two binding sites of tRNA?

A

anticodon

177
Q

What is an anticodon?

A

Sequence of three bases that is complementary to a codon.

178
Q

Describe ribosomes

A

cellular machinery for protein synthesis

179
Q

Describe the three steps of translation:

A

1) Chain initiation (steps 1-3 of 8)
2) Chain elongation (4-6)
3) Chain termination (7-8)

180
Q

What are the two binding sites on the large ribosomal subunit called?

A

A site

P site

181
Q

Where do the incoming tRNA molecules bind?

A

1st at P site

Thereafter @ A site

182
Q

What type of bond is formed between amino acids?

A

peptide bond

183
Q

What process forms a peptide bond?

A

hydrolysis

184
Q

What is gene mutation?

A

permanent change in the base sequence of DNA

185
Q

What are the three types of point mutations?

A

Missense mutation
Nonsense mutation
Frameshift mutation

186
Q

What are frameshift mutations?

A

One or a few nucleotide pairs are deleted or inserted in the DNA, shifting “translational reading frame” (three by three grouping of nucleotides)

187
Q

What is the relationship between gene and proteins?

A

Genes map the genetic code that produces the proteins. The genotype leads to the phenotype via translation.

188
Q

How is the gene regulation controlled in prokaryotic cells?

A

Negative manner - most of their genes are turned on and need turned off

189
Q

Describe the lac operon model:

A

The combination of the 3 lac structural genes and the adjoining control regions is called the lac operon. Inducible.

190
Q

Repressor

A

switches inducible and repressible operons on or off

191
Q

Inducer

A

substance that acts to induce transcription of a gene

192
Q

Promoter region

A

region of DNA where RNA polymerase initiates transcription

193
Q

Operon

A

set of operator, promoter sites, and the structural genes they control

194
Q

Structural gene

A

determine structures of genes

195
Q

Crossing over

A

Process by which a portion of one chromosome is exchanged with a portion of another chromosome

196
Q

Vertical gene transfer

A

transfer of genes from an organism or cell to its offspring

197
Q

Horizontal gene transfer

A

transfer of genes between two organisms in the same generation

198
Q

Donor cell

A

cell that gives DNA to a recipient cell during genetic recombination

199
Q

Recipient Cell

A

cell that receives DNA from a donor cell during genetic recombination

200
Q

Transformation

A

the process in which genes are transferred from one bacterium to another as “naked” DNA in solution

201
Q

Conjugation

A

transfer of genetic material from one cell to another involving cell to cell contact (pili)

202
Q

Plasmid

A

small, circular DNA molecule that replicates independently of the chromosome

203
Q

R factor

A

(resistance) bacterial plasmid carrying genes that determine resistance to antibiotics

204
Q

F factor

A

(fertility) plasmid found in the donor cell in bacterial conjugation

205
Q

base substitution

A

point mutation

206
Q

single base in DNA sequence is replaced with a different base

A

base substitution

207
Q

If the base substitution results in an amino acid substitution in the synthesized protein, the change in the DNA is known as a:

A

Missense mutation

208
Q

Caused by a single change in the gene for globin. A change from A to a T at a specific site, results in the change from glutamic acid to valine in the protein. The effect of this change is that the shape of the hemoglobin molecule changes under conditions of low oxygen, altered the shape of the red blood cells such that movement of the cells through small capillaries is greatly impeded.

A

Sick cell disease

209
Q

A stop codon created in the middle of an mRNA molecule, causing prevention of the synthesis of a complete functional protein; only a fragment is synthesized.

A

Nonsense mutation (nonsense codon)

210
Q

One or a few nucleotide pairs are deleted or inserted in the DNA and can cause a shift in the “translational reading frame”.

A

Frameshift mutations

211
Q

Three-by-three grouping of nucleotides recognized as codons by the tRNAs during translation

A

Transitional Reading Frame

212
Q

Progressive Neurological disorder caused by extra bases inserted into a particular gene.

A

Huntington’s disease

213
Q

Occasional mistakes made during DNA replication; occur without any mutation-causing agents

A

spontaneous mutations

214
Q

Agents in the environment, such as certain chemicals and radiation, that directly or indirectly bring about mutations:

A

Mutagens

215
Q

Name the three types of chemical mutagens:

A

Oxidation of nucleotides
Nucleoside analogs
Deletions/insertions (frameshift)

216
Q

Altered adenine from exposure to nitrous acid can cause pairing with cytosine in daughter DNA, and then granddaughter DNA.

A

Oxidation of nucleotides (chemical mutagen)

217
Q

Structurally similar molecules to normal nitrogenous bases, but have slightly altered base-pairing properties.

When given to growing cells, they are randomly incorporated into cellular DNA in place of the normal bases. During replication, they cause mistakes in base pairing.

A

Nucleoside analogs

218
Q

What type of mutagen is nitrous acid?

A

Oxidative

219
Q

What type of mutagens are antiviral and antitumor drugs?

A

Nucleoside analogs

220
Q

What type of mutagen is AZT (azidothymidine)?

A

Nucleoside analog

221
Q

What is one of the primary drugs used to treat HIV?

A

AZT (azidothymidine)

222
Q

What type of mutagen is benzopyrene?

found in smoke and soot

A

frameshift mutagen

223
Q

What type of mutagen is Aflatoxin (produced by Apergillus flavus)?

(mold that grows on peanuts and grain)

A

frameshift mutagen

224
Q

Potent mutagens because of their ability to ionize atoms and molecules.

A

Xrays and gamma rays (radiation)

225
Q

Penetrating rays of ionizing radiation cause electrons to pop out of their usual shells; then bombard other molecules and cause more damage; many of resulting ions and free radicals are very reactive.

A

Radiation

226
Q

Causes ions to oxidize bases in DNA, resulting in errors in DNA replication and repair that cause mutations.

A

Radiation

227
Q

An even more serious outcome of _______________ is the breakage of covalent bonds in the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA, which causes physical breaks in chromosomes.

A

Radiation

228
Q

A nonionizing component of ordinary sunlight that is another form of mutagenic radiation.

A

UV light

229
Q

The most important effect of direct UV light on DNA is the formation of harmful covalent bonds between certain bases. Adjacent thymines in a DNA strand can cross-link to form:

A

thymine dimers

230
Q

Thymine dimers can cause serious damage or death to the cell because it cannot:

A

properly transcribe or replicate DNA

231
Q

light-repair enzymes

A

photolyases

232
Q

Enzymes that can repair UV-induced damage

A

photolyases

233
Q

Use visible light energy to separate the dimer back to the original two thymines

A

photolyases

234
Q

Enzymes cut out the incorrect base and fill in the gap with newly synthesized DNA that is complementary to the correct strand.

A

Nucleotide excision repair

235
Q

Enzymes that add a methyl group to selected bases soon after a DNA strand is made.

A

Methlylases

236
Q

The enzyme that recognizes a methylated base in order to carry out nucleotide excision repair.

A

repair endonuclease

237
Q

Two thymines read as one cause:

A

frameshift

238
Q

Probability that a gene will mutate when a cell divides. Usually stated as a power of 10, and because rare, exponent is always a negative number.

A

Mutation rate

239
Q

The spontaneous rate of mutations is about one in

A

one million replicated genes

240
Q

Involves the detection of mutant cells by rejection of the unmutated parent cells.

A

Positive (direct) selection

241
Q

Process that selects a cell that cannot perform a certain function.

A

Negative (indirect) selection

242
Q

Method of inoculating a number of solid minimal culture media from an original plate to produce the same pattern of colonies on each plate.

A

Replica plating

243
Q

Any mutant microorganism having a nutritional requirement that is absent in the parent is known as an:

A

auxotroph

244
Q

Substances that cause cancer in animals, including humans.

A

Carcinogens

245
Q

The use of bacteria as carcinogen indicators.

A

Ames test

246
Q

New mutations that reverse the effect (the change in phenotype) of the original mutation.

A

Reversions

247
Q

Test that measures the reversion of histidine auxotrophs of Salmonella (his- cells, mutants that have lost the ability to synthesize histidine) to histidine-synthesizing cells (his+) after treatment with a mutagen.

A

Ames test

248
Q

If a reversion of his- bacteria is made to his+ bacteria, the substance being tested is:

A

mutagenic

249
Q

Exchange of genes between two DNA moluces to form new combination of genes on a chromosome.

A

Genetic recombination

250
Q

The recipient cell that incorporates donor DNA into its own DNA is called:

A

recombinant

Microbiology (4 decks)

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