Microbiology Flashcards
(119 cards)
1
Q
Gram-negative intracellular diplococci
A
Neisseria
2
Q
Most common organism causing septic arthritis in young adults
A
Neisseria gonorrhoea (gonococcus)
3
Q
Common organism causing meningitis in young adults
A
- Neisseria meningitides
- Strep pneumoniae
- Mycoplasma pneumoniae
4
Q
Most common organism causing meningitis in those <1yo
A
E coli
5
Q
Gram negative rod
A
E coli, pseudomonas
6
Q
Gram positive diplococci
A
Strep pneumoniae
7
Q
Causing meningitis. Can’t culture organism, cold agglutinins positive
A
Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
8
Q
How to manage mycoplasma meningitis?
A
Amoxicillin + clarithromycin
9
Q
What antibiotic for staph aureus?
A
Flucloxacillin
10
Q
What is a common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin in a young adult.
A
Strep viridans
11
Q
What type of bacteria is strep viridans
A
Gram positive cocci
12
Q
Which organism causes leprosy?
A
Mycobacterium leprae
13
Q
Is mycobacterium avid slow or rapid growing?
A
Slow
14
Q
What are the 2 types of leprosy?
A
Paucibacillary (tuberculoid) and multibacillary (lepromatous)
15
Q
How many species make up the MTB complex, and name the 3 which are the most disease causing.
A
7
M tuberculosis
M bovis
M africanum
16
Q
What type of vaccine is BCG and which organism does it contain?
A
Live attenuated
Mycobacterium bovis
17
Q
What are the X-ray findings of someone with pulmonary TB?
A
Cavitating lesion, ghon focus/complex, adenopathy, pleural effusion
18
Q
What is the drug regimen for treating TB?
A
4 months: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol
2 months: rifampicin, isoniazid
19
Q
What are the side effects of rifampicin?
A
Raised transaminases, cyp450 inducer, orange secretions
20
Q
What are the side effects of isoniazid and how is it prevented?
A
Peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity
Pyridoxine (vit B6) 10mg OD
21
Q
What are the side effects of pyrazinamide?
A
Hepatotoxicity, gout
22
Q
What are the side effects of ethambutol?
A
visual disturbance (optic neuritis)
23
Q
Name members of the herpesvirus family.
A
HSV, VZV, HHV, CMV, EBV
24
Q
Where is herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 latency established?
A
Dorsal root ganglion
25
How to manage primary HSV infection in pregnancy?
Aciclovir
| C-section if infected within last 6 weeks of pregnancy
26
What is the route of transmission for VZV?
Respiratory
27
What is the best marker of immunity to VZV?
History - previous infection. Not serology (detection of IgG)
28
What is the foetus at risk of if the pregnant mother contracts VZV in early pregnancy?
Congenital varicella syndrome
29
Name 2 important pregnancy associated viruses causing congenital disease, starting with the most common
CMV, HSV
30
What dangerous consequence may arise to the baby if the mother contracts varicella during the 3rd trimester?
Purpura fulminans (disseminated, haemorrhage neonatal VZV)
31
How to prevent and treat VZV in pregnancy?
Vaccinate (before or post party)
Aciclovir
VZV Ig (to exposed mothers, or infants <7 days old if mother is Ig negative)
32
What time of vaccine is VZV?
Live attenuated
33
Route of transmission of CMV?
Bodily fluids
34
Consequences of congenital CMV infection?
Mostly asymptomatic at birth. Risk of hearing defects and impaired intellectual performance later on.
35
Which time in pregnancy does rubella cause congenital problems?
First trimester
36
Measles: genome type and family of virus it belongs to
RNA, paramyxovirus
37
Name 2 viruses which cause miscarriage.
Rubella, measles
38
What is a characteristic feature of measles infection?
Koplik spots, rash that starts behind ears
39
What is a characteristic feature of parvovirus B19 infection?
Slapped cheek (erythema infectiosum)
40
Which maternal infection is associated with hydrops fetalis?
Parvovirus B19
41
Which group of viruses cause hand foot and mouth disease?
Enterovirus
42
Name 3 human enteroviruses
Coxackie A and B, polio, echovirus
43
What is the name of the oral polio vaccine, and what type of vaccine is it?
Sabin - live attenuated
44
What is the name of the injectable polio vaccine, and what type of vaccine is it?
Salk - inactivated
45
Which organism causes pneumocystis pneumonia and what are the 1st and 2nd line antibiotics used against it?
Pneumocystis jiroveci
1. Co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim with sulphamethoxazole)
2. Clindamycin + primaquine
46
What is used to treat candida?
Fluconazole
47
Which pathogen is the Grocott stain used to detect?
Actinomyces
48
Branching, gram positive rods
Actinomyces
49
Which organism is associated with groundglass shadowing in the lung?
• Pneumocystis pneumonia
50
What is the 1st and 2nd line management for c diff in non-severe cases?
1. metronidazole 400mg PO TDS 10-14 days
| 2. vancomycin 125mg PO QDS 10-14 days
51
What is the 1st and 2nd line management for c diff in severe cases?
Vancomycin 125mg PO QDS 14 days, and consider adding metronidazole 500mg IV TDS
52
What treatment to consider if a c diff patient has ileus/is vomiting?
Intracolonic vancomycin, liane with surgeons
53
What is a top differential causative organism when a patient has a high WCC but low CRP?
C diff
54
Which viral serology is monitored post transplant?
EBV, CMV
55
Which of the herpes viruses reactivate early and late in transplant recipients?
In order from early to late:
| HSV HHV6 HHV7 CMV EBV VZV
56
Which herpes viruses cause cold sores, and genital disease?
HSV1
| HSV1 and 2
57
Treatment of herpes simplex infection
o Aciclovir or valaciclovir
| o Foscarnet
58
Which opportunistic virus can cause acute retinal necrosis (ARN and progressive outer retinal necrosis (PORN)?
Varicella zoster
59
How to prevent varicella zoster reactivation in immunosuppressed individuals?
acyclovir prophylaxis
| post-exposure VZIg
60
What is the pathognomonic blood film feature of CMV infection?
Owl's eye nuclear inclusion bodies
61
Which CMV serostatus of donor and recipient carries the greatest risk of reactivation in solid organ transplants?
Donor +ve, recipient -ve
62
What is the 1st line treatment for CMV?
Ganciclovir
63
How to manage post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease caused by EBV?
Reduce immunosuppression
| Rituximab (anti-CD20)
64
Name 3 complications that can arise from HHV8 infection.
Kaposi's sarcoma
Primary effusion lymphoma
Multicentric Castleman disease
65
What is the main complication of JC virus infection and the pathophysiology of it?
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
JC virus reactivates and infects oligodendroglia
Demyelination of white matter
66
When else's progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy commonly seen?
Patients on natalizumab
67
What are the important complications of BK virus infection?
Haemorrhagic cystitis
| Nephropathy
68
Which viral infection is particularly important in paediatric bone marrow transplantation?
Adenovirus
69
What medication is used to treat adenovirus and BK virus?
cidofovir
70
What is the 1st and 2nd line treatment for influenza A/B?
Oseltamivir
| Zanamivir
71
What is used to treat parvovirus B19?
Human normal Ig
72
Whats the HBV serological status of someone who is:
HBV sAg +
HBV core Ab +
HBV s Ab -
Current infection
73
Whats the HBV serological status of someone who is:
HBV s Ag -
HBV core Ab +
HBV s Ab +
Past infection
74
Whats the HBV serological status of someone who is:
HBV sAg -
HBV core Ab -
HBV s Ab +
Vaccination
75
Rose spots and fever. What is the causative organism?
Salmonella typhi (typhoid/enteric fever)
76
Which parasite causes perianal scratching and night waking in young children?
Enterobius vermicularis (threadworm)
77
Which parasite is responsible for hydratid disease?
Echinococus granulosus
78
What is the likely parasite causing large worms to be passed in the stool?
Ascaris lumbricoides
79
Where do hookworms normally invade through in humans?
Feet
80
What is the likely parasite causing an itchy foot from someone who just returned from holiday?
Cutaneous larva migrant
81
What is the rash seen in strongyloides stercoralis infection?
Larva currens
82
What is the potentially fatal syndrome that strongyloides stercoralis can cause in immunosuppressed individuals?
Hyperinfestation syndrome
83
What condition can schistosomiasis cause due to migration via the lungs?
Katamaya fever
84
Which species of schistosomiasis can cause haematuria and is a risk factor for SCC of the bladder?
S. haematobium
85
What are the 2 presentations of leishmaniasis?
Cutaneous, or visceral (kala azar)
86
What are the 2 forms of trypanosomiasis?
East africa - aggressive, acute
| West africa - sleeping sickness
87
Which parasite is likely to cause someone to see a worm crossing their eye?
Loa loa
88
What is the most common cause of fever in the returning traveller?
Malaria
89
Which species of malaria is most fatal?
Plasmodium falciparum
90
How to treat uncomplicated malaria in normal individuals and in pregnancy?
Quinine + doxycycline (replace with clindamycin if pregnant)
91
management for severe falciparum infection
IV artesunate or IV quinine
92
Management for non-falciparum malaria?
Chloroquine
93
What additional drug used to eradicate hypnozoites for p vivax and p ovale infections?
Primaquine
94
What needs to be checked in a patient before administering primaquine for p vivax/ovale eradication?
G6PD level
95
What are the complications of dengue?
Dengue haemorrhage fever, and dengue shock syndrome
96
What is the type of pathogen and veto involved in rickettsial disease?
Intracellular bacteria, arthropod vector (ticks, lice, mites)
97
What is the most common cause of adult-onset epilepsy globally?
Taenia solium cysticercosis (neurocysticercosis)
98
Why is taenia sodium cysticercosis infection usually asymptomatic?
Living cysts asymptomatic - symptoms mark cyst degeneration causing eosinophilic influx and inflammation
99
What can be used to prevent airborne TB?
Masks, UV lights
100
Which antibiotic is used for meningitis in neonates and in adults?
Neonates: cefotaxime
Adults: benzylpenicillin or ceftriaxone
+ amoxicillin to cover for listeria
101
What is the 1st and 2nd line antibiotic used to treat c diff colitis?
Metronidazole
| Vancomycin
102
What are the main infections screened for antenatally?
Rubella, syphilis, HIV, hep B, +/- Hep C
103
Which are the 3 most common causative organisms of neonatal infections?
Group B strep
E coli
+/- Listeria
104
What is the antibiotic of choice for group B strep and e coli neonatal infection?
GBS: benzylpenicillin
| E coli: gentamicin
105
What secondary bacterial infection is a child with chicken pox at risk of?
Invasive group a strep
106
What are the most common causes of bacterial meningitis?
N meningitides
S pneumoniae
H influenzae
107
What are the most common causes of respiratory tract infections in children?
S pneumoniae
Mycoplasma pneumonia
(Whooping cough - bordetella pertussis)
(TB)
108
Which is the most common causative organism of prosthetic valve endocarditis?
Coagulase negative streptococci
109
What are the antibiotic treatments for infective endocarditis caused by:
1. Strep viridans
2. Enterococci
3. Staph aureus
4. MRSA
Strep viridans: benzylpenicilin + gentamicin
Enterococci: ampicillin + gentamicin
Staph aureus: flucloxacillin 4-6 weeks
MRSA: Vancomycin + gentamicin/rifampicin/fucidin
110
Which antibody is indicative of a current and previous hep A infection?
Current: IgM
Previous: IgG
111
What is used as a screening test for hepatitis B infection?
Hep B surface antigen
112
Hepatitis B serological tests:
1. Indicates infection (whether acute or chronic)
2. Indicates past infection or vaccination
3. Appears during acute infection and persists for life
4. Indicates recent infection <6 months
1. HBsAg, HBeAg
2. Anti HBs
3. Anti HBc
4. IgM Anti HBc
113
What is used to monitor hepatitis C infection?
HCV RNA
114
What is the presentation of brucellosis, and what kind of bacteria is it?
Non specific onset
Complications of osteomyelitis (occasionally meningoencephalitis)
Gram-negative facultative intracellular bacteria
115
What is the characteristic early and late dermatological lesion seen in lyme disease and the causative organism?
Borrelia
Erythema chronica migrans
Acrodermatitis chronicum atrophocans
116
Prion protein:
1. What chromosome is the gene located on?
2. What polymorphism on which codon is associated with prion disease?
3. What are the characteristics of the transformed protein PrPSc?
1. 20
2. 129, MM
3. beta pleated, protease/radiation resistant
117
What are the clinical features of sporadic CJD?
```
Rapid dementia
Myoclonus
Cortical blindness
Akinetic mutism
LMN signs
```
118
What are the characteristic investigation findings for sporadic CJD?
Periodic triphasic complexes on EEG
Biopsy: PrP amyloid plaques, spongiform vacuolation
MRI: increased signal in basal ganglia, cortical/striatal signal change on DWI MRI
CSF: 14-3-3, S100
Neurogenetics
119
What are some important differences between variant and sporadic CJD?
```
Variant:
Younger age of onset
Psych symptoms, then neuro
Pulvinar sign on MRI
EEG and CSF not diagnostic
Almost all 100% MM polymorphism
Tonsil biopsy useful
PrPSc type 4t
```
