MICROBIOLOGY Flashcards

(39 cards)

1
Q

what is histology?

A
  • the study of tissues and organs using microscopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe the process of tissue preparation for microscopy

A
  • preserve the tissue using formalin
  • tissue processing which removes water from the tissue by adding ethanol (to replace the water) and then adding xylene (which removes ethanol)
  • embed in paraffin wax (removes xylene and solidifies into a paraffin block)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe the process of light microscopy once the tissue has been prepared

A
  • paraffin slice mounted on glass slide
  • stained, easier to see under microscope
  • most common stain is H\ematoxylin and Eosin (H&E)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the most commonly used type of light microscopy?

A
  • bright field microscopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when would we use frozen sections of tissue and why?

A
  • during surgery
  • for urgent analysis (less accurate results however)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is used to culture bacteria and fungi?

A
  • solid nutrient media (agar-based)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

why do we use PCR?

A
  • to amplify a specific sequence of DNA from the genome of an organism
  • eg. can be used to amplify known section of chlamydia genome from a swab or urine sample
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

explain the steps of PCR?

A
  • denaturation: heat to 95ᵒϹ breaks hydrogen bonds between the two strands of DNA
  • annealing: cool to 55ᵒϹ, allows primers to bind to their complementary sequences on the DNA
  • extension: heat up to 70ᵒϹ and TAQ polymerase binds to primers and uses free nucleotides to assemble new strands of DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how does reverse-transcriptase PCR differ from normal PCR?

A
  • uses RNA instead of DNA (Uracil instead of Thymine)
  • uses reverse transcriptase to make a complementary DNA strand from the RNA, then normal PCR is carried out on the c-DNA strand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describe the gram stain and how it works

A
  • the gram stain is used to study bacteria
  • crystal violet dye and iodine bind to cell wall
  • gram positive bacteria retain the stain when acetone is added and remain purple
  • gram negative bacteria lose the purple stain when acetone is added and appear colourless until stained with a pink counterstain (safranin)
  • this is due to gram positive bacteria having a thicker peptidoglycan cell wall so retains the stain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe acid-fast stain and why it is used

A
  • used for organisms that do not readily take up the gram stain (eg. mycobacteria ( TB ), have waxy cell walls)
  • acid and alcohol are added to the cells after they have been stained through another method
  • if the cells withstand decolourisation from the acid and alcohol then they are known as acid and alcohol fast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what bacteria is commonly found on decaying meat?

A
  • Staphylococcus saprophyticus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

is Staph. saprophyticus gram positive or negative

A
  • gram positive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how can infectious agents be transmitted? (4 types)

A
  • human to human spread (horizontal, and vertical transmission mother to foetus )
  • animal to human
  • environment to human (airborne, water, fomites)
  • healthcare-acquired
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is meant by the term virulence?

A
  • virulence is a measure of the pathogenicity of a microorganism
  • an organism is considered highly virulent if a small number of microorganisms can cause disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are viruses and how do they work?

A
  • viruses are intracellular parasites which depend on host proteins for replication
  • they enter a cell, replicate, generate viral proteins, assemble the viruses, evade the host’s defence, and disperse to continue in the environment
17
Q

how are viruses classified?

A
  • by the genome:
  • single stranded RNA or double-stranded RNA
  • single stranded DNA or double-stranded DNA
18
Q

what is chicken pox caused by?

A
  • the Varicella Zoster virus
19
Q

how does shingles occur?

A
  • the chicken pox virus (Varicella Zoster virus) causes shingles by becoming reactivated after being dormant in the nervous system for so long
  • it can be triggered by a weakened immune system, stress, or by old age
20
Q

what is the virus responsible for causing flu?

21
Q

what are some other common viruses?

A
  • measles
  • hepatitis
  • human papilloma virus
  • mumps
  • ebola
  • herpes
22
Q

what are the key features of a virus?

A
  • have genetic material (DNA or RNA)
  • no cell membranes, cytoplasm, or organelles
  • cannot independently synthesise macromolecules (depends on host cell)
  • genetic material packed in capsules
23
Q

what are prions, and what are the key features of a prion?

A
  • infectious proteins
  • no nucleic acids
  • consist only of proteinacious infectious particles
24
Q

what are Koch`s Postulates to establish pathogenicity of an organism ?
( four stages )

A
  • organism found in abundance in diseased host ( not healthy tissue )
  • can be grown in pure culture
  • this organism causes disease if introduced into healthy host
  • can be re-isolated from the inoculated host and can identify the organism as identical to the original
25
name 2 common gram positive bacteria
staphlococcus aureus strep. pneumoniae
26
name 2 common gram negative bacteria
E. Coli Klebsiella Salmonella Pseudomonas
27
name 3 factors in a host that may predispose to infection
extremes of age diabetes immune suppression eg steroids broken skin ( wound, post surgery, iv cannula ) malnutririon
28
give 2 examples of hospital acquired infection
- UTI from catheter - Clostridium difficile from excess antibiotic use - MRSA post surgery or in central lines
29
describe basic infection prevention principles in healthcare
- hand hygiene - appropriate PPE - sterile technique eg for procedures ( ANTT ) - safe disposal of sharps - isolating infected patients
30
what are the peri operative measures of safeguarding against infection ? ( name four )
- operating theatre air quality ( eg laminar flow for orthopaedic ) - sterile equipment - sterile PPE - antibiotic prophylaxis ( give before procedure ) - skin disinfection ( 5% chlorhexidine )
31
what organisms can be transmitted by needlestick injury ? name 3
- HIV - Hepatitis B - Hepatitis C
32
how do you manage a needlestick injury ?
- wash site with soap and water - puncture wound should be allowed to bleed - check immunisation status eg hep B - blood tests for exposure - consider post exposure prophylaxis eg immunoglobulin
33
name some mechanisms of action of antibiotics and an example for each
- inhibit cell wall synthesis : beta lactam eg penicillins, vancomycin - inhibit protein synthesis : aminoglycosides (gentamicin), macrolides (erythromycin) - inhibit DNA replication : quinolones - inhibit folic acid metabolism : trimethoprim
34
how does antimicrobial resistance affect management of infection (4 things) and how can it be tackled (3 ways)?
- can make treating infections difficult, longer hospital stays, higher costs, increased deaths - tackle : antibiotic stewardship ( careful use ), monitor organisms, develop new treatments
35
name some notifiable diseases ( 3 )
COVID-19 Monkeypox Malaria food poisoning : salmonella, campylobacter TB ( + anything we immunise against : tetanus, measles, diptheria...) ( list on www.gov.uk )
36
how do you report a notifiable disease ?
send form to the `proper officer` when disease is suspected ( don`t wait for laboratory confirmation ) notification forms on www.gov.uk
37
name a cause of an STI in 4 different pathogen classifications and how you would test for them
- viral : herpes simplex 1 and 2 ( PCR ) , HIV ( serology ) , human papilloma virus - bacterial : neisseiria gonnorhoea ( gm negative stain, culture ), syphilis / treponema pallidum ( serology ) - fungal : candida albicans ( culture ) - protozoa : trichromonas vaginilis ( microscopy, culture )
38
discuss consent framework for notifying STDs and legal requirements
- legal duty to notify disease confidentially - duty to inform partners of index case ( in public interest ) - should inform index case that going to do it, their consent not required ( GMC backs this , has guidance eg you may protect unborn baby )
39
what are the mechanisms for haematogenous spread of organisms and what infections can be caused ?
spread of organism to distant site eg osteomyelitis, can be vertebral or intervetebral