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General Microbiology > Microbiology Unit 3 > Flashcards

Microbiology Unit 3 Flashcards

(93 cards)

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1
Q

Sterilization

A

Destruction or removal of all viable microorganisms (including endospores and viruses); absolute

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2
Q

Decontamination

A

Removal of organic matter off surfaces (Ex. wiping off the counter after eating)

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3
Q

Disinfection

A

killing, inhibiting, or removal of pathogenic microorganisms

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4
Q

Disinfectants

A

used on inanimate objects

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5
Q

Sanitization

A

reduction of microbial population to levels deemed safe (based on public health standards)

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6
Q

Antisepsis

A

prevention of infection of living tissue (can be seen on the back of hand sanitizers)

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7
Q

Antiseptics (germicides)

A

chemical agents that kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms when applied to tissue

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8
Q

Chemotherapy

A

use of chemicals to kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms within host tissue

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9
Q

Moist Heat

A

method of destroying bacteria, fungi, and viruses; better penetration power because it uses water

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10
Q

Boiling

A

part of Moist Heat; will not always destroy endospores so does not necessarily sterilize

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11
Q

Pasteurization

A

part of Moist Heat; controlled heating at temperatures well below boiling; used for wine, milk, and other beverages

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12
Q

Which moist heat method kills pathogens present and slows spoilage?

A

pasteurization

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13
Q

Autoclave

A

part of Moist Heat; effective against all types of microbes (sterilization)

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14
Q

What temperature, in degrees Celsius, must be reached in an autoclave to effectively sterilize?

A

121

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15
Q

True or False: Autoclave time for endospores is the same as for vegetative cells.

A

False

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16
Q

Dry Heat Sterilization

A

less effective than moist heat sterilization; requires higher temperatures and longer exposure times; items subjected to 160-170 degrees C for 2 to 3 hours

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17
Q

Flaming

A

a method of dry heat sterilization (used in lab)

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18
Q

Freezing

A

stops microbial reproduction due to lack of liquid water; some microorganisms can die by ice crystal disruption of the cell membrane

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19
Q

What temperature is generally required for the freezing method?

A

-20 degrees C

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20
Q

Refrigeration

A

slows microbial growth and reproduction

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21
Q

What temperature is generally required for refrigeration (slowing of microbial growth and reproduction)?

A

4 degrees C

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22
Q

Ultraviolet (UV) Radiation

A

non-ionizing radiation; causes thymine dimers in DNA; has poor penetrating power and is limited to disinfection of surfaces, air, and water

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23
Q

Ionizing Radiation

A

beta, gamma, X-rays; penetrates deep into objects

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24
Q

Filtration

A

reduces microbial populations; sterilization of heat-sensitive solutions; uses membrane filter with defined pore size and also used for air

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25
Antimicrobial agent
natural or synthetic chemical that kills or inhibits growth of microbes
26
-cidal
suffix indicating a chemical agent that kills pathogens and many-nonpathogens, but not necessarily endospores
27
-static
suffix indicating a chemical agent that inhibits growth
28
Minimal Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)
`lowest concentration of drug that inhibits growth of pathogen
29
Minimal Lethal Concentration (MLC)
lowest concentration of drug that kills pathogen
30
Dilution Susceptibility Test
used to detect the smallest amount of agent needed to inhibit the growth of a test organism and the broth from which a microbe cant be recovered
31
In the Dilution Susceptibility Test, which concentration is in the first two tubes with minimum turbidity?
MIC
32
In the Disk Diffusion Tests, what does the line between growth and no growth mean?
MIC
33
What are the factors influencing the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent?
population size, population composition, concentration or intensity of the agent, duration of exposure, temperature, and local environment
34
Kirby-Bauer Method
used to determine the effectiveness of certain antimicrobials; relationship between zone diameter and degree of microbial resistance
35
Antigen
any molecule or substance that stimulates the immune system to make antibodies against it and activates immune memory
36
Vaccine
substance given to a host (usually by injection) that induces artificial active immunity (acts as an antigen, but doesn't cause disease)
37
Vaccination/Immunization
inoculation of a host with a vaccine to stimulate protective immunity; sometimes a booster is required to enhance/restore protection
38
What is the spike protein on the SARS-CoV-2 virus?
an antigen
39
Covid-19 mRNA vaccine
made using mRNA that gives cells instructions on how to make the spike protein on the surface of the virus.
40
Covid-19 Viral Vector Vaccine
genetic material from COVID-19 virus is inserted into an unrelated, harmless virus.
41
Herd Immunity
resistance in a population to a pathogen (disease) as a result of the immunity of a large portion of the population
42
greater
the more highly infectious a pathogen, the ______ the proportion of immune individuals needed to prevent disease spread
43
Antimicrobial drugs
compounds used to treat disease by destroying or inhibiting the growth of pathogenic microbes within a host (in vivo)
44
semi-synthetics
chemically modified antibiotics
45
True
True or False: many antibiotics are discovered in soil.
46
Selective toxicity
ability of drug to kill or inhibit pathogen while damaging the host as little as possible
47
Therapeutic (effective) dose
drug level required for clinical treatment
48
toxic dose
drug level at which drug becomes too toxic for patient (produces side effects)
49
therapeutic index
ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose; the larger it is, the better
50
narrow-spectrum drugs
attack only a few different pathogens
51
broad-spectrum drugs
attack many different pathogens
52
cidal agent
agent that kills microbes
53
static agent
agent that inhibits growth of microbes
54
side effects
undesirable effects of drugs on host cells
55
growth factor analogs
structurally similar to an essential growth factor; disrupt cell metabolism
56
Isoniazid
narrow spectrum growth factor analog; cidal if actively growing, static if dormant; treats tuberculosis
57
Quinolones
interfere with bacterial DNA gyrase; prevent DNA packaging
58
Ciprofloxacin
narrow spectrum growth factor analog; cidal
59
Growth factor analogs and quinolones
Which groups are synthetic antimicrobial drugs?
60
Macrolides
target the 50S ribosomal subunit
61
Tetracyclines
target the 30S ribosomal subunit
62
Lipid biosynthesis disruptor
targets fatty acid biosynthesis
63
Erythromycin
broad spectrum macrolide; static
64
Tetracycline
broad spectrum tetracycline; static; can treat acne
65
Platensimycin
broad spectrum lipid biosynthesis disruptor; static; effective against MRSA and VRE
66
Macrolides, Tetracyclines, and Lipid Biosynthesis Disruptors
Which groups are antibiotics from Bacteria?
67
Beta-Lactam antibiotics from fungi
include penicillins and cephalosporins; target cell wall synthesis ; effective primarily against gram-positive bacteria; cidal against actively growing cells
68
Penicillin is produced by what group of microbes?
Fungi
69
Penicillin mechanism of action
cidal; inhibit transpeptidation enzymes involved in cross-linking the polysaccharide chains of peptidoglycan; activate cell wall lytic enzymes
70
Antimicrobial drug resistance
acquired ability of a microorganism to resist the effects of a chemotherapeutic agent to which it is normally sensitive
71
Using antimicrobials does not ______ resistance but _______ for those that are resistant
cause; selects
72
Four mechanisms of bacterial resistance
target modification, preventing entrance, inactivation and effex pumps
73
Origin of drug resistance
natural immunity genes, spontaneous mutations, location of resistance genes
74
transmission of drug resistance
horizontal gene transfer (transformation, conjugation, transduction)
75
Methods of preventing emergence of drug resistance
give drug in high concentrations to destroy susceptible, use antimicrobials only when necessary, take full course of antimicrobial, use narrow spectrum antimicrobials, give combination of unrelated drugs
76
Any change in appearance, smell, or taste of a food that makes it unpalatable to the consumer, may be safe to eat
food spoilage
77
Food composition and spoilage for carbohydrates
mold predominates, degrades food by hydrolysis, ergotism (disease caused by Claviceps purpurea toxins)
78
food composition and spoilage for proteins or fats
bacterial growth predominates, putrefication (anaerobic breakdown of proteins, foul-smelling amine compounds)
79
List of intrinsic factors for food spoilage
pH, presence and availability of water, oxidation-reduction potential, physical structure, antimicrobial substances
80
pH for food spoilage
low pH favors yeast and mold
81
presence and availability of water for food spoilage
lower water activity inhibits microbial growth
82
oxidation-reduction potential for food spoilage
lower redox (less oxygen) favors growth of anaerobic bacteria
83
physical structure for food spoilage
grinding and mixing promotes microbial growth
84
antimicrobial substances for food spoilage
coumarins, lysozyme, allicin, etc.
85
list of extrinsic factors for food spoilage
temperature, relative humidity, atmosphere
86
temperature for food spoilage
lower temperatures retard microbial growth
87
relative humidity for food spoilage
higher levels of humidity promote microbial growth
88
atmosphere for food spoilage
oxygen promotes growth
89
Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP)
use of shrink wrap and vacuum technologies to package food in controlled atmospheres
90
temperature to know for refrigeration in food preservation
4 degrees C
91
temperature to know for freezing in food preservation
-20 degrees C
92
What is the danger zone for food preservation
5-60 degrees C
93
What are high temperature methods for food preservation?
cooking and holding at high temperatures, canning, pasteurization

General Microbiology (2 decks)

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