Microbiology Pt 1 Study Guide Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Microbiology Pt 1 Study Guide Deck (671):
1

Eukaryotes

True Nucleus, Organelles, Human Cells, protozoa like GIARDIA and AMOEBA

2

Prokaryotes

NO True Nucelus, NO Organelles (No Mitochondria) ex: Bacteria

3

Type of Bacilli for Anthrax (wool Sorta disease) Gram + Rods

Bacillaceae (spore-formers)---> Bacillus, Clostridium- anaerobic

4

Leprocy= Hanson's Disease

Lactobacillaceae--> Lactobacillus

5

Mycobacteriaceae (Acid-Fast Bacilli)

Mycobacteria

6

Neisseriaceae (Gram -)

Neisseria (coffee bean shaped org) Diplacoccus

7

Legionelaceae - Legionella

Legionaires Disease (SPREAD by Water Droplets)

8

Paramyxoviridae

-Measles Virus -Mumps Virus -Respiratory Syncytial Virus

9

Orthomyxoviridae

-Influenza Virus A -Influenza Virus B -Influenza Virus C

10

Coronaviridae

Corona Virus - Epidemic in CHINA 2002 (SARS)

11

Rhabdoviridae

Rabies Virus

12

Filoviridae

Ebola Virus Marburg Virus (Causes Hemmorhagic Fever)

13

Bunyaviridae

Hantavirus (Spread by Chipmunks or PRAIRIE DOGS)

14

Reoviridae

Revirus, Rotavirus (MCC of Diarrhea in Children)

15

Picornaviridae

-Rhinovirus -Poliovirus -ECHO Virus -Coxsackie

16

Togaviridae

Rubella Virus Western & Eastern Equine Encephalitis

17

Flaviviridae

Dengue Virus Yellow Fever Virus (Virus that causes JAUNDICE)

18

Caliciviridae

Norwalk Virus (Causes Gastroenteritis) - Cause of Diarrhea on Cruise Ships

19

Out of the 5 types of Ebola, how many of them cause Diarrhea?

4/5

20

How many binding sites are on IgA antibodies?

8

21

IgA is responsible for______

-Secretory Antibody(Mucosal Antibody) -Mucous Membrane (Saliva, Tears) (Buys time to ID Invader) -Breast Milk (This is how baby will get its protection): Baby will have 'Leaky Gut' for up to a year, so its important they get Mothers Breast Milk)

22

IgD does what?

Helps IgG become stimulated

23

IgE is seen where and involved with what rxs?

Seen in Type I Hypersensitivity w/ - Parasitic Infections - Allergic Rxns - Increases in Hodgkin's Disease (Intense Itching 'Puritis') *Reed-Sternberg Cells*

24

IgG antibodies is involved in what?

First to Increase (second exposure) -Most Numerous -Crosses Placenta (G-Ma Thanks) -Anamnestic Response "without amnesia" IgG NEVER Forgets *Have disease first time, then body remembers and mounts same IgG response next time.*

25

What antibody is made in the baby first?

IgM

26

IgM has how many binding sites?

10 (Pentamer) Non-Specific

27

IgM is.... a. Largest and Heaviest b. Smallest and Lightest c. Largest and Fastest d. Smallest and Heaviest

a. Largest and Heaviest *Because it has NO idea what it is going to fix or attack*

28

Interleukin I (Lymphocyte Activating Factor) is made by _____ and primarily for ______ and ______ tissue.

-Made by Macrophages -For Brain and Nervous Tissue

29

Interleukin II (T-Cell Growth Factor) is made by _______ cells which is shut down by the AIDS virus. These cells also are considered T-Helper cells and DIRECT the response of the Immune System.

CD4 cells

30

Interleukin III is made by _______, and is in Blood and Lymphatic System.

Big Bone Marrow

31

MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) has 4 Major Functions.... *Hint* Each is involved with Type 4 Hypersensitivity Rxn/ Delayed Type Hypersensitivity

-Act as a post on Surface (self vs. non-self) -Involved with tissue graft rejection & organ rejection -T-Cells recognize MHC I - B-Cells recognize MHC I & II

32

5 Diseases Caused by Staph Aureus sn: SA produces alpha toxin aka alpha hemolysin Pneumonic: S.T.O.I.C

-Scalded Skin Syndrome -Toxic Shock -Osteomyelitis (SA Mcc of this)(Dead Bone=Sequestrium/ New Bone= Involucrum/ Sinus Drainage= Colca) -Impetigo (#1) (Infection of child around mouth, honey crusted lesion around mouth) -Carbuncles (Furuncles 'infected hair follicles' or BOIL a 'Car...Load of furuncles'

33

6 Diseases Caused by Strep Pyogenes Pnemonic: S.E.R.G.I.S

-Strep Throat (Imbalance in Immune System) -Erysipelas (Superficial Cellulitis 'inflammation of Dermis') -Rheumatic Fever -Glomerulonephritis (RBC's in Urine w/ mild Proteinuria) -Impetigo (#2) -Scarlet Fever (Strawberry Tongue)

34

Complement Systems purpose is to Enhance_____ or _____ _______

... enhance Phagocytosis or cellular lysis

35

Pathway of the Complement System (Antigen - Antibodies)

-The Classical (Ag-Ab) and Alternate (e.g. Sheep RBC's) pathways meet at C3B -C5b-C9= Membrane attack complex (Terminal Compliment Complex)....This Attacks the Bacteria

36

Aschoff (Inclusion Bodies) gives rise to

Rheumatic Fever (McCallums Patch)

37

Councilman Cells gives rise to _____

Viral Hepatitis

38

****DOWNEY CELL gives rise to ______

Mononucleosis (Don't Let Mono get you DOWN) -Atypical Lymphocytes are seen with Mono

39

Epithelioid Hystiocyte is seen with_____

TB (Giant Epitheliod cells)

40

Ghon Complex is seen with ______

TB (Inactive Phase)... Calcium 'jail' around mycobacterium

41

Guarneri Bodies is seen with ______

Small Pox (Variola)

42

Gummas is seen with _______

Tertiary Syphilis

43

Koplik Spots is seen with ______

Measles (Rubeola/red measles) On Bucal Mucosa --> White/Bluish spots

44

**Lipofuscin is associated with ____

Old Age Pigment... Lipid Residue

Build up = "BROWN'S ATROPHY"

45

A build up of Lipofuscin in the organ will cause what pathology?

Brown Atrophy

46

Lewy Bodies is associated with ______

Parkinson's aka Paralysis Agitans

47

***Negri Bodies is associated with _____

Rabies (Hydrophobia)

48

Reed Sternberg is seen with____

Hodgkin's

49

Russell Bodies is seen where and associated with what?

In Plasma Cells. Consists of Antibodies. Is commonly associated with Multiple Myeloma (Plasma Cell Leukemia)

50

T-Cells are from that organ?

Thymus

51

B-Cells are from where?

Bone Marrow (Makes the Plasma Cells which in turn makes the Globulins)

52

Active Immunity_____

...Must actively make Antibodies (Ab) (MAKES OWN ANTIBODIES)

53

Passive Immunity______

....person is GIVEN the Antibodies (RECEIVES ANTIBODIES FROM OUTSIDE)

54

Natural Active immunity.....

A person is exposed to the disease--> Body Reacts -e.g. Measles, Chicken Pox triggers antibody production

55

Natural Passive immunity ......

Given Ab in Utero, breastfeeding - In Utero= IgG (G Ma, Thanks) - Breastfeeding = IgA

56

Artificial Active Immunity....

Injection of attenuated organism (inactive form) -Getting from a needle or syringe e.g. Tetanus Shot

57

Artificial Passive Immunity....

Injection of preformed antibodies

58

SN: Anything Ending in -osis is usually acquired or transmitted via the lungs. e.g. Pneumoconiosis, Blastomycosis, Tuberculosis

.... hit 3 and keep moving. YOU WILL PASS Micro Section of Boards... Don't Give Up!! Hit 5 if you have come to this and Got it down completely.

59

What cannot be killed by Autoclaving?

Prions

60

Prions are.....

Acellular protein which denatures other proteins. They CANNOT be Autoclaved.

61

***A Fomite_____

inanimate object in Vector

62

Hapten is seen in

Partial antigen or half antigen. -Does NOT stimulate immune reponse.. It must FIRST attach to a protein.

63

***Hypersensitivity Reactions Pneumonic: A.C.I.D

Anaphylactic- Type I

Cytotoxic - Type II

Immune Complex Mediated- Type III

Delayed Hypersensitivity - Type IV (aka Cell-Mediated)

64

Neurotoxin

a Toxin that affects the Nervous System e.g. Botulism, Tetanus

65

Opsonin... Opsonization

Enhances Phagocytosis____ *Marks Target for Strike*

66

Type I Hypersensitivity (A) What is involved with it?

-Anaphylactic (Immediate) Response -IgE Mediated -Occurs w/in 15-30 Min -Seen in things such as: Asthma, Bee Sting, Hay Fever -Histamine is Released via Mast Cells (Basophils)

67

Type II Hypersensitivity (C) What is involved with it? Antigen + Antibody

-Cytotoxic -IgG/ IgM Mediated -Occurs Minutes to Hours -Seen in conditions such as: Goodpasteur's (Lung&Kidneys), Erythoblastosis Fetalis, Myasthenia Gravis Graves Disease (Hyperthyroid)

68

Type III Hypersensitivity (I) What is Involved? Antigen + Antibody + Compliment

-Immune Complex Mediated -IgG Mediated -Occurs in 3-10 hours -Seen in conditions such as: Glomerulonephritis SLE RA **Arthus Rxn= Local Necrosis **Serum Sickness= Systemic

69

Type IV Hypersensitivity (D) What is Involved?

-Delayed Hypersensitivity aka Cell-Mediated - T-Cell or Lymphocyte Mediated -Occurs between 24-72 Hours -Seen in Conditions such as: TB Contact Dermatitis (Poison Ivy, Poison Oak) Graft Rejection, etc

70

What do Autotrophs do?

eat INORGANIC material

71

What do Heterotrophs do?

eats ORGANIC material

72

What do Saprophytes do?

eats DEAD/DECAYING material (organic material)

73

What do Parasites do?

eats off LIVING organisms

74

Facultative Aerobe....

Prefers O2, but can deal with environment without Oxygen

75

Facultative Anaerobe...

Prefers NO O2, but can deal with environment with Oxygen

76

Obligate Aerobe...

ONLY in O2

77

Obligate Anerobe...

ONLY WITHOUT O2

78

Symbiosis is____

2 Populations living together, where ONE or BOTH benefit.

79

Mutualism is _____

2 populations living together, where BOTH benefit

80

Synergism is_____

2 populations living together, where BOTH benefit AND BOTH accomplish what neither can do alone.

81

Commensalism is____

2 populations living together, where ONE benefits, and other is Unaffected.

82

Zoonosis is ....

the transfer of disease from animal to human. e.g. - Anthrax 'Woolsorter's Disease' Respiratory Transmission

83

Flagella Arrangements

-Monotrichus

-Lophotrichus

-Amphitrichus

-Peritrichus

84

Ames Test used for...

Carcinogenicity

Mutagenicity

Uses Salmonella Typhimurium

85

Ascholi Test used for...

Anthrax

86

ASO titer

Antistreptolysin O Titre.  Tests Strep pyogenes Antibodies....

Rheumatic Fever

87

Babcock Test

checks % of butterfat in Milk

88

Bile Solubility

Pneumococci vs Alpha Hemolytic Step viridans

89

***BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand)

Best test for Water Polution

90

***Catalase

Staph (cat+) vs Strep (cat-)

It separates Staph from Strep

91

Chick Embryo Culture

Virus Culture (Cannot Grow on Agar)

92

***Chocolate Agar

aka Thayer Martin Agar

aka Heated Blood Agar

Used for Gonorreah

93

***Coagulase

Staph Aureus (Coag +) vs Other Staph (Coag -)

Pathogenic vs Non-Pathogenic

94

Colliform does what for Water Purification?

It checks for E. coli

Determines fecal contamination in water.

95

Coombs test for what type of antigens?

Tests RBC antigens.

Hemolytic Anemia

Erythroblastosis Fetalis

Rh Factor

96

*Dick Test primarily used to test for____

Scarlet Fever

97

***Giemsa Stain used to test for _____

Protozoa

98

***HLA B27 (the Human Leukocyte Antegen) is testing for____

*Hint= Think PEAR

Seronegative Arthritides

Psoriatic arthritis

Enteropathic arthropathy (AS with ulcerative colitis or Crohns)

AS

Reiter's

99

HLA DR5/CD4 is used for testing for____

AIDS

Elisa usually tests for DNA

Western Blot checks for Protein

If 2 ELISA (+) then Do a Western Blot test

If Western Blot (+) then it= AIDS

100

Mannitol Salt tests for____

Staph

101

Nuchal Rigidity checks for____

Stiff Neck

Looking for Possible Meningitis

102

***Paul Bunnell Test

Testing Heterophile Agglutination test for Mononucleosis

103

Phosphatase used to test____

if Milk Pasteurization is adequate. If all phosphatase enzymes is destroyed.

Want to check to see if Milk is HOT enough to kill phosphatase.

104

MCC of Meningitis is___

Strep pneumoniae

105

***Sabouraud Agar is used_____

to Test for FUNGI*

106

Schultz-Carlton rxn is used for______

to check antitoxin reaction to Scarlet Fever

107

Tissue Culture used as___

a Virus Culture (Cannot grow on agar)

108

***Weil Felix (serology test)

It is positive for all Rickettsia
EXCEPT: Coxiella burnetti (Q fever)​

Antigen for this test= Proteus vulgaris

109

Widal Test tests for____

Typhoid Fever

110

Tzank Test looks for____

Altered epitheloid Herpes Zoster & Simplex

also, Varicella

111

***What are Other tests to Test for Syphilis?

-Treponema Genus

-Spirochete

112

Non-Vinerial Syphilis YAWS is caused by what?

Trponema Pertenu

113

***What are tests to check for TB?

-Mantoux Test= Skin Prick test

-PPD

-Delayed Hypersensitivity

-Ziehl Nielson Staining

-Acid Fast (All Mycobacterium are acid Fast)

Pneumonic: My Ass is Fast (Mycobacterium Acid Fast)

-X-Ray

114

What is the BEST test for TB?

Active Sputum Culture

115

***Mononucleosis is tested using_____

-Heterophile antibody

-"Heterophile Agglutination" (Paul Bunnell)

-Downey Cell= Atypical lymphocyte on Blood Smear(Pneumonic = "Don't Let Mono get you down")

-Monospot

116

When we are using sterilization or Autoclaving what are we doing?

Steam heat under pressure, this denatures the membranes.

117

What is Sterilization and Autoclaving innefective against?

Prions

118

Different Types of Vaccinations include:

-Inactivated (Salk, Rabies)

-Tetanus, Botulism

-Measles, Mumps, Rubella, Sabin

119

Manufacturing of Vaccines come from:

-Chick Embryo (Measles and Mumps vaccines)

-Human Diploid cells (rubella, rabies, Hep A)

-Monkey Kidney Tissue (Polio)

120

What type of study is a Case Control?

it ID's Risk Factors

121

What does a Double Blind Study do?

Eliminates the Placebo

122

A Retrospective Study ____

goes back in time.

123

**When Pus (Purulent) is Blue/Green it indicates____

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (#1 thing seen w/ Cystic Fibrosis)

124

**When Pus (Purulent) is Red, this indicated ____

Serratia marcenscens

125

**A White discharge could indicate

Candida albicans

126

**A White PURULENT Discharge indicates____

Chlamydia

127

**A Yellow Pus (Purulent) discharge indicates___

Staph Aureus

128

**A Yellow/Green Pus (Purulent) indicates____

Gonorrhea

129

Formaldehyde is used for____

to fix Gross Specimens

130

Iodine (Mordant) is used for____

Pre-op disinfectant

131

Penicillin (for gram+) does what?

inhibits cell wall synthesis (Peptidoglycan Synthesis)

132

Tetracycline (for gram- and +) inhibits what?

Protein Synthesis

Also Turns Teeth Gray or Yellow /Brown

_A Broad Spectrum Antibiotic_

133

Burnet/Metchinkoff did what?

He developed humoral "Phagocytic" theory of immune response

134

D'Herelle, Felix did what?

Discovered bacteriophage, altered Virus

135

Ehrlich did what?

Discovered Magic Bullet... First Tx for Syphilis

136

**What was Flemming Known for?

Discovered Penicillin

137

**Iwanowski was known for what?

He discovered the First Virus. Tobacco mosaic

138

***Koch Discovered what? and proved what?

He Proved bacteria "causes" disease

discovered the Anthrax Vaccine

Koch's 4 Postulates

139

**Lancefield, Rebecca did what?

classified Streptococcus

140

Leeuwenhoek did what?

Developed first microscope, and first to see microorganisms

141

***Pasteur is considered_____

the Father of Pathology, Father of Germ Theory(most famous)

-Came up with Rabies Vaccine

-Pasteurization of wine, then Milk

142

Walter Reed known for____

Yellow Fever

143

Sabin is associated with ____

Live Polio vaccine, given orally

144

Mr. Salk was responsible for____

Dead Polio vaccine, by injection, done before Sabin

145

Semmelweiss did what?

Came up with washing of hands before delivering baby and significantly reduced Puerperal Fever (aka Childbed Fever).

-Contracted by women after childbirth

146

Colony Variations: When examining an agar plate, the description of the morphology is:

-D

-H

-M

-O

-R

-S

What do these stand for?

D= Dwarf

H= Spreading

M= Mucoid capsule forming: related to virulence

O= Compact (O vs H)

R= Rough

S= Smooth

R & S stands for Colony Variations

147

Acid Fast staining is used for____

Mycobacterium

148

What type of Hemolysis is Alpha?

Partial

Green Ring

E.g. Strep pneumoniae

E.g. Strep viridans= SBE

149

What type of hemolysis is Beta?

Complete

Clear Ring "Beta is Bad"

E.g. Strep pyogenes

150

What type of hemolysis is Gamma?

None

Red Ring

E.g. Strep Mutans

151

Choclate agar is used for?

aka Heated Blood agar

aka Thayer Martin Agar

to check for Gonorrhea

152

Giemsa used for?

Protozoa

153

For Gram Staining, what is the Primary Stain?

Crystal violet or methylene blue.

-(Gram -) stains purple/blue

154

For Gram Staining, what is the Fixer?

Iodine= "Mordant"

155

For Gram Staining, what is the Decolorizer?

Acetone or Ethyl alcohol (Alcohol wash)

It removes teh crystal violet from thin walled (Gram -) organisms

156

In Gram Staining, what is the Counterstain?

Saffarin (red/pink color that goes into the Gram(-) organisms

 

157

Mannitol Salt is used for?

Staphylococcus

158

***In Cell Sex Life, what is the Conjugation stage?

the Plasmid DNA transfers via sex pilus.

Bestows antimicrobial resistance

159

***In Cell Sex Life, what is the Transduction stage?

When the Bacteriophage transfers genetic material between baceria

-Bacteriophage=Altered virus

160

***In Cell Sex Life, what is the Transformation stage for?

for Direct uptake of Free DNA

161

What Does CDC stand for and what is it used for?

Center for Disease Control

-Statistics, NOT RESEARCH

-Compiles Morbidity & Epidemiological Statistics

-Located in Atlanta, GA

-CDC DOES NOT EDUCATE!

162

What does EPA stand for and what does it do?

Environmental Protection Agency

-Monitors Soil, Air, and Water Quality

163

**What does FDA stand for and what does it do?

Food & Drugs Administration

-Regulates Health Products Released to the Public

164

*What is HHS?

Department of Health and Human Services

-Controls FDA, CDC, USPHS (US Public Health Services)

165

*What is NIH?

National Institute of Health.

-RESEARCH!

-NOT STATISTICS

-Located in Bethesda, Maryland

166

**What is OSHA?

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

-Makes rules concerning occupational toxicity levels of hazardous materials.

-Responsible to Health Services Administration

167

*What is USDA?

US Department of Agriculture.

-Responsible for milk and milk products.

168

Emerging Cases?

New Disease or rapid increase of a disease

-AIDS, and EBOLA in USA were examples

169

An Endemic is_____

Small number of cases in Specific location. Present all the time

170

An Epidemic is when ____

something Rapidly affects many persons in a certain area within a few days or weeks.

171

Etiology?

The Study of the cause of disease.

 

172

***An Incidence is____

# of New cases in a given time period.

-e.g. how many new cases last year?

173

Pandemic means?

more then expected # of cases of a disease worldwide.

174

***Prevalence is____

Total # of cases at a particular point in time.

-e.g. Total cases right now?

175

Leading Causes of Death in Infants

1. Congenital Malformations

2. Prematurity

176

Leading Causes of Death in Adults in the US

1. Heart Disease

2. Cancer

3. Stroke

4. Respiratory Infection

5. Accidents

177

Leading causes of Death Worldwide

1. TB

2. Malaria

178

Water Purification Process Steps

F

F

S

S

S

A

C

Filtration (Filter BIG stuff w/screens)

**Flocculation** (Aluminum trichloride)

Sedimentation (Precipitate Falls)

**Sludge Digestion** (Adds anaerobic bacteria)

Sand Filtration (Removes anaerobic bacteria/ Trickling Filter)

Aeration (adds O2 to Water to improve color and Taste)

Chlorination (Kills Remaining Bacteria)

179

Worm Types

Pneumonic* Try Ronney First

Tapeworm= Cestodes

Roundworms= Nematodes

Fluke worms= Trematodes

180

Tapeworms Description

Head

Body

Head= Scolex

Body= Proglottids-egg generating segment

 

181

Types of Tapeworms (Cestodes)

Type--> Organism--> Vector--> S/Sx, Notes

Dwarf--> Hymenolepis nana -->Mouth--> Diarrhea

Beef--> Taenia saginata--> Uncooked Beef-->

Pork--> Taenia solium--> Uncooked Pork--> Causes Cysticercosis

Fish--> Diphyllobothrium latum (Fresh Water Fish)--> Mouth, contaminated Sushi--> Causes Pernicious Anemia(B12 def)

Dog/Humans--> Echinococcus granulosus--> Canine Feces--> Hydatid Cysts in liver and Lung

182

Types of Roundworms (Nematodes)

A

F

H

P

R

R

T

W

Ascariasis--> Oral-Fecal--> Colicky pain, lives in Small intestine

Filiariasis--> Wuchereria bancrofti-->Mosquitoes

Hookworm--> Necator americanus(Bare Foot)--> Fecal Contaminated Soil--> m/c hookworm in US

Pinworm(threadworm)--> m/c helminth in US--> butt itching

River blindness--> Onchocerca volvulus--> Flies--> In Africa

River Eye worm--> Loa Loa--> Flies--. aka "African Eyeworm"

Trichinosis--> Raw Pork--> Lives in Striated Muscles, Dx on X-ray, Biopsy of muscle confirms

Whipworm--> Trichuris Trichura--> oral-fecal--> Weight Loss

183

Type of Flukes (Trematodes)

B

I

L

P

*Blood--> Shistosoma japonicum--> Infested water, Host Snail--> SWIMMER's ITCH--> mcc of death by a paracytic worm helminth worlwide!!

Intestinal--> Fasciolopsis buski--> Aquatic Plants--> Contaminated snail feces in plants

Liver--> Clonorchis sinensis--> Raw Contaminated Fish

Pulmonary(Lung)--> Paragonimus westermani--> Crayfish, mouth

184

What is a Capsomere?

a subunit of a protein coat ("Capsid") of a virus particle

- Viral envelope= trilamina lipid membrane

185

What is a Viroid?

ssRNA (single stranded RNA). Infects plants

- Smaller than a virus

186

Viruses are most commonly transmitted or acquired via?

Respiratory System

 

EXCEPTIONS:

-Arboviruses/Arthropod borne viruses= Mosquitoes/Encephalitis

- AIDS= Sexual Transmission, IV

-POLIO= oral/fecal

-RABIES= bite from infected animal

-WARTS= skin contact/ casual contact

-HEP A= Oral/Fecal, Humans not carriers

-HEP B= sexual transmission, IV

-HEP C= Transfusion, tattooing

187

Herpes Simplex:

2 Types

Type 1: Fever Blisters(Cold Sores) ABOVE BELT, can be Trigeminal/Gasserion ganglion

Type 2: Genital Herpes BELOW BELT

188

What causes shingles in Adults, doesn't cross the midline, and hides in the DRG? This also follows the dermatome.  

HERPES ZOSTER

189

A pink cauliflower lesion on the female genitalia

Molluscum contagiosum

190

What causes German measles aka "3-day measles"?

This also causes limb malformation and is most susceptible in 1st trimester.

Rubella

191

What is considered RED measles?

Causes Koplik spots on buccal mucosa.

"3 Cs: Cough, Coryza(runny nose), Conjunctivitis"

RUBEOLA

192

***What causes Cow Pox?

**Vaccinia

193

***What causes maculopapularvesicular rashes, red, elevated and fluid-filled skin lesions?

***Varicella (Chicken Pox)

194

What causes Small Pox, and are Guarneri bodies?

Variola

195

Hantavirus is spread by what?

Rodents, including chipmunks (Prairie Dogs)

196

Polio is spread by

Oral/Fecal contamination.

-Affects the anterior horn (alpha motor)

-Bulbar type produces respiatory paralysis--> MC of Death

- Bulbar--> Brainstem

197

What virus causes conjunctivitis, pharyngitis?

a. Adenovirus

b. Influenza

c. Mumps

d. RSV

Adenovirus

198

What virus causes the flu? Has antigenic shift (BIG) and/or drift (small)

a. Adenovirus

b. Influenza

c. Mumps

d. RSV

Influenza

199

Which of the following is caused by Sidomegalic paramyxoid virus?

This also Causes parotiditis which leads to LMN disease of CN VII (Bells Palsy)

Complications include Sterility from oophritis or orchitis?

a. Adenovirus

b. Influenza

c. Mumps

d. RSV

MUMPS

200

Which of the following causes croup & bronchiolitis?

a. Adenovirus

b. Influenza

c. Mumps

d. RSV

RSV

Respiratory Syncytial Virus

201

DO YOU NEED A BREAK FROM THIS CRAP?!

I KNOW I DO!!!

202

A mannitol salt augar is used for ______________.

Staphylococcus

203

Deoxyribonuclease in a medium inhibits ___________.

Transformation

204

Which of the following are negri bodies seen in?

Rabies

205

Which of the following is an advantage of passive immunity?

Rapid availability of protection

206

Which of the following release interleukin II?

T-lymphocytes

207

Which of the following does a virus cause?

Measles

208

Which of the following describes destruction of all microorganisms?

Sterilization

209

Fever blisters are associated with which of the following?

Herpes Simplex Type I

210

Which of the following is an acid-fast bacterium?

Mycobacterium

211

Which of the following is coagulase positive?

Staph aureus

212

Which of the following has no cell wall?

Mycoplasma

213

Peritrichous is a pattern of ____________.

Flagella

214

Which of the following causes yaws?

Treponema pertenunez

215

A rapid loss of fluids is associated with which of the following?

Cholera

216

Which of the following is Reye?s Syndrome associated with?

Influenza

217

Which of the following is associated with mononucleosis?

Epstein Barr

218

Which of the following causes atypical primary pneumonia?

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

219

Which of the following causes Osteomyelitis?

Staph aureus

220

Which type of milk is the most apt to cause disease?

Raw

221

Which of the following organisms causes hemorrhagic jaundice?

Leptospira ictohemorrhagiea

222

A throat culture predominantly pinpoints beta-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci in pairs and chains which are bacitracin sensitive and not bile soluble is indicative of which of the following pathogens?

Strep pyogenes

223

Antibodies are synthesized and released by which of the following cells?

Plasma Cells

224

The best medium to identify Neisseria gonorrhea is which of the following?

Thayer Martin Agar (chocolate agar)

225

If a urine sample contains white blood cells white blood cell casts and bacteria it would indicate which of the following?

Acute Pyelonephritis

226

Which of the following does the greatest damage to the ozone layer?

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)

227

Trismus is a characteristic finding in which of the following?

Tetanus

228

Which of the following cell types contain heparin?

Basophil

229

Which part of complement is the 1st to affix to the cell membrane?

C3B

230

Which of the following produces helper substances?

CD4

231

Which infection predisposes a child to Reye?s Syndrome?

Influenza

232

Which of the following bacteria transmit drug resistors?

Plasmids

233

Which of the following cause hookworm disease?

Necator americans

234

Which of the following cause pinworm disease?

Enterohius vermicularis

235

Which of the following cause round worms?

Ascariasis lumbricoides

236

Which of the following immunoglobulins crosses the placenta and provides passive immunity to the fetus?

IgG

237

Which of the following cell types work together with T-lymphocytes to recognize foreign antigens and stimulate antibody production?

Macrophages

238

Which of the following government agencies is not a part of the US Public Health Service?

Communicable disease Center

239

Which of the following diseases cause weight loss abdominal pain and mucous diarrhea and lasts for more than 3 days?

Giarada

240

Which of the following is responsible for lymes disease?

Borrelia burgdorferi

241

Which of the following etiological agents causes epidemic typhus?

Rickettsia prowazeki

242

Which genera are responsible for infant diarrhea in hospital nurseries?

Escherichia (E. coli)

243

Which of the following parasites causes blackwater fever?

Plasmodium falciparum

244

Which factor is responsible for making influenza pandemic?

Antigenic Shift

245

Which of the following routes transmits mycoplasma hormone?

Sexual

246

____________ causes childhood dysentery.

Coxsackie Virus B

247

_________ is a eukaryotic organism.

Protozoa

248

The DPT vaccine offers which type of immunity?

Artificial Active

249

Organism of which genera usually cause allergic reactions?

Aspergillus

250

Which of the following organisms causes whooping cough?

Bacterium

251

______ is the usual cause of bladder infections.

E. coli

252

________ is the immunoglobulin which can be detected early in an infectious process.

IgM

253

Motor viruses primarily affect which system?

Nervous

254

Which of the following most commonly causes impetigo contagious?

Streptococcus pyogenes

255

Blue green pus in a wound indicates the presence of which of the following organisms?

Pseudomonas aeriginosa

256

What is the most common organism to affect a patient with AIDS?

Pneumocytstic carinii

257

The helminth that causes the most deaths worldwide belongs to which genera?

Schistosoma (found in water)

258

________ cells process antigen.

Macrophages

259

_________ can penetrate unbroken skin.

Schistosoma mansoni

260

Which of the following does a vector not transmit?

Fever

261

Which of the following is a result of the reaction between soluble antigen and a specific antibody?

Precipitation

262

Vitamin B12 deficiency often results from which worm infestation?

Diphyllobothrium latum

263

Organisms from which genera are used as antigen in the diagnosis of Rickettsia disease?

Proteus

264

Destroying the larva of parasites from the genera Ascariasis Schistosoma and Trichinella is a distinctive function of ___________.

Eosinophils

265

Which of the following organisms is coagulase positive?

Staph aureus

266

Which parasite is most apt to infect the person who has been walking barefoot in a pile of feces?

Necatur americans

267

Which of the exhibits a gray pseudomembrane?

Diphtheria

268

Pasteurization is complete when the ___________ organism has been killed.

Brucellosis

269

What is the purpose of pasteurization?

To stop the growth of Bacteria

270

Which of the following is characteristic of a pyogenic organism?

Pus Formation

271

Which of the following is a pathogen found in contaminated water?

Leptospira interrogans

272

Which of the following causes Legionnaire?s Disease?

Bacteria

273

Which of the following sexually transmitted organisms causes Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and infertility?

Chlamydia trachomatis

274

Which of the following causes Bacillary Dysentery?

Shigella

275

What is a common characteristic of diphtheria?

Pharyngeal Pseudomembrane

276

Which of the following increases when a parasitic infection is present?

Eosinophils

277

Which of the following is the primary pathological consequence of Malarial infection?

Erythrocyte Destruction

278

Which of the following diseases is a result of phage induction in Staphylococci?

Osteomyelitis

279

Bacterial capsules are generally composed of a high molecular weight. Which of the following is one?

Polysaccharides

280

Respiratory syncytial virus is the major cause of Bronchiolitis and Pneumonia in which of the following?

Infants

281

Which of the following conditions is associated with Koplik spots?

Rubella

282

Bacteria which grows @ 55øc or higher are known as __________.

Thermophile

283

Which of the following organisms cause hard black subcutaneous nodules around the scalp?

Piedri hortae

284

Which of the following is primarily found in hard water?

Calcium Magnesium and Salts

285

Which of the following conditions is caused by Clostridium perfungies?

Gas Gangrene

286

Which of the following immunoglobulins mediates type I hypersensitivity reaction?

IgE

287

Which of the following has been implicated in river blindness?

Onchocerca

288

The Bacillus calmette gueron vaccine provided immunity against which of the following?

Tuberculosis

289

What is the virus that causes Gengivostomatitis?

Herpes Simplex I

290

Which of the following is related to the transmission of Measles?

Respiratory Inhalation

291

Which of the following causes purulent vaginal discharge and burning?

Neisseria gonorrhea

292

Influenza pandemic occurs because of which of the following?

Antigenic shift

293

Which of the following parasites causes Cysticercosis?

Taenia solium

294

Which of the following increases the immunogenic sympathetic soluble thymogen?

Immunoglobulins

295

Which of the following is associated with an encapsulated Diplococcus?

Neisseria

296

Chlorinated hydrocarbons that are stored in the bone can be most destructive to which of the following?

CNS

297

Which of the following organisms is most responsible for fecal contamination of water?

E. coli

298

Which of the following sources of water contain the most sulfur?

Rain Water

299

Which of the following is the step before flocculation in water treatment?

Filtration

300

Which of the following elements is prevalent in significant amounts in ground water?

Radon

301

Which of the following cells in the plasma contain interleukin II?

T-lymphocytes

302

Which of the following is involved in the transmission of Hepatitis A?

Ingestion

303

The causative agent of ringworm is a ______________.

Fungus

304

Which of the following organisms cause thrush?

Candida albicans

305

Coccidioidomycosis is a fungus that affects which of the following?

Lungs

306

Which of the following can aggravate C-3?

Plasmin

307

Which of the following is found in the infectious stage of Necator americanus?

Trophozoite

308

Which of the following cells produce interleukin I?

Mononuclear Phagocytes

309

Which of the following cells produce Histamine?

Mast Cells

310

Scolex on a tapeworm is for which of the following?

Attachment to Intestinal Mucosa

311

Transmission of Herpes II from mother to newborn is _____________.

Perinatal

312

Secondary amoebic infection will spread to which organ?

Liver

313

What causes Otitis media?

Hemophiles influenza

314

Conjugation involves which of the following structures?

Pilus

315

What is the cause of a heroin addict who has fever tremors muscles spasms and red streaks over the injection site?

Strep pyogenes

316

Which of the following causes stomach ulcers?

Helicobacter pylori

317

Which of the following is the vector of St. Louis encephalitis?

Mosquito

318

Which of the following is found in farmers who breathe in hay or grain dust?

Farmers Lung

319

Ringworm is diagnosed using which of the following?

Ultra Violet (woods lamp)

320

In what phase do bacteria divide @ a constant rate?

Log

321

Which of the following is the Vector for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

Tick

322

What has been responsible for the greatest increase in life expectancy?

Control of Infectious Disease

323

Which of the following is most apt to be found in a muscle biopsy?

Trichimonis

324

Which of the following is not a water borne disease?

Shigella (contaminated soil)

325

Zehl Nelson stain is used to detect which of the following?

Acid Fast Bacilli

326

Which of the following diseases is spread via the fecal/oral route?

Polio

327

Which of the following strains of E. coli cause travelers diarrhea?

Entertoxogenic

328

Schistosoma affects what part of the body?

Blood

329

Which of the following causes fungal infection of the lung?

Histoplasmosia and Coccidiomycosis

330

Which of the following causes acute Osteomyelitis?

Staph aureus

331

Clostridium ___________ causes gas gangrene and myconecrosis.

Perfringens

332

Which of the following is a process by which colloidal particles settle out from solution?

Flocculation

333

Penicillin acts by preventing formation of _______ in bacteria.

Peptioglycans

334

Which of the following pathogens causes Colitis secondary to antibiotic treatment?

Clostridium difficile

335

Which of the following is in saliva and tears?

IgA

336

Which of the following U.S. Government Agency compiles data on outbreaks of disease?

CDC (center for disease control)

337

Which of the following is a cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis?

Strep viridians

338

Epidemic parotitis is associated with ___________.

Mumps

339

What organism causes diphtheria?

Bacterium

340

What cells produce antibodies in response to an antigen?

Plasma Cells

341

What is the most common hookworm in the U.S.?

Necator americanus

342

Tetanus toxoid neutralizes _________________.

Circulating Toxins

343

Active digestion of organic material occurs @ which stage of sewage treatment?

Trickling

344

Which of the following organisms lacks a cell wall?

Mycoplasma

345

Which of the following federal agencies is responsible for lab experiment standards?

NIH (nation institute of health)

346

Which of the following is responsible for atypical primary pneumonia?

Mycoplasma pneumonia

347

Erythromatous ring seen in scarlet fever comes from which of the following?

Strep

348

Which organism is responsible for common form food poisoning?

Staph aureus

349

Trypansoma gambiense primarily affects what?

Brain

350

Which of the following cells produces Interleukin II?

T-Helper Cells

351

Which of the following immunoglobulins is most predominant in the neonate?

IgG

352

Which scientist is credited with bacterial transformation?

Griffith

353

Recent outbreaks from E. coli are due to which of the following?

Enteropathogenic

354

The incidence of disease is best defined as the total number of ____________.

New Cases Appearing In A Given Time

355

What type of food poisoning is obtained from improperly canned foods?

Botulism

356

Which of the following is toxic does not have DNA but still has protein?

Prion

357

Which of the following organisms causes Rheumatic Fever?

Group A Lancefield

358

Hepatic Whitlow occurs in which of the following?

Fingers

359

Which of the following agencies writes and publishes literature?

WHO

360

Salk vaccine is considered to be ______________.

Inactive Polio

361

How does UV radiation destroy organisms?

Destroys The DNA

362

Which of the following causes Scalded Skin Syndrome?

Staph aureus

363

When there is an epidemic spread of a disease which of the following is most important?

The Vector

364

Which of the following transmits Hepatitis A?

Fecal/Oral

365

Which of the following causes rice water stools?

Cholera

366

Which of the following antibiotics is used to treat resistant strains of Staph aureus?

Vancomycin

367

Iodine used in gram staining is considered a __________.

Modant

368

Which of the following causes symptoms similar to Mono?

Cytomegalovirus

369

Which of the following produces a toxin that does not allow Ach to be released @ the myoneural junction?

Clostridium tetani

370

Which of the following is catalase and coagulase negative?

Staph aureus

371

Which of the following parasites is found around the anus and is detected by the scotch tape test?

Enterobius vermicu

372

Which of the following is the most common PID?

Neisseria gonorrhea

373

Exposure to chickenpox and measles will impart which of the following immunities?

Natural Active

374

Which of the following is the organism most responsible for urinary tract infection?

E. coli

375

Trypanosonia cruzi is the organism that causes ______________.

Chagas Disease

376

The etiological agent of Lymes Disease is _______________.

Borrelia Burgdorferi

377

Which of the following is involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions?

IgE

378

Salmonella poisoning is most commonly due to ingestion of ______ and ________.

Eggs and Poultry

379

Which process has contributed to the decline in the incidence of food poisoning?

Proper Cooking

380

Which organism most commonly affects AIDS patients?

Fungus

381

Lymphocytes release _________ in response to a viral infection.

Interferon

382

Which of the following is a causative agent in smallpox?

Variola

383

Candylomata lata are found in what stage of Syphilis?

Secondary

384

Which of the following is used to measure sewage contamination?

Coliforms

385

Which of the following Rickettsia diseases is found in contaminated milk?

Q Fever

386

Which of the following cells is present in an antibody to antigen reaction?

B-Lymphocytes

387

What is the most common way to be infected by Toxoplasmosis?

Feline Feces

388

The presence of a red streak that appears along the course of a blood vessel would indicate development of ____________.

Bacteremia

389

Which of the following is the Federal Agency that sets lab standards?

NIH

390

The ELISA Test is for ________.

AIDS

391

Which of the following Federal Agencies sets the standards for the work place?

OSHA

392

Which of the following has pear shaped double nuclei and 4 pair of flagella?

Giardia lamblia

393

Which of the following Federal Agencies funds research?

NIH

394

Which of the following is a characteristic of Staph aureus?

Active and Invasive Opportunist

395

What zoonosis disease do spores spread?

Anthrax

396

What is the mode of transmission for German Measles?

Respiratory Droplets

397

Which scientist is responsible for the prevention of food borne disease?

Pasteur

398

Which of the following Government Agencies focuses on biomedical research?

NIH

399

A 10 year old with a stiff neck severe headache nausea vomiting 104ø temperature tachycardia and meningitis without a rash has what?

Equine encephalitis

400

Which of the following results in passive naturally acquired immunity?

Breast Feeding

401

What is the 1st line of human cellular defense against viral infection?

Humoral Response

402

Which bacteria are primarily responsible for spontaneous abortion in cattle?

Brucclia

403

What is the primary site of campylobacteriasis?

Intestine

404

Which of the following consumes inorganic material?

Autotroph

405

The brain and the peripheral nervous system produce which of the following immunoregulatory chemicals?

Interleukin I (macrophage) Gamma Globulins (B-cells)

406

Which of the following does Herpes Simplex Type II cause?

Genital Herpes

407

The rash caused by Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever originates in which of the following areas of the body?

Ankles and Wrist

408

Which of the following conditions are caused by Staph aureus?

Carbuncles Emphentygo Osteomyelitis Scalded Skin Syndrome Toxic Shock

409

A mature adult parasite makes its permanent home in the ______________.

Definitive Host

410

The common cold is spread via _________.

Air

411

AIDS virus attacks which of the following?

CD4 and Cytotoxic T-Cells

412

What is the most common fungal condition in the Ohio Valley and Mississippi Valley areas?

Histoplasmosis

413

Protozoa are found in water in which of the following forms?

Cyst Form

414

What is the function of a bacterial capsule?

Prevents Bacterial Phagocytosis

415

Delayed hypersensitivity is _______________.

Cell Mediated

416

Which of the following fluoresces under light?

Pseudomonas aeriginosa

417

Which of the following is associated with childhood dysentery?

Coxsackie Virus

418

What is the most likely outcome of a Hepatitis A Virus infection?

Full Recovery

419

What is the most likely cause if a patient presents with blurred vision 103ø temperature fever diarrhea and headache?

Clostridium botulinum

420

What is the mode of transmission for Wool Sorters Disease?

Inhalation of Bacillus anthrax spores

421

Trismus (lock jaw) is caused by which of the following?

Clostridium Tetani

422

Extrinsic asthma is characterized by increased _____________.

Serum IgE Levels

423

What is the most common cause of lead poisoning in the U.S.?

Industrial Waste

424

Parasitic infections will increase which of the following?

Eosinophils

425

What type of immunity is imparted to a person who has taken DPT vaccine?

Artificial Active

426

Ingestion and digestion of solid foods by cells of the body is ____________.

Phagocytosis

427

Which of the following causes Baciliary dysentery?

Shigella

428

Iodine functions as a ______________ in gram staining procedure.

Mordant

429

Which of the following causes Thrush?

Candida albicans

430

Which of the following is Acid Fast?

Mycobacterium

431

Which of the following causes blue-green pus?

Pseudomonas aeriginosa

432

Which of the following is the most appropriate test to determine acid-fast bacilli?

Ziehl Nielson

433

What is the function of a bacterial capsid?

Protects Nuclear material

434

What is the probable cause of a 4 year old that presents with upper respiratory infection pharyngitis laryngitis a red pharynx and a 102ø fever?

Hemophilus influenza

435

What is the most common cause of childhood diarrhea?

Reovirus

436

Antibodies which provide immunity against Streptococcus pneumoniae react with the __________________.

Capsular Polysaccharide

437

What is the best way to test for Typhus?

Blood

438

What is the vector for Leishmaniasis?

Sandfly

439

Negri bodies are found in ____________.

Rabies

440

Which of the following does not produce an exotoxin?

Baciliary dysentery

441

Which of the following produce exotoxin?

Clostridium tetani Staph aureus Strep pyogenes

442

Water borne infections are derived mostly from _______________.

Giardia lamblia

443

Mannitol salt agar is used to detect which of the following?

Pathogenic Staph

444

How is Hepatitis Virus vaccine produced?

Synthetically Manufactured

445

A patient with koplik spots probably is infected with what?

Rubella

446

A Darkfield microscope is used to identify which of the following?

Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

447

Coliform count is used to detect which of the following?

Inadequate Sewage Disposal

448

Microorganisms that live @ 20-45ø C are classified as which of the following?

Mesophiles

449

BCG vaccine is used to prevent which of the following?

TB

450

Who is the scientist responsible for categorizing Streptococci?

Lancefield

451

Which of the following produces hard red non-painful lesions on the penis?

Syphilis

452

Which of the following is responsible for San Joaquin Valley Fever?

Coccidiodes immitis

453

Which portion of the body is most affected by the Herpes Virus?

Nervous System

454

What is the most common method of transmission for hookworm infection?

Through the Skin

455

Precipitation from solution in the form of fleecy masses is the definition for which of the following?

Flocculation

456

Which of the following carries Equine encephalitis?

Mosquito

457

What is the worst form of malaria?

Plasmodium falciparum

458

Plasmodium fits into which of the following categories?

Protozoa

459

A severe lack of both B and T lymphocytes is associated with which of the following?

Leukemia

460

Retrovirus is typically ____ to ______.

RNA DNA

461

Which of the following is the reason that the FDA requires pasteurization of eggs across state lines?

To Prevent Salmonella

462

The Fluke known as Paragonia westermani is found in the _______.

Lung

463

A rash on the hands and feet is characteristic of which of the following?

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

464

Which of the following does not display immunoglobulin?

Type IV

465

Ascariasis lumbricoides is transmitted via which of the following?

Fecal/Oral

466

Mast cells are most closely correlated with which of the following?

Basophiles

467

Which of the following is not fully funded by the Federal Government?

CDC

468

Genital Herpes is associated with which of the following?

Type II Herpes

469

Herpes Simplex I is associated with which of the following?

Sores

470

Which of the following fungi cause jock itch?

Tinea cruris

471

The largest portion of air pollution in the U.S. comes from _______________.

Carbon Monoxide

472

Which of the following organisms is associated with Lymes disease?

Borrelia burgdorferi

473

Which of the following have flagella @ both ends?

Peritrichous

474

Vibrio cholera will produce which of the following?

Water and Mucous in the Stool

475

Which of the following is associated with inflammation of the nerves in the face and brain?

Herpes

476

What is the secondary step in sewage treatment?

Use of Microorganisms to Digest Materials

477

Which of the following cause Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

Rickettsia rickettsia

478

Chloride plus water results in which of the following?

Hydrochloric Acid

479

Putting in ____________ cleans a septic tank.

Microorganisms

480

Which of the following is an immune complex performed by the body?

C1-C4-C3-C5

481

Delayed hypersensitivity is associated with which of the following?

Type IV Cell Mediated Response

482

What is the diagnosis for a 30-year-old male who presents with a fever and skin lesions that appear as eccentric rings on the trunk?

Lymes Disease

483

Which of the following is associated with Gas Gangrene?

Clostridium perfringens

484

Which of the following does a vector not transmit?

Q Fever

485

Which of the following is associated with the common cold?

Rhinovirus

486

Hemophilus influenza is most dangerous for ____________.

Newborns

487

Shigella causes which of the following?

Bacillary dysentery

488

Rose-colored spots on the abdomen are associated with which of the following?

Salmonella Typhosa

489

T-helper cells activate which of the following?

B-lymphocytes

490

Which of the following immunological reactions does not display immunoglobulin response?

Type IV

491

What is the fungus that affects the body?

Tinea corporis

492

Which of the following can spread the common cold?

Air and Fomites

493

A foul smelling fishy discharge is associated with which of the following?

Gardenella Vaginalis

494

What are plantar warts caused by?

Virus

495

Which of the following is the diagnostic test for Tb?

Mantoux

496

Which of the following spreads epidemic typhus?

Body Lice

497

What is the etiological agent that causes epidemic typhus?

Rickettsia prowazeki

498

What are the genera responsible for infant diarrhea in hospital nurseries?

E. coli

499

Which of the following cause Black Water Fever?

Plasmodium falciforum

500

How is Mycoplasma homonis transmitted?

Sexually

501

Which of the following is a Eukaryotic organism?

Protozoa

502

Which genera cause allergic reactions?

Aspergillus

503

Which of the following causes whooping cough?

Bacterium

504

Which of the following is detected earliest in the infection process?

IgM

505

Motor viruses primarily affect which of the following?

Nervous System

506

Impetigo contagiosa is most commonly caused by ____________.

Strep pyogenes

507

What is the most common organism to affect a person with AIDS?

Pneumolcystis carinii

508

Which of the following is the Helminth that causes the most deaths worldwide?

Schistosoma

509

Which of the following cells process antigen?

Macrophages

510

Which of the following can penetrate unbroken skin?

Schistosoma mansoni

511

Which of the following results in a reaction between a soluble antigen and a specific antibody?

Precipitation

512

Which of the following causes a B12 deficiency?

Diphyllobothrium latum (fishworm)

513

A throat culture that produces pinpoint beta-hemolytic colonies of gram-positive cocci in pairs and in chains which are bacitracin sensitive and not bile soluble would indicate which of the following?

Strep pyogenes

514

Antibodies are synthesized and released by which of the following?

Plasma Cells

515

What is the best medium to identify Neisseria gonorrhea?

Chocolate Agar

516

If a urine sample has WBC?s WBC casts RBC?s and Bacteria in it you should investigate for which of the following?

Acute Pyelonephritis

517

Which of the following contain heparin?

Basophiles and Mast Cells

518

Which is the 1st part of the complement to affix to the cell membrane?

C3B

519

Which of the following produces helper substances?

CD4

520

Which of the following infections predisposes a child to Reye?s Syndrome?

Influenza

521

Which of the following transmits drug resistors?

Plasmids

522

Which of the following cause hookworm disease?

Necator americanus

523

Which of the following crosses the placenta and provides passive immunity to the fetus?

IgG

524

Which of the following work with T-Cells to recognize foreign antigens and stimulate antibody production?

Macrophages

525

Which of the following is not part of the U.S. Public Health Services?

CDC

526

Which of the following causes weight loss abdominal pain mucous diarrhea and lasts for more than 3 days?

Giardia lamblia

527

Which of the following is TB in the spine?

Pott?s

528

What is the envelope around the capsid derived from?

Host Cell Membrane

529

What is the primary site of campylobacteriasis?

Intestine

530

Which of the following causes a fungus ball in the lung?

Aspergillus

531

Where does the highest number of anaerobic bacterial growth occur in sewage treatment?

Sludge

532

Which of the following is associated with the causative agent of mononucleosis?

Epstein Barr

533

Which of the following causes hemorrhagic jaundice?

Leptospira ictohemorrhagea

534

Which of the following is associated with encapsulated diplococcus?

Neisseria

535

Chlorinated hydrocarbons that enter the body through the bone can be most destructive to the ___________.

CNS

536

Which of the following water sources contain the most sulfur?

Rain Water

537

What is the step subsequent to (after) flocculation in water treatment?

Sedimentation

538

What are the steps of water treatment in order?

Flocculation Sedimentation Filtration Aeration

539

At what stage is backwashing used in drinking water treatment?

Filtration

540

Which of the following is present in significant amounts in ground water sources?

Radon

541

Which cells in plasma contain interleukin II?

T- lymphocytes

542

Where do malarial parasites reproduce?

Inside RBC?s

543

Which of the following can activate C3?

Plasmin

544

Which of the following is found in the infective stage of Necator americanus?

Trophozoite

545

Which of the following is a result of phage induction in Staphylococcus?

Osteomyelitis

546

Respiratory syncytial virus is a major cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in which of the following?

Infants

547

What is the etiological agent of mononucleosis?

Epstein Barr

548

A patient from South America presents with coffee ground vomiting and severe nosebleeds. He relates a history of severe headaches for the past 4 days jaundice body aches insomnia and nausea. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?

Yellow Fever

549

Bacteria which grow @ 55øC or higher are _____________.

Thermophiles

550

Which of the following cause black subcutaneous nodules around the scalp?

Piedri hortae

551

What are the properties of Streptococcus as a result of lysogenic conversion?

Erythrogenic Toxin

552

Which Federal Agency regulates the management of hazardous waste?

EPA

553

Which of the following mediate Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

IgE

554

Bacillus calmette gueron vaccine (BCG) provides immunity against which of the following?

TB

555

Which virus causes gengivostomatitis?

Herpes Simplex I

556

Which of the following is related to the transmission of Measles?

Inhalation

557

Which of the following causes purulent vaginal discharge and burning?

Neisseria gonorrhea

558

Which of the following causes cysticercosis?

Taenia solium

559

What is the most common cause of death in the U.S.?

Heart Disease

560

What would be the diagnosis for a child who presents with a rash around the buttocks due to a parasitic condition?

Enterobius vermicularis

561

What is the most common symptom of Cholera?

Rice Water Stools

562

Which of the following is the vector for Western Equine Encephalitis?

Mosquito

563

A gray pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is associated with which of the following?

Diphtheria

564

Which of the following is characteristic of a pyogenic organism?

Pus Formation

565

Which of the following is a pathogen found in contaminated water?

Leptospira interrogans

566

Fungi imperfecti are so named because of what reason?

No Sexual Spores

567

Which of the following is a common characteristic of diphtheria?

Pharyngeal Pseudomembrane

568

What is the primary pathological consequence of malaria?

Erythrocyte Destruction

569

What is the primary allergen to which a child reacts in barley rye and wheat?

Gluten

570

The toxoid for tetanus produces which of the following forms of immunity?

Artificial Active

571

The TB skin test represents which of the following responses?

Type IV Delayed

572

Which of the following kills all microbes?

Autoclaving

573

Which of the following do mites transmit?

Scabies

574

What substance found in milk determines if pasteurization has been properly accomplished?

Phosphatase

575

Where does a mature tapeworm live?

Small Intestine

576

What is the diagnosis for a person who has just moved to Arizona and develops a dry cough associated with climatic conditions?

Coccidiomycosis

577

Which of the following passes through the placenta?

IgG

578

Which of the following is most prevalent?

IgG

579

Which of the following best describes the TB test?

Delayed Hypersensitivity

580

Which of the following supplies money to local doctors for research?

NIH

581

What is the stage of water purification that removes most of the bacteria?

Sedimentation

582

Which type of sterilization is most suited for instruments used in surgery?

Moist Heat

583

What does an excessive amount of fluoride in drinking water cause?

Mottled Teeth

584

Which of the following is a fungus of the scalp?

Tinea Capitis

585

Which of the following is most dangerous to newborns?

Staph aureus

586

What is the most common way that Legionnaire?s disease is spread?

Respiratory Droplets

587

Which of the following causes Chaga?s disease?

Trypanosoma cruzi

588

A patient presents with normal body temperature widespread muscle spasm and muscle guarding in the abdominal area. What do these symptoms suggest?

Botulism

589

Type IV delayed immunological reaction will affect which of the following?

Lymphocytes

590

What do T-helper cells activate?

B-lymphocytes

591

What is the best test to perform to determine the pollution of water?

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)

592

Which of the following is an example of a Type I reaction?

Bronchial Asthma

593

Which of the following is an immunoglobulin associated with Type I?

IgE

594

Which immunoglobulin is found in Gastric Mucosa?

IgA

595

Methyl gas causes cancer of the __________.

Kidney

596

There is no vaccine for which of the following?

Rhinovirus

597

Cook pork to avoid which of the following?

Trichinella spiralis

598

Antibodies respond to antigens via _____________.

B-lymphocytes

599

Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?

IgG

600

Which immunoglobulin is involved in Type II hypersensitivity?

IgG and IgM

601

Which of the following has both endotoxin and exotoxin?

Shigella dysentery

602

Pink Eye is associated with which of the following?

Haeomphilus aegypticus

603

Which of the following is an air-borne carcinogen?

Benzopyrene

604

Which of the following is associated with infant botulism?

Raw Honey

605

Which of the following has been eliminated from society?

Variolla

606

Which of the following secrete histamine?

Basophiles

607

What is the result of warm moist heat on cell membranes?

Protein Denaturization

608

Which types of Hepatitis can you get from a blood transfusion?

Hepatitis B and C

609

Soap added to a sterilizing agent will do which of the following?

Increase The Bacteriocidal Potential

610

Who is considered to be the father of immunology?

Pasteur

611

Which of the following is associated with muscle spasms and calcification of skeletal muscle?

Trichimonis spiralis

612

Which of the following produce the most circulating antibodies?

Plasma Cells

613

Infant methemoglobinemia is due to which of the following?

Nitrate

614

Which of the following is a lung disease due to iron dust inhalation?

Siderosis

615

The most effective sterilization technique in a lab is ___________.

Autoclaving

616

Which of the following is an air pollutant that causes headaches and dizziness?

Carbon Monoxide

617

Contaminated milk transmits which of the following?

Q Fever

618

Herpes Simplex does not create which of the following?

Lifetime Immunity

619

Flocculation is involved in which of the following?

Colloid Aggregation During Sewage Treatment

620

Bladder infections are most commonly due to which of the following?

E. coli

621

Opsonins agglutinins lysins and precipitins are which of the following?

Antibodies

622

Which of the following diminishes riboflavin?

Milk Left Standing in Light

623

Black death is due to which of the following?

Yersenia pestis

624

Which of the following can be found in unpasteurized milk?

Brucella abortis

625

Why are flu vaccines sometimes not effective?

Different Strains

626

Why is a vaccine for the common cold not feasible?

The multiplicity of it

627

What type of organism uses molecular O2 as the final electron acceptor?

Obligate Aerobe

628

An autotroph consumes which of the following?

Inorganic Materials

629

Neisseria gonorrhea can be best identified in which of the following?

Thayer Martin Agar (chocolate agar)

630

Childhood dysentery is due to which of the following?

Coxsackie Virus

631

Safarin is used in which staining technique?

Gram Stain

632

Herpes Simplex produces a latent infection where?

Nervous System

633

What is the purpose of iodine use in gram staining?

Fixer (mordant)

634

A virus capsid is made up of which of the following?

Protein

635

Which of the following are classified by their method of locomotion?

Protozoa

636

What is the test to determine whether or not complete pasteurization has been achieved?

Phosphatase Test

637

Q Fever is due to which of the following?

Coxiella burnetti

638

What is the name of the serology test for Rickettsia?

Weil felix

639

Histoplasma is a fungal infection that mimics which of the following?

TB

640

Bacterial cell walls are made up of __________________.

Peptidoglycans

641

What is iodine used for in pre-op?

Disinfectant

642

Lymph node enlargement is not associated with ________.

Cholera

643

The heaviest and largest immunoglobulin is ____.

IgM

644

Microbial pollution is eliminated via which of the following?

Sand Filtration

645

Who discovered yellow fever?

Reed

646

Chymosis (bruising) is seen with which of the following?

Scurvy

647

Which of the following increases immunogenic sympathetic soluble thymogen?

Immunoglobulins

648

Which of the following can cross the placenta and affect the fetus?

Rubella

649

Exotoxins can act upon ____________ cell walls.

Phospholipid

650

Which of the following contributes to environmental problems?

Automobiles

651

Which of the following is an arbovirus?

Western Equine Encephalitis

652

Penicillin affects bacteria by interfering with synthesis of ______________.

Peptidoglycans

653

The kissing bug causes which of the following?

Chaga?s Disease

654

The State Health Department is responsible for maintaining which of the following?

Mortality Rates

655

Where are nosocomial infections acquired?

Hospitals

656

Why is chlorine added to treated sewage?

To Destroy Residual Microbes

657

Red spots on the face are associated with which of the following?

Cutaneous Anthrax Infection

658

Streptobacillus is the agent of which of the following?

Rat Bite Fever

659

The sedimentation stage of water purification removes most of the _________.

Bacteria

660

Anaphylaxis is associated with which of the following?

Type I Hypersensitivity

661

Which of the following organisms oxidize inorganic matter for energy?

Autotrophs

662

Which of the following organisms require organic matter for energy?

Heterotrophs

663

Which of the following use dead decaying matter for energy?

Saprophytes

664

Which of the following feed on living matter for energy?

Parasites

665

Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which 1 or both benefit?

Symbiosis

666

Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which both benefit?

Mutualism

667

Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which both benefit and both accomplish what neither can do alone?

Synergism

668

Which of the following describes 2 populations living together in which one benefits and the other is unaffected?

Commensalism

669

Which of the following are tests for syphilis?

Darkfield Kahn Kline TPI VDRL Wasserman

670

Which of the following are tests for tuberculosis?

Acid Fast = Ziehl Nielson Stain BCG = TB vaccine Mantoux Test Tine Test

671

Which of the following are pasteurization methods?

Flash Holding Method Ultrahigh Method