Microbiology Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

Treatments of choice for osteomyelitis (2)

A
  • Aggressive debridement

- Antimicrobials (IV)

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2
Q

Which % of all open fractures become infected?

A

Between 3-25%

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3
Q

Non-union and poor wound healing can indicate which condition?

A

Osteomyelitis

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4
Q

Common isolate in osteomyelitis

A

S. aureus

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5
Q

Osteomyelitis is only ever spread by direct inoculation. True/false?

A

False - can be haematogenous.

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6
Q

Needle-licking PWID are likely to develop which isolate?

A

Eikenella corrodens

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7
Q

Which % of dialysis patients develop infection?

A

7%

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8
Q

Most common pathogen in dialysis patients’ osteomyelitis?

A

S. aureus

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9
Q

Sickle Cell disease can predispose to osteomyelitis. True/false?

A

True

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10
Q

“A lysosomal storage disorder which can mimic bone crisis” is likely to describe which disease?

A

Gaucher’s Disease

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11
Q

Gaucher’s disease often affects which bone?

A

Tibia

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12
Q

Diabetic / vascular osteomyelitis is often polymicrobial. True/false?

A

True

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13
Q

The first-line investigation for a deep ulcer you suspect to cause osteomyelitis?

A

Probe-to-bone test + inflammatory markers

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14
Q

If there’s a positive probe to bone test in a deep ulcer, what is the next step in diagnosis of osteomyelitis?

A

Plain radiograph

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15
Q

In a deep ulcer which is an osteomyelitis concern, you check radiographs (2nd stage investigation) to find there’s no evidence of osteomyelitis. What’s the next step?

A

Osteomyelitis unlikely, consider soft tissue infection (2 weeks treatment)

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16
Q

If a radiograph is consistent with osteomyelitis, BUT not characteristic, what’s the next line of studies?

A

MRI

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17
Q

What is the definitive/ final investigation for diagnosis of osteomyelitis?

A

Bone biopsy

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18
Q

Haematogenous osteomyelitis presents in which 3 groups?

A
  • Prepubertal children
  • PWID
  • Central lines/ dialysis patients
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19
Q

Urogynae procedures can predispose to which form of osteomyelitis?

A

Osteitis pubis

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20
Q

Neck surgery can predispose to which form of osteomyelitis?

A

Clavicle osteo

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21
Q

Which pathogens are common in sickle cell osteomyelitis? (2)

A
  • Salmonella

- S. aureus

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22
Q

Gaucher’s disease is always infectious.

A

False

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23
Q

Plain X-rays are useful in diagnosing bone infection. True/false?

A

False

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24
Q

Which imaging modality could be useful in diagnosing bone infection?

A

Technetium bone scan (detects osteoblast activity)

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25
Most common cause of acute osteomyelitis (1)
-Post trauma or open ounds
26
Most common organism causing acute osteomyelitis (2)
1) S. aureus | 2) May also be haemophillus in children
27
Does vertebral OM always present with fever?
No, only 50% of cases do
28
What makes SAPHO/CRMO different from regular OM?
They are multifocal
29
SAPHO is adults/kids?
Adults
30
In OM, empiric antibiotics should be used ASAP. T/F?
False, wait until suggestive results
31
How is vertebral OM treated? (4)
1) Drain abscess 2) Antibiotics for 6 weeks 3) Monitor ESR (should decrease by >50%) 4) Repeat MRI if ESR raises, pain increases or new symptom
32
Skeletal TB is AKA
Pott's Disease
33
Skeletal TB is often symptomatic, T/F?
False - often asymptomatic
34
Do skeletal TB / Pott's Disease patients commonly have pulmonary TB?
Less than 50% have pulmonary TB
35
If prosthetic OM develops <1 month from insertion of prosthesis, what was the likely source?
Wound sepsis
36
If prosthetic OM develops >1 month from insertion of prothesis, what is the likely source?
Intraoperative
37
PVL treatment
Fluclox
38
What is a S. epidermidis virulence factor in OM?
Slime
39
Pyomyositis describes what kind of infection
Pus-forming muscle infection
40
Septic arthritis common cause
S. aureus
41
How is septic arthritis diagnosed? (3)
1) Joint aspirate 2) C&S 3) Blood cultures if pyrexial (30-60% sensitive)
42
What's the standard treatment choices & route for acute OM or septic arthritis?
Flucloxacillin IV 2g QDS for 2 weeks, PO antibiotics for maximum 4 weeks
43
What's the antibiotic treatment & route for chronic OM?
PO flucloxacillin
44
What's the antibiotic treatment & route for MRSA-OM?
IV vancomycin
45
Tetanus gram stain profile & growth condition
Gram positive rod, strict anaerobe
46
"Drumstick shaped bacteria" is code for
C. tetani
47
Treatment of tetanus (4)
1) Antitoxin 2) Surgical debridement 3) Supportive antibiotics (penicillin, metronidazole) 4) Booster toxoid vaccine
48
Is the tetanus vaccine live?
No, it's a toxoid
49
Which book is recommended for vaccine advice in children?
The Green Book
50
Children with skeletal TB should be offered which test? What should adults be offered?
Children -> IFNgamma assay | Adults -> HIV test
51
What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?
``` Rubor (redness) Calor (heat) Dolor (pain) Tumour (swelling) Functio lasea (loss of function) ```
52
What bloods are useful in OM diagnosis?
CRP, PV, WBC count, blood cultures, ESR
53
Technetium bone scan shows what kind of activity?
Osteoblastic
54
What organism causes OM in children?
Haemophillus
55
How is pus in OM treated?
Lancing, drainage
56
What is a Brodie's abscess?
An abscess that develops within bone due to a deep OM. The outer bone dies and acts as sequestrum, protecting the infection.
57
What is a complication of Brodie's abscess?
Involucrum formation.
58
What is involucrum?
A layer of bone which forms external to the periosteum of a bone with a deep OM
59
Are blood tests useful in diagnosis of COM?
No
60
Cellulitis common causative organisms?
Staphs & streps
61
How is cellulitis treated? (NHST antibiotic man)
Flucloxacillin 1g QDS, IV/PO for 7 days
62
"Bony sinus" is a keyword for what
A DEEP bone infection
63
2-step surgery is how successful in controlling infection in OM?
80-90%