micropara intensive Flashcards
(122 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following generally refers to instances where there is a disproportionately larger number of infected individuals in a fairly short amount of time?
A
b. Epidemic
2
Q
Which of the following toxins requires cell death for release?
A
d. Cytotoxin
3
Q
Class of BSC where the air is 100% exhausted to the building
A
d. Class III
4
Q
What is the color of non-lactose fermenter in EMB and MAC?
A
d. Colorless
5
Q
Stain for capsule, except:
A
d. Hiss
6
Q
Correct arrangement in PCR Amplification
A
d. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
7
Q
Type of growth in slant, except:
A
a. Flocculent
8
Q
All of the following are antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis, except:
A
a. Monobactams
9
Q
Which of the following is resistant to aminoglycosides?
A
c. Anaerobes
10
Q
Composition of McFarland Standard
A
b. Hydrochloric Acid and Barium Chloride
11
Q
The beta-hemolysis produced by GAS seen on the surface of a sheep blood agar plate is primarily the result of ______
A
a. Streptolysin O
12
Q
Which one of the following microorganisms is closely associated with dental caries?
A
b. S. mutans
13
Q
Lysostaphin is used to differentiate Staphylococcus from which other genus?
A
c. Micrococcus
14
Q
Which of the following species of Bacillus is nonmotile?
A
c. B. anthracis
15
Q
Causative agent of erysipeloid
A
b. E. rhusiopathiae
16
Q
CCFA is used for the recovery of ______
A
d. Clostridium difficile
17
Q
Minimal branching aerial hyphae, except:
A
d. Tsukamurella
18
Q
Partially acid-fast organisms, except:
A
d. Streptomyces
19
Q
Biochemically, the Enterobacteriaceae are gram-negative rods that:
A
a. Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite; and are oxidase negative
20
Q
What is the pH indicator incorporated in SSA?
A
a. Neutral Red
21
Q
Which of the following refers to a biochemical test used to separate Staphylococci, Micrococci from Streptococci?
A
b. Catalase
22
Q
Which of the following must be incubated in a microaerophilic environment for optimal recovery of the organism?
A
c. C. jejuni
23
Q
In the following pairs of organisms, which two are hardest to distinguish from each other by Gram stain?
A
d. Clostridium, Veillonella
24
Q
Stage of bacterial growth where the organisms become susceptible to antibiotics
A
b. Log
25
Part of MTB Complex, except:
c. M. kansasii
26
Vector of B. burgdorferi
a. Ticks
27
Father of Modern Epidemiology
a. John Snow
28
Laboratory results are example of
a. Sign
29
Colony elevation
a. Umbonate
30
Which organism has a characteristic of 'Green metallic sheen on BAP'?
a. P. aeruginosa
31
Biological indicator of Autoclave
a. B. stearothermophilus
32
Used for sterilization of culture media that are egg-based and of high protein content
c. Tyndallization
33
Spirillum minus also causes rat bite fever in humans and is referred to as:
a. Haverhill fever
34
In thioglycolate broth medium, where do you find facultative anaerobe?
a. Middle of the tube
35
Which refers to living together of two unlike organisms where life is still possible if separated?
a. Symbiosis
36
Host that harbors sexual stage of parasites, where parasites complete their development.
a. Definitive Host
37
The O&P examination comprises three separate protocols, except:
b. Parasite Culture Method
38
FECT arrange from top to bottom
d. Ether > Formalin > Debris > Sediment
39
Specific gravity of 33% Zinc Sulfate if the specimen is formalinized?
b. 1.018
40
Mode of transmission: ingestion of improperly cooked fish
d. C. sinensis
41
Soil-transmitted helminths, except:
d. Leishmania
42
Which enteric parasites resemble macrophages in stool?
b. E. histolytica trophozoite
43
Amoeba that inhabits the GI tract of man are non-motile, non-feeding, and infective during which stage?
a. Cyst
44
Alcaligenes faecalis is distinguished from Bordetella bronchiseptica with which test?
b. Oxidase
45
Characteristics of rhabditiform larvae of Hookworms include:
a. Short buccal capsule and large genital primordium
46
Malaria parasite with band-shaped trophozoite:
b. Plasmodium falciparum
47
Largest Trichomonas with undulating membrane covering ~50% of its body:
a. T. vaginalis
48
Vector of Onchocerca:
d. Simulium spp
49
Recommended drug for Fasciola infection:
b. Bithionol
50
Schistosome species with large terminal spine:
a. S. haematobium
51
Resembles S. haematobium egg but acid-fast positive:
a. S. intercalatum
52
Pseudophyllidean requires how many intermediate hosts?
b. 2
53
Egg of D. latum may be mistaken as:
b. Fasciola egg
54
Taenia spp. with 5-12 finger-like uterine branches:
b. T. saginata
55
Microsporum infection involves:
a. Hair, skin, and nails
56
Used to differentiate *M. audouinii* from *M. canis* and *M. gypseum*:
a. Rice medium
57
Most common cause of chromoblastomycosis:
d. Fonsecaea pedrosoi
58
Fungi causing Phaeohyphomycosis, except:
d. Fonsecaea
59
White Granules Mycetoma, except:
d. Acremonium
60
Dematiaceous mold with flask-shaped phialides:
a. *Phialophora* spp.
61
Differentiation between *Trichophyton rubrum* and *T. mentagrophytes*:
a. Colony appearance
62
Hyaline septate hyphae with banana-shaped conidia:
a. Fusarium
63
Fungi that do NOT produce arthroconidia:
d. Candida
64
Large yeast with single bud on broad base:
a. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
65
Fungal colony texture described as 'Velvety':
d. Velvety
66
Second step in yeast identification:
a. Germ tube
67
Large yeast with single bud on broad base:
a. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
b. Sporothrix schenckii
c. Coccidioides immitis
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
68
Fungal colony texture described as 'Velvety':
a. Verrucose
b. Umbonate
c. Rugose
d. Velvety
69
Second step in yeast identification:
a. Germ tube
b. Morphology on cornmeal agar
c. CHO utilization
d. India ink
70
Infectious form of fungi:
a. Yeast
b. Mold
c. Sexual
d. Asexual
71
Black pigment on bird seed agar is due to:
a. Urease
b. Phenoloxidase
c. Sucrose assimilation
d. Arthroconidia production
72
Stain-preservative for fungi:
a. PAS Stain
b. Gomori Methenamine Silver
c. Lactophenol cotton blue
d. Giemsa stain
73
Purpose of viral transport medium with antibiotics:
a. Enhances viral growth
b. Inhibits bacterial/fungal growth
c. Destroys nonpathogenic viruses
d. Inhibits antibodies
74
EBV is associated with:
a. Chickenpox
b. Hodgkin lymphoma
c. Burkitt lymphoma
d. Smallpox
75
Colds and acute respiratory diseases are linked to:
a. EBV
b. Adenovirus
c. Coxsackie virus
d. Reovirus
76
Virus linked to anogenital warts and cervical neoplasia:
a. HSV
b. HPV
c. CMV
d. RSV
77
RNA virus with nuclear replication phase:
a. Coronavirus
b. Rhabdovirus
c. Togavirus
d. Retrovirus
78
'Break bone fever' refers to:
a. Coxsackie A virus
b. Dengue virus
c. Hantavirus
d. Rubella virus
79
Specimen for rotavirus detection:
a. Feces
b. Urine
c. Bronchoalveolar wash
d. Throat wash
80
Reverse transcriptase is used to treat:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Measles
d. Hepatitis B
81
Arboviruses, except:
a. Togavirus
b. Flavivirus
c. Picornavirus
d. Bunyavirus
82
Virus causing adult gastroenteritis via contaminated food/water:
a. Norwalk-like virus
b. Rotavirus
c. Coronavirus
d. Hepatitis A virus
83
Kaposi sarcoma is linked to:
a. Adenovirus
b. CMV
c. HHV-8
d. Hepatitis E virus
84
Enveloped, filamentous RNA virus:
a. Coronavirus
b. Filovirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Polyomavirus
85
COVID-19 symptom, except:
a. Fever
b. Dry cough
c. Tiredness
d. Headache
86
COVID-19-specific symptom:
a. Sore throat
b. Fever
c. Loss of smell
d. Shortness of breath
87
Few persons with SARS were identified as:
a. Super human
b. Super spreaders
c. Case
d. Contact
88
Father of pathology:
a. George Nicholas Papanicolaou
b. Rudolf Carl Virchow
c. Hippocrates
d. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
89
Father of cytopathology:
a. George Nicholas Papanicolaou
b. Rudolf Carl Virchow
c. Hippocrates
d. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
90
Microscopically, the hallmark of this type necrosis is the conversion of normal cells into TOMBSTONES:
a. Caseous necrosis
b. Coagulation necrosis
c. Fat necrosis
d. Liquefaction necrosis
91
Organ most commonly affected by FATTY DEGENERATION:
a. Heart
b. Liver
c. Lungs
d. Kidney
92
The first and most critical step in histotechnology?
a. Clearing
b. Embedding
c. Fixation
d. Infiltration
93
Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain:
a. 4% formaldehyde
b. 10% formaldehyde
c. 37% to 40% formaldehyde
d. 98% to 100% formaldehyde
94
Microanatomical fixatives:
1. 10% formol saline
2. Heidenhain’s suss
3. Zenker’s solution
4. Flemming’s fluid
95
The primary aim of fixation:
a. Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell
b. Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling
c. Act as morgan or accentuators
d. Inhibit bacterial decomposition
96
This organ is usually suspended whole in 10% buffered formalin for 2 to 3 weeks to ensure fixation and some hardening prior to sectioning.
a. Lungs
b. Liver
c. Brain
d. Amputated foot
97
Nuclear fixatives are those that preserve nuclear structure in particular. They have a pH of:
a. pH 4.6 or less
b. pH 4.6 or greater
c. pH 6.4 or less
d. pH 6.4 or greater
98
Cytoplasmic fixatives, EXCEPT:
a. Zenker’s fluid
b. Helly’s fluid
c. Orth’s fluid
d. Regaud’s fluid
99
Fixative for the preservation of fats:
a. Helly’s fluid
b. Zenker’s fluid
c. Formalin
d. Newcomer’s fluid
100
It is used to fix sputum, since it coagulated mucus:
a. Gendre’s fixative
b. Neutral buffered formalin
c. Helly’s solution
d. B5 fixative
101
It is considered as the most common metallic fixative:
a. Lead
b. Mercuric chloride
c. Osmium tetroxide
d. Chromate
102
Mercuric chloride fixatives:
1. Zenker’s fluid
2. Heidenhain’s Susa solution
3. B-5 fixative
4. Orth’s fluid
103
It is recommended mainly for tumor biopsies especially of the skin; it is an excellent cytologic fixative:
a. B-5 fixative
b. Zenker’s fluid
c. Helly’s fluid
d. Heidenhain’s Susa solution
104
All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse BLACK granules and these mercury deposits must be removed BEFORE STAINING. Removal of mercuric chloride deposit is accomplished by:
a. Saturated solution of picric acid
b. Saturated solution of iodine
c. Sodium thiosulfate
d. Distilled water
105
Components of Helly’s solution – Zenker - Formal:
1. Mercuric chloride
2. Potassium dichromate
3. Formaldehyde
4. Glacial acetic acid
106
All fixative contains picric acid, EXCEPT:
a. Bouin’s
b. Brasil’s
c. Carnoy’s
d. Gendre’s
107
Carnoy’s fluid fixative is considered to be as the most rapid fixative. It fixes and dehydrates at the same time.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. 1st statement is true; 2nd statement is false
d. 1st statement is false; 2nd statement is true
108
It is excellent for fixing dry and wet, blood smears and bone marrow tissues:
a. Bouin’s solution
b. Carnoy’s solution
c. B-5
d. Methanol
109
An unknown pigment in tissue section that can be bleached with a saturated alcoholic solution of picric acid is most likely:
a. Melanin pigment
b. Hemosiderin
c. Formalin pigment
d. Mercury pigment
110
Acetic acid is normally used in conjunction with other fixatives to form a compound solution. It solidifies at ___ hence the name glacial acetic acid.
a. 7C
b. 7F
c. 17C
d. 17F
111
Most useful primary fixatives for electron microscopy:
1. Osmium tetroxide
2. Glutaraldehyde
3. Paraformaldehyde
112
Composition of von Ebner’s fluid:
a. Nitric acid, chromic acid, absolute ethyl alcohol
b. Sodium chloride, hydrochloric acid, water
c. Trichloroacetic acid, formal saline
d. Chromic acid, osmium tetroxide, acetic acid
113
It decalcifies and softens tissues at the same time:
a. von Ebner’s fluid
b. Perenyl’s fluid
c. Hemming’s fluid
d. Trichloroacetic acid
114
Which of the following is a dehydrating agent?
a. Formalin
b. Xylene
c. Benzene
d. Alcohol
115
Dioxane is a reagent that can be used:
a. For both fixing and dehydrating tissues
b. For both dehydrating and clearing tissues
c. In very small volume rations
d. For long periods without changing
116
It is the most rapid clearing agent, suitable for urgent biopsies and clears within 15 to 30 minutes.
a. Xylene
b. Toluene
c. Benzene
d. Chloroform
117
It is recommended clearing agent for tough tissues (e.g. skin, fibroid and decalcified tissues), for nervous tissues, lymph nodes and embryos because it causes minimum shrinkage and hardening of tissues.
a. Xylene
b. Toluene
c. Benzene
d. Chloroform
118
The volume of the impregnating medium should be at least ___ the volume of the tissue.
a. 5 times
b. 10 times
c. 20 times
d. 25 times
119
Common paraffin waxes have melting points of 45, 52, 56 and 58°C. The ___ wax is normally used for routine works.
a. 45°C
b. 52°C
c. 56°C
d. 38°C
120
It is a product of paraffin, containing rubber, with the same property as paraplast.
a. Embeddol
b. Bioloid
c. Tissue mat
d. Ester wax
121
A semi-synthetic wax used for embedding the eyes:
a. Embeddol
b. Bioloid
c. Tissue mat
d. Ester wax
122
All processes are done in an automatic tissue processor, EXCEPT:
a. Fixation
b. Dehydration
c. Impregnation
d. Embedding
