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OBHR 668 > Mid term > Flashcards

Mid term Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Group cohesion can improve performance because ______.
    A. cohesive teams are more likely to accept the team’s goals
    B. cohesive teams foster intergroup competition.
    C. cohesive teams are less likely to comply with group norms.
    D. cohesive groups foster competition between members
A

A. cohesive teams are more likely to accept the team’s goals

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2
Q
  1. The style of group decision making where group votes and majority rules is ______.
    A. democratic
    B. consultative
    C. consensus
    D. normative
A

A. democratic

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3
Q
  1. Finding out who is affected, where/when/why/how a problem occurs is part of ______?
    A. problem recognition
    B. problem analysis
    C. problem definition
    D. information integration
A

B. problem analysis

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4
Q
  1. Team altruism is driven by ______.
    A. impression management
    B. concern for others
    C. social approval
    D. rewards
A

A. impression management

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5
Q
  1. The most important finding of Milgram’s (1974) study is that ______.
    A. obedience occurred even when authority had no reward or punitive power.
    B. conformity is due to two influential processes.
    C. obedience occurs only when authority can punish.
    D. power may be abused by those with status.
A

A. obedience occurred even when authority had no reward or punitive power.

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following factors does NOT predict leader emergence?
    A. gender
    B. personality
    C. effectiveness
    D. intelligence
A

C. effectiveness

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7
Q
  1. ______ provides information for identifying and solving future problems.
    A. Identification
    B. Evaluation
    C. Implementation
    D. Defining
A

B. Evaluation

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following teams would have a safe environment for feedback?
    A. a team that has high-status differences among members
    B. a team that has a leader who includes all members
    C. a team with norms that prohibit criticism.
    D. a team that emphasizes social over task behaviors
A

B. a team that has a leader who includes all members

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE about team turnover?
    A. It can have positive and negative effects on the team.
    B. Socialization may manage negative effects on the team.
    C. It is a rare occurrence.
    D. It may introduce fresh perspectives to the team as new members join.
A

C. It is a rare occurrence.

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a possible problem with individual decision making?
    A. decision fatigue
    B. use of heuristics
    C. decreased speed.
    D. limited access to information
A

C. decreased speed.

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11
Q
  1. The conflict management style a team uses can be ______ or ______.
    A. cooperative; competitive
    B. collaborative; competitive
    C. collaborative; avoidant
    D. constructive; cooperative
A

A. cooperative; competitive

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT in terms of how team warm-ups should be used?
    A. at the start of team meetings
    B. to develop social relations between group members.
    C. only when group members know each other well.
    D. to aid in socializing with new members
A

C. only when group members know each other well.

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13
Q
  1. Teams that rush to make quick decisions in order to avoid disagreement experience a problem called ______.
    A. negotiation focus
    B. disagreements
    C. evaluation bias
    D. premature closure
A

D. premature closure

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14
Q
  1. Hawthorne discovered that ______.
    A. studying workers has no impact on worker performance.
    B. social factors have an important impact on performance.
    C. breaking up tasks into smaller ones leads to an increase in performance
    D. teams are no better at performing complex tasks than individuals.
    E. the size of a team does not affect performance
A

B. social factors have an important impact on performance

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE about the functional approach to team problem solving?
    A. It emphasizes the quality of team discussions.
    B. Research shows that generating alternative solutions is one of the most important functions for effective problem solving.
    C. Research shows that evaluating negative consequences is one of the most important functions for effective problem solving.
    D. Research shows that problem analysis is one of the most important functions for effective problem solving
A

B. Research shows that generating alternative solutions is one of the most important functions for effective problem solving.

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16
Q
  1. The four stages a team uses in the unitary path to problem solving are ______.
    A. defining, describing, analysis, and implementation.
    B. recognition, analysis, evaluation, and implementation
    C. descriptive, functional, prescriptive, and ideal
    D. orientation, conflict, emergence, and reinforcement
A

D. orientation, conflict, emergence, and reinforcement

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17
Q
  1. A Force Field Analysis can be used to ______.
    A. estimate the financial costs of implementing a new solution.
    B. understand factors that support or inhibit change that comes from implementing a new solution.
    C. gain acceptance of a team’s solution
    D. monitor feedback regarding the success of a solution
A

B. understand factors that support or inhibit change that comes from implementing a new solution.

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18
Q
  1. While various factors encourage competition, the most malleable factor is ______.
    A. culture
    B. personality
    C. the organizational reward system
    D. team leadership
A

C. the organizational reward system

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19
Q
  1. Organizations sometimes encounter problems when trying to empower teams because of ______.
    A. team members do not want to be empowered.
    B. supervisors and middle managers resist empowerment programs.
    C. empowered teams are rarely successful.
    D. empowerment has not been shown to have benefits
A

B. supervisors and middle managers resist empowerment programs.

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20
Q
  1. ______ is the ability to solve emotional problems.
    A. Emotional intelligence
    B. Cognitive ability
    C. Communication
    D. Trust
A

A. Emotional intelligence

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21
Q
  1. Self-managing teams are different from traditional work groups because of the ______.
    A. they have fewer members.
    B. there is no leader.
    C. the teams are more strongly linked to the organization’s hierarchy
    D. they make greater use of consensus or democratic decision-making.
    E. the leader is selected by those outside of the team.
A

D. they make greater use of consensus or democratic decision-making.

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a communication skill for team meetings?
    A. ask questions appropriately.
    B. listen actively.
    C. focus on past behaviors when giving feedback.
    D. process feelings in the group
A

C. focus on past behaviors when giving feedback.

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23
Q
  1. “Process mapping” leads to ______ for problem-solving teams.
    A. construction of a shared mental model
    B. identification of strengths and weaknesses of the team
    C. identification of flaws in various solutions
    D. construction of alternative perspectives
A

A. construction of a shared mental model

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24
Q
  1. The ______ proposes that members whose contributions to a team are poor are viewed as having less leadership potential.
    A. transformation leadership theory
    B. transactional leadership theory
    C. babble effect
    D. quality-of-communication hypothesis
A

D. quality-of-communication hypothesis

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25
Q
  1. Successful teams contain members who have all the following characteristics EXCEPT ______.
    A. the skills, knowledge, and ability that match the task requirements.
    B. social skills to operate effectively.
    C. conscientiousness and extraversion
    D. similar social and educational backgrounds to support good communication
A

D. similar social and educational backgrounds to support good communication.

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26
Q
  1. ______ refers to a phenomenon in which the effect of a group discussion leads to a final decision more extreme than the average of the members.
    A. Group polarization
    B. Groupthink
    C. Risky shift phenomenon
    D. Ringi effect
A

A. Group polarization

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27
Q
  1. What is needed to address the overuse of teams is ______.
    A. restructure work so that tasks are more independent.
    B. restructure organizations so that there are clear, authoritarian leaders.
    C. knowing when and where they should be used and what is required for successful deployment
    D. to stop the use of teams altogether.
A

C. knowing when and where they should be used and what is required for successful deployment

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28
Q
  1. Group socialization refers to a process by which ______.
    A. a group is integrated into the larger organizational context.
    B. a person becomes a member of a group.
    C. leaders develop relations with individual members.
    D. a person decides to leave a group.
A

B. a person becomes a member of a group.

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29
Q
  1. The Abilene paradox is an example of ______.
    A. unhealthy leadership
    B. unhealthy competition
    C. unhealthy agreement
    D. healthy disagreement or conflict
A

C. unhealthy agreement

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30
Q
  1. What are the two main reasons for conforming to group pressure?
    A. power and social influence
    B. normative influence and obedience
    C. normative and informational influence
    D. obedience and normative influence
A

C. normative and informational influence

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31
Q
  1. The use of teams by organizations is increasing because of the ______.
    A. organizations are getting larger.
    B. employees want their jobs to be simplified.
    C. jobs are becoming more complex and interdependent.
    D. organizations are seeking stability.
    E. organizations are becoming more hierarchical.
A

C. jobs are becoming more complex and interdependent.

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32
Q
  1. Someone who is concerned with both personal success and group success is called a(n) ______.
    A. competitor
    B. Machiavellian
    C. individualist
    D. cooperator
A

D. cooperator

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33
Q
  1. One of the main implications of the contingency approach to leadership is to ______.
    A. develop ways to test and select good leaders.
    B. understand the link between traits and behaviors with situations.
    C. understand the substitutes for leadership.
    D. develop methods to train people to be good leaders
A

B. understand the link between traits and behaviors with situations.

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34
Q
  1. Which of the power styles is forceful, critical, and negative?
    A. passive
    B. aggressive
    C. assertive
    D. controlling
A

B. aggressive

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35
Q
  1. The ______ to team leadership proposes that the leader’s job is to help the team “get the job done.”
    A. behavioral approach
    B. trait approach
    C. charismatic approach
    D. functional approach
A

D. functional approach

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36
Q
  1. One problem with team coaching is that leaders too often ______.
    A. focus on micromanaging activities rather than building capabilities of the team.
    B. do not have the skills to coach
    C. do not have the time to coach.
    D. focus on abilities rather than performance
A

A. focus on micromanaging activities rather than building capabilities of the team.

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding consensus decision making?
    A. It is time-consuming.
    B. It should be used for simple problems.
    C. When done well, team members are more satisfied than with other approaches.
    D. It has a greater likelihood of implementation by the team.
A

B. It should be used for simple problems.

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38
Q
  1. Competition is useful for teams when ______.
    A. the competition is about money rather than social rewards
    B. the competition is with teams from other organizations.
    C. the competition is within the team rather than with other teams.
    D. the competition is focused on the main goals of the team.
A

B. the competition is with teams from other organizations.

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39
Q
  1. Social loafing can be reduced in a group by ______.
    A. making each individual’s performance less observable.
    B. making the task more challenging.
    C. making sure that the task may be performed independently.
    D. increasing the number of individuals in the group
A

B. making the task more challenging.

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a rule for constructive controversy?
    A. establish openness norms.
    B. get outside information.
    C. combine ideas.
    D. encourage conformity.
A

D. encourage conformity.

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following is a deep-level attribute of team members?
    A. race
    B. functional role
    C. personality
    D. sex
A

C. personality

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42
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the stages of group development is FALSE?
    A. Groups go through a storming or conflict stage after they have completed most of their work.
    B. Groups need to establish norms before they can become fully productive.
    C. Groups are more productive in their later stages of development.
    D. Not all groups follow the typical pattern of stages of group development
A
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43
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE about the charismatic approach to leadership?
    A. People are born with traits that make them charismatic leaders.
    B. Skills of a charismatic leader can be learned and developed.
    C. Communication skills are an important part of charismatic leadership.
    D. Male leaders are viewed as more charismatic than female leaders.
A

D. Male leaders are viewed as more charismatic than female leaders.

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44
Q
  1. Many benefits from creating a team occur ______.
    A. over the long run after completing many projects.
    B. during the process of completing the first project.
    C. when the team has a good relationship with managers.
    D. after a team successfully completes the first project.
A

A. over the long run after completing many projects

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45
Q
  1. The reduction of individual contributions when people work in groups rather than alone refers to ______.
    A. social loafing
    B. free riding
    C. the “sucker effect”
    D. social facilitation
A

A. social loafing

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46
Q
  1. Team efficacy has ______ relationship with performance:
    A. no
    B. one-way
    C. two-way
    D. a curvilinear
A

C. two-way

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47
Q
  1. The transactional model of communication suggests that ______.
    A. team members send and receive messages.
    B. nonverbal communication is more important than verbal messages.
    C. verbal messages are more important than nonverbal communication.
    D. how messages are communicated does not affect member behavior.
A

A. team members send and receive messages.

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48
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT characterize a good follower as proposed by implicit followership theories?
    A. enthusiastic
    B. hardworking
    C. loyal
    D. easily influenced.
A

D. easily influenced.

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49
Q
  1. Imagine a team that has to decide how to launch a new product in a global market, which requires exchanging information with members from many different parts of the world. What type of reward system would be best for such a team?
    A. competitive
    B. cooperative
    C. performance-based
    D. NO rewards should be offered.
A

B. cooperative

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50
Q
  1. Interpersonal processes of effective teams involve ______.
    A. identifying and prioritizing goals.
    B. providing feedback about task progress.
    C. managing conflict, regulating teammate emotions, and encouraging team members
    D. organizing team members to work in synchronous interdependence
A

C. managing conflict, regulating teammate emotions, and encouraging team members

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51
Q
  1. In Milgram’s (1974) study, participants ______.
    A. were mostly reluctant to deliver electric shocks when the learner was a child.
    B. incorrectly judged the length of a line when pressured by others.
    C. delivered electric shocks to innocent strangers when commanded by their peers
    D. were more obedient to a physically present authority figure.
A

D. were more obedient to a physically present authority figure.

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52
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a way to encourage cooperation within a group?
    A. setting superordinate goals
    B. encouraging altruistic norms.
    C. increase competition against other groups
    D. building communication
A

C. increase competition against other groups

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53
Q
  1. Group process observations ______.
    A. should be done by someone who is not a group member.
    B. should help to define the appropriate behaviors that each member should perform.
    C. help the group to work on its problems when they occur.
    D. should be done a period of time after problems occur
A

C. help the group to work on its problems when they occur.

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54
Q
  1. Developing integrative agreements requires focusing discussions toward ______ and away from ______.
    A. interests; positions
    B. positions; interests
    C. compromise; conflict
    D. conflict; compromise
A

A. interests; positions

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55
Q
  1. Research suggests that when communicating, teams spend their time ______.
    A. reviewing common information everyone knows.
    B. combining unique perspectives of various members.
    C. withholding information from each other.
    D. sharing new knowledge with each other.
A

A. reviewing common information everyone knows.

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56
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason groups and teams matter?
A. Reliance on teamwork is increasing in the workplace.
B. Teamwork skills are highly valued by employers.
C. Groups are central to many aspects of our lives.
D. Understanding groups and teams provides insight into what influences our own behaviors and the behaviors of others around us
E. All the above are reasons groups and teams matter.

A

E. All the above are reasons groups and teams matter.

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57
Q
  1. When asking questions at a team meeting, the leader should ______.
    A. ask questions of the entire team whenever possible.
    B. direct the question to the most quiet member to encourage participation
    C. refrain from asking open-ended questions.
    D. ask only close-ended questions
A

A. ask questions of the entire team whenever possible.

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58
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a component of emotional intelligence?
    A. self-awareness
    B. empathy
    C. relationship management
    D. trustworthiness
A

D. trustworthiness

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59
Q
  1. What do supportive organizational cultures encourage that enhance team success?
    A. individual-based evaluation and rewards
    B. open communication and collaborative effort
    C. homogeneity in thinking and idea generation
    D. authoritarian leadership
A

B. open communication and collaborative effort

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60
Q
  1. The work of Kurt Lewin and his followers changed the study of group dynamics by ______.
    A. focusing on the individual, rather than the group, as the unit of study
    B. developing an action research approach that demonstrated the value of applied research and theory.
    C. showing how the study of individuals could be used to promote social change.
    D. focusing on leaders as drivers of group processes.
    E. focusing on experimental lab research.
A

B. developing an action research approach that demonstrated the value of applied research and theory

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61
Q
  1. Ground rules that define appropriate and inappropriate behavior in a team are called ______.
    A. agendas
    B. goals
    C. norms
    D. conflicts
A

C. norms

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62
Q
  1. ______ describes decision-making flaws caused by a group’s desire to have good social relations instead of making the best decision.
    A. Normative decision making
    B. Groupthink
    C. Social influence
    D. Nominal decision making
A

B. Groupthink

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63
Q
  1. Grounded in ______, one source of conflict arises from a tendency for members of a team to have conceptions of “us” versus “them.”
    A. favoritism theory
    B. intergroup dynamics theory
    C. discrimination theory
    D. social identity theory
A

D. social identity theory

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64
Q
  1. Which decision-making approach increases speed but lowers quality?
    A. individual decision making
    B. team decision making
    C. consensus
    D. majority vote
A

D. majority vote

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65
Q
  1. One of the important lessons from the study of group development is ______.
    A. strong leadership is crucial to group success.
    B. teams should focus on productivity at the beginning of a project.
    C. most of the productive work occurs during the later stages of projects
    D. good social relations among team members often do not develop until the end of a project
A

. most of the productive work occurs during the later stages of projects

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66
Q
  1. The approach to conflict management that emphasizes both assertiveness (advocating one’s position) and cooperativeness (concern for the other side’s position) is called ______.
    A. collaboration
    B. confrontation
    C. avoidance
    D. accommodation
A

A. collaboration

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67
Q
  1. Collective intelligence is related to ______.
    A. the sum of individual team members’ intelligence
    B. the average emotional intelligence of members and equality of communication within the team
    C. emotional intelligence of the team’s leader
    D. the culture of the organization to which the team belongs.
A

the average emotional intelligence of members and equality of communication within the team

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68
Q
  1. All of the following are functions of team reflexivity EXCEPT ______.
    A. develop explanations of why the behaviors occurred.
    B. clarify roles of team members.
    C. verify team members’ perspectives about what occurred.
    D. receive feedback about the success or failure of actions.
A

B. clarify roles of team members.

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69
Q
  1. Research shows that teams experiencing relational conflict but that are higher in levels of ______ recover to be more effective than teams that did not have any relational conflict.
    A. trust
    B. psychological safety
    C. avoidance
    D. cognitive reappraisal
A

D. cognitive reappraisal

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70
Q
  1. Compared to equal-status teams, teams with unequal amounts of power or status tend to ______.
    A. have more communication.
    B. have more autocratic decision making.
    C. have a more even distribution of communication among members.
    D. have more trust
A

B. have more autocratic decision making.

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71
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of group socialization?
    A. investigation
    B. socialization
    C. absorption
    D. maintenance
A

C. absorption

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72
Q
  1. Research on the use of self-managed teams in organizations shows that ______.
    A. they are not successful when used with production workers.
    B. they are more successful with members who have experience with the task and with teamwork.
    C. they are preferred by members of professional teams.
    D. they are most suited for teams in which members have different areas of expertise
A

B. they are more successful with members who have experience with the task and with teamwork

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73
Q
  1. Groups are defined by all the following characteristics EXCEPT ______.
    A. group members mutually influence each other.
    B. group members interact to achieve a common goal
    C. there must be at least two members.
    D. there must be no more than 10 members.
    E. groups need to have a reason to exist
A

D. there must be no more than 10 members.

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74
Q
  1. Early research suggests the “babble effect” is related to ______.
    A. leader emergence
    B. group selection of a leader
    C. effectiveness of a leader
    D. quality of communication by the leader
A

A. leader emergence

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75
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of shared leadership?
    A. lower workload
    B. greater trust among team members
    C. more cohesion
    D. better performance of the team
A

A. lower workload

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76
Q
  1. What is the relationship between team success and organizational context?
    A. Successful teams change the organization and create their own context.
    B. Organizational context is not one of the main determinants of team success.
    C. The organization’s feedback and reward system is an important part of a team’s organizational context.
    D. Supportive organizational cultures promote open communication and give power and responsibility to the manager
A

C. The organization’s feedback and reward system is an important part of a team’s organizational context.

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77
Q
  1. A minority in a team can become influential by all of the following EXCEPT ______.
    A. being consistent and sticking to their position.
    B. displaying self-confidence in their position.
    C. appearing autonomous and free to make their own choices
    D. demonstrating flexibility and willingness to compromise.
A

D. demonstrating flexibility and willingness to compromise.

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78
Q
  1. Which type of team coaching is focused on building knowledge, skills, and abilities of group members?
    A. motivational
    B. consultative
    C. educational
    D. contingent
A

C. educational

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79
Q
  1. The best way to fully utilize team resources is the ______ approach to group decision making.
    A. democratic
    B. consultative
    C. consensus
    D. normative
A

C. consensus

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80
Q
  1. Which of the approaches to conflict management does NOT have the problem of creating winners and losers?
    A. accommodation
    B. confrontation
    C. avoidance
    D. compromise
A

A. accommodation

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81
Q
  1. All of the following are poor information processes that keep unique information from being shared EXCEPT ______.
    A. negotiation focus
    B. discussion bias
    C. evaluation bias
    D. emotional suppression
A

D. emotional suppression

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82
Q
  1. Building trust in a team requires all the following EXCEPT ______.
    A. team efficacy
    B. safe team environment
    C. time
    D. constant changes in team membership
A

D. constant changes in team membership

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83
Q
  1. Problems vary in their levels in all of the following ways EXCEPT ______.
    A. severity
    B. familiarity
    C. complexity
    D. feasibility
A

D. feasibility

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84
Q
  1. The behavioral approach to leadership has shown that ______.
    A. democratic decision making is more accurate than authoritarian decision making.
    B. authoritarian leaders are better at implementing decisions.
    C. task-oriented leaders are more effective than social-oriented leaders
    D. team members tend to prefer leaders who help develop and maintain supportive social relations
A

D. team members tend to prefer leaders who help develop and maintain supportive social relations

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85
Q
  1. Indispensability occurs when ______.
    A. individual members feel their contributions to the team are important
    B. individual members do not believe their efforts are important.
    C. free riding occurs.
    D. tasks are interesting.
A

A. individual members feel their contributions to the team are important

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86
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an important activity for a meeting facilitator?
    A. advocate their position, so the group understands it.
    B. maintain an open communication climate.
    C. manage disruptive behaviors.
    D. manage differences among group members.
A

A. advocate their position, so the group understands it

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87
Q
  1. Teams with higher collective ______ have higher levels of motivation to perform, greater staying power when they encounter setbacks, and improved performance.
    A. potency
    B. efficacy
    C. intelligence
    D. rewards
A

B. efficacy

88
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding gender and communication in groups?
    A. The feminine style emphasizes independence and reporting knowledge.
    B. The masculine style of communication is used only by males.
    C. The masculine style of communication is used only by females of high status.
    D. Masculine and feminine styles are used by both sexes.
A

D. Masculine and feminine styles are used by both sexes.

89
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a factor that encourages team cohesion?
    A. fostering acceptance of group goals
    B. implementing transformational leadership training.
    C. fostering equal interactions.
    D. increasing group size
A

D. increasing group size

90
Q
  1. What are the two dimensions by which conflict management approaches may be analyzed?
    A. assertiveness and cooperativeness
    B. compromise and mediation
    C. accommodation and negotiation
    D. integration and accommodation
A

A. assertiveness and cooperativeness

91
Q
  1. In team coaching, the leader ______.
    A. directs the team on how to do its work.
    B. guides the team to improve coordination, increase commitment, and build skills.
    C. micromanages the team’s activities.
    D. observes team members to select new leaders.
A

B. guides the team to improve coordination, increase commitment, and build skills.

92
Q
  1. Studies on teamwork originated in the field of ______.
    A. sociology
    B. business
    C. communication
    D. psychology
    E. education
A

D. psychology

93
Q
  1. The thinking that method might help in ______.
    A. problem recognition
    B. problem analysis
    C. problem definition
    D. information integration
A

B. problem analysis

94
Q
  1. The most important aspect in preparing for group conflict is ______.
    A. ensuring a mediator is readily available.
    B. creating an environment that supports constructive controversy.
    C. prohibiting negative emotions.
    D. encouraging feelings about personal issues.
A

B. creating an environment that supports constructive controversy.

95
Q
  1. The success of empowerment programs depends on an organization’s willingness to ______.
    A. remove all power from top management.
    B. dismantle teams so that individuals have more responsibility.
    C. share information with its employees
    D. reward its employees for increased responsibilities
A

C. share information with its employees

96
Q

. To keep up with contemporary demands, organizations have been ______ layers of management and replacing managers with ______.
A. increasing; outside consultants.
B. decreasing; outside consultants
C. increasing; teams.
D. decreasing; teams

A

D. decreasing; teams

97
Q
  1. Contemporary approaches to group socialization examine ______.
    A. how work teams deal with constantly changing group membership.
    B. how new members are recruited and integrated into permanent teams.
    C. how teams are integrated into their organizations.
    D. how roles affect team socialization.
A

A. how work teams deal with constantly changing group membership.

98
Q
  1. Too much cooperation within a group can cause problems because ______.
    A. it reduces cohesion.
    B. it can cause group members to put task success ahead of social relations.
    C. it can reduce the likelihood of the Abilene paradox.
    D. it can lead to an unhealthy agreement among group members.
A

D. it can lead to an unhealthy agreement among group members.

99
Q
  1. The conflict between individual and group goals can lead to ______.
    A. improper group socialization
    B. hidden agendas that disrupt the group’s performance
    C. a breakdown in group norms
    D. an increased need for resocialization
A

B. hidden agendas that disrupt the group’s performance

100
Q
  1. In a study of oil production workers, norms that were counter to “macho” behavior ______.
    A. were rejected by male workers.
    B. helped reduce the company’s accident rate.
    C. reduced productivity.
    D. were accepted only when they came only from workers.
A

B. helped reduce the company’s accident rate.

101
Q
  1. The term equifinality means ______.
    A. people are easily influenced by social norms.
    B. groups can be best understood by studying the individuals in the group.
    C. it is easier to change a group than an individual.
    D. there are many ways for groups to operate successfully
    E. groups can best be understood in the lab
A

D. there are many ways for groups to operate successfully

102
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a problem with group conflict?
    A. It can create strong emotions and stress.
    B. It can steer the team away from the task.
    C. It can hamper creativity.
    D. It can erode cohesion.
A

C. It can hamper creativity.

103
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT affect whether a team effectively identifies a problem?
    A. How well-structured the problem is.
    B. How complex the problem is.
    C. Whether the team itself is impacted by the problem.
    D. Whether there are some constraints to potential solutions.
A

D. Whether there are some constraints to potential solutions.

104
Q
  1. The main reason researchers have found different results when looking at characteristics of successful teams is ______.
    A. they have studied different types of teams.
    B. they have studied unsuccessful teams.
    C. all research has been done in a lab and is therefore biased.
    D. organizations have not allowed researchers to study their employees.
A

A. they have studied different types of teams.

105
Q
  1. The project development perspective suggests that early on the team works on ______.
    A. making sure members know what their roles are.
    B. increasing variety and flexibility of team skills.
    C. developing skills of team members.
    D. establishing rules and social relationships.
A

A. making sure members know what their roles are.

106
Q
  1. According to the positive-psychology perspective on teams, team learning is supported by ______.
    A. strong leadership by a few members
    B. collective intelligence
    C. reflexivity
    D. meeting the emotional needs of team members.
A

C. reflexivity

107
Q
  1. Information over- and underload and confirmation bias affect ______.
    A. problem recognition
    B. problem analysis
    C. problem definition
    D. information integration
A

B. problem analysis

108
Q
  1. Conscientious team members are good to have because they are ______.
    A. social and communicative
    B. task and goal-focused
    C. better at avoiding conflicts.
    D. able to handle stress.
A

B. task and goal-focused

109
Q
  1. Which of the following is an unhealthy source of conflict?
    A. legitimate differences of opinion about the task
    B. differences in values and perspectives
    C. poorly run team meetings.
    D. different expectations about the impact of decisions
A

C. poorly run team meetings.

110
Q
  1. For virtual teams to build trust, establish team identity, and solidify norms, research suggests that ______.
    A. they begin projects with a face-to-face meeting.
    B. team sizes are limited to smaller than face-to-face teams.
    C. teams are leaderless.
    D. teams are staffed with members from the same demographic backgrounds.
A

A. they begin projects with a face-to-face meeting.

111
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a task-related behavior?
    A. expressing acceptance of another group member.
    B. showing recognition toward another group member.
    C. showing encouragement toward another group member.
    D. giving ideas and advice regarding a work assignment
A

D. giving ideas and advice regarding a work assignment

112
Q
  1. The approach to conflict management that involves acting aggressively and trying to win is called ______.
    A. collaboration
    B. competing
    C. avoidance
    D. accommodation
A

B. competing

113
Q
  1. Triplett’s finding that the presence of other people increases performance is called ______.
    A. scientific management
    B. social facilitation
    C. binging
    D. social identification
    E. social representation
A

B. social facilitation

114
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE about types of conflict?
    A. Relationship conflicts have a positive effect on team performance.
    B. Relationship conflicts have a positive effect on team satisfaction.
    C. Task conflict regarding how to perform non-routine tasks has a positive effect on performance.
    D. Process conflicts create disagreements about the allocation of resources.
A

C. Task conflict regarding how to perform non-routine tasks has a positive effect on performance

115
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a source of conflict?
    A. social factors
    B. organizational factors
    C. task factors
    D. individual differences
A

C. task factors

116
Q
  1. The positive psychology perspective on teams focuses upon ______.
    A. task performance
    B. team intelligence
    C. the multiple ways for the team to successfully operate.
    D. team member well-being
A

D. team member well-being

117
Q
  1. The approach to conflict management that tries to ignore issues or denies there is a problem is called ______.
    A. confrontation
    B. avoidance
    C. accommodation
    D. compromise
A

B. avoidance

118
Q
  1. Which of the following components of emotional intelligence refers to the ability to respond to others’ emotions with respect and concern?
    A. relationship management
    B. self-awareness
    C. empathy
    D. emotional regulation
A

A. relationship management

119
Q
  1. Distributing minutes of a meeting helps ______.
    A. decrease disruptive behavior during the meeting.
    B. increase participation during the meeting
    C. keep the meeting on time.
    D. keep members accountable for assigned tasks.
A

D. keep members accountable for assigned tasks.

120
Q
  1. The more power a person has, the more likely they will ______.
    A. try to avoid using their power.
    B. view the less powerful as worthy of respect.
    C. believe they have control over others
    D. try to be socially close with others.
A

C. believe they have control over others

121
Q
  1. A team typically handles decision-making using the following methods EXCEPT ______.
    A. consultative
    B. authoritarian
    C. democratic
    D. consensus
    E. directive
A

directive

122
Q
  1. Individuals may draw upon stereotypes based upon ______ of team members because these are visible traits.
    A. surface-level traits
    B. deep-level traits
    C. personality traits
    D. all of these
A

A. surface-level traits

123
Q
  1. The process of giving employees power and control over their work is called ______.
    A. empowerment
    B. minority influence
    C. anti-obedience
    D. consultative power
A

A. empowerment

124
Q
  1. Role conflict and role ambiguity can result in all of the following EXCEPT ______.
    A. higher levels of stress
    B. decreased satisfaction.
    C. decreased morale.
    D. increased performance.
A

D. increased performance.

125
Q
  1. Which type of team coaching is focused on strategies to improve performance and coordinate roles and tasks among team members?
    A. motivational
    B. consultative
    C. educational
    D. contingent
A

B. consultative

126
Q
  1. Primary criteria for evaluating a decision-making approach are ______.
    A. quality, speed, and acceptance
    B. cost, quality, and acceptance
    C. quality, acceptance, and conflict
    D. resources, time, and quality
A

A. quality, speed, and acceptance

127
Q
  1. Which of the following behaviors of effective teams is part of the transition phase?
    A. identifying and prioritizing goals.
    B. providing feedback about task progress.
    C. providing resources needed to the team
    D. assisting team members with a task
A

A. identifying and prioritizing goals.

128
Q
  1. When leadership functions are performed by various members of a team, it is called ______.
    A. shared leadership
    B. self-direction
    C. self-management
    D. emergent leadership
A

A. shared leadership

129
Q
  1. When possible, teams should use a(n) ______ approach to conflict management.
    A. collaborative
    B. confrontational
    C. avoidant
    D. compromising
A

A. collaborative

130
Q
  1. Qualities that are typically associated with effective leadership are ______.
    A. agentic
    B. communal
    C. feminine
    D. gender neutral
A

A. agentic

131
Q
  1. The lack of conflict in a team can be a sign of a problem because ______.
    A. conflict encourages strong leadership.
    B. members may agree with each other just to avoid conflict.
    C. conflict increases “defensive avoidance.”
    D. conflict enhances a team’s communication network.
A

B. members may agree with each other just to avoid conflict.

132
Q
  1. Compared to a traditional manager, a team leader ______.
    A. has more organizational power and authority
    B. is more likely to handle personnel issues.
    C. is more needed when situations require a change.
    D. handles the administrative tasks of the group.
A

is more needed when situations require a change.

133
Q
  1. Understanding gendered styles in communication may help ______.
    A. teams train their members to adopt the more superior feminine style.
    B. teams train their members to adopt the more superior masculine style
    C. members meet the communication needs of each other.
    D. members change their styles.
A

C. members meet the communication needs of each other.

134
Q
  1. Group decision making is ______ than individual decision making.
    A. of higher quality
    B. slower
    C. always more accepted
    D. quicker
A

B. slower

135
Q
  1. ______ is the most overlooked step in problem solving.
    A. Identification
    B. Evaluation
    C. Implementation
    D. Defining
A

B. Evaluation

136
Q
  1. A(n) ______ is a practical guide to translating a solution into reality and should be a step-by-step approach.
    A. action plan
    B. process map
    C. criteria matrix
    D. force field analysis
A

A. action plan

137
Q
  1. The main approaches to examining how groups solve problems are ______.
    A. descriptive, functional, and prescriptive
    B. consultative, democratic, and consensus
    C. linear, progressive, and iterative
    D. mathematical, verbal, and visual
A

A. descriptive, functional, and prescriptive

138
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a type of team meeting role?
    A. critic
    B. timekeeper
    C. facilitator
    D. scribe
A

A. critic

139
Q
  1. The historical approach to job design that shows the value of using teams in most modern organizations is called ______.
    A. scientific management
    B. sociotechnical systems theory
    C. Hawthorne effect
    D. total quality management
    E. quality of work–life theory
A

B. sociotechnical systems theory

140
Q
  1. What factor has encouraged the trend of empowerment?
    A. organizational downsizing
    B. globalization
    C. the shift toward teamwork
    D. technology
A

C. the shift toward teamwork

141
Q
  1. Criteria used to evaluate solutions include all the following EXCEPT ______.
    A. acceptability
    B. cost-effectiveness
    C. ease of implementation
    D. conflict avoidance
A

D. conflict avoidance

142
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE about effectively virtual meetings?
    A. They should follow most of the guidelines for in-person meetings.
    B. Audio-only meetings should be avoided.
    C. Audio-only meetings allow for multitasking.
    D. They are more effective than in-person meetings.
A

D. They are more effective than in-person meetings.

143
Q
  1. To function correctly, the scientific management approach requires that ______.
    A. managers think and control while workers execute.
    B. managers work alongside workers.
    C. workers perform tasks in teams, without managers present
    D. workers focus more on quality than quantity.
    E. workers perform a variety of complex tasks rather than discrete activities
A

A. managers think and control while workers execute.

144
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an outcome of process mapping?
    A. construction of a shared mental model
    B. Unique knowledge of each team member is made transparent.
    C. greater understanding of forces that support or inhibit change.
    D. team acknowledgment of any deficiencies in their processes
A

C. greater understanding of forces that support or inhibit change.

145
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding emotional intelligence?
    A. It is viewed as part of a team’s communication climate.
    B. It is important only in leaderless teams.
    C. It is related to higher performance.
    D. It can be improved.
A

B. It is important only in leaderless teams.

146
Q
  1. Social behaviors are important for all the below reasons EXCEPT ______.
    A. negative social relationships among team members can decrease cohesion.
    B. negative social relationships among team members can negatively affect performance.
    C. members who like their teammates will try to get the best performance out of them.
    D. members who like their teammates will be less likely to ask them for help
A

D. members who like their teammates will be less likely to ask them for help

147
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT enhance a team’s psychological safety?
    A. Team leaders invite input and feedback.
    B. Teams have a devil’s advocate.
    C. Teams emphasize status differences among members.
    D. Team members are allowed to admit mistakes without expecting punishment
A

C. Teams emphasize status differences among members.

148
Q
  1. Power that is based on one’s liking or admiration for a person is known as ______ power.
    A. expert
    B. legitimate
    C. referent
    D. positional
A

C. referent

149
Q
  1. All the below are characteristics of successful work teams EXCEPT ______.
    A. clear, well-defined goals
    B. leaders who help facilitate but not control the team.
    C. supportive organizational environment
    D. tasks that require little interdependence
A

D. tasks that require little interdependence

150
Q
  1. ______ is the perception that members are free to take interpersonal risks and express their thoughts and feelings without fear of the consequences.
    A. False dichotomy
    B. Confirmation bias
    C. Psychological safety
    D. Provisionalism
A

. Psychological safety

151
Q
  1. Variations of Milgram’s study show that obedience is more likely ______.
    A. when the authority figure had reward or punitive power.
    B. if other participants refused to obey
    C. if the authority figure is viewed as legitimate.
    D. if the authority figure is in another room
A

C. if the authority figure is viewed as legitimate.

152
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE about task and relational conflict?
    A. The two are often related.
    B. Task conflicts often lead to increased relational conflicts.
    C. The two are not at all related.
    D. The two are related only to routine tasks.
A

A. The two are often related.

153
Q
  1. To identify role problems, a team should ______.
    A. make explicit the important roles in the group.
    B. require everyone to hold multiple roles.
    C. emphasize individual over group goals.
    D. assign roles to individual members
A

A. make explicit the important roles in the group.

154
Q
  1. As group members interact, social identification occurs, which refers to ______.
    A. the creation of shared values and beliefs
    B. the recognition that the group exists separately from others.
    C. fulfillment of group or personal goals
    D. achievement of group goals
    E. the creation of rules and order
A

B. the recognition that the group exists separately from others.

155
Q
  1. The style of group decision making where all group members participate and agree to accept the decision is ______.
    A. democratic
    B. consultative.
    C. consensus
    D. normative
A

C. consensus

156
Q
  1. Which of the following decision-making techniques would be MOST appropriate for large groups of people who do not have to meet?
    A. Delphi technique
    B. Ringi technique
    C. nominal group technique
    D. stepladder technique
A

A. Delphi technique

157
Q
  1. The idea that a leader does not treat all followers in the same way is based upon ______.
    A. leadership–member exchange theory
    B. trait theory
    C. contingency theory
    D. dark triad theory
A

A. leadership–member exchange theory

158
Q
  1. ______ explains that people hold prototypes of the characteristics of an effective leader.
    A. Transformation leadership theory
    B. Transactional leadership theory
    C. Implicit leadership theory
    D. Quality-of-communication hypothesis
A

C. Implicit leadership theory

159
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct order of Tuckman’s stages of group development?
    A. storming, forming, performing, norming, adjourning.
    B. forming, storming, performing, norming, adjourning.
    C. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning.
    D. forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning.
A

C. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning.

160
Q
  1. An awareness of the knowledge, skills, and abilities of individual team members refers to the group’s ______.
    A. transactive memory
    B. mental model
    C. group process
    D. cohesion
A

A. transactive memory

161
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an implication of team development stages?
    A. Emotional highs and lows are normal.
    B. All teams undergo the same sequence of stages.
    C. Team development takes time.
    D. Lower task performance may occur while the team undergoes conflict.
A

B. All teams undergo the same sequence of stages.

162
Q
  1. According to the textbook, teams can provide all of the following benefits to organizations EXCEPT ______.
    A. less need for skilled workers
    B. greater operational outcomes
    C. higher financial outcomes
    D. more positive employee outcomes
    E. greater efficiency
A

D. more positive employee outcomes

163
Q
  1. The most effective strategy for moving from a competitive to a cooperative situation requires members ______.
    A. always acting cooperatively.
    B. always acting competitively.
    C. start by acting cooperatively and then respond in kind to the other person’s move
    D. acting cooperatively only if rewarded to do so.
A

C. start by acting cooperatively and then respond in kind to the other person’s move

164
Q
  1. In the process of conversion, minority members are most influential if they are ______.
    A. consistent with their positions
    B. supported by outside groups.
    C. perceived as not being part of the team.
    D. less confident about their positions
A

A. consistent with their positions

165
Q
  1. Team norms are valuable because they ______.
    A. help give members a sense of how they are different from the team
    B. reduce overly predictable behavior by members.
    C. help to define what is appropriate behavior by team members.
    D. make the team less distinctive.
A

C. help to define what is appropriate behavior by team members.

166
Q
  1. Ability of a team to generate alternative solutions depends upon ______.
    A. team climate that fosters open discussion
    B. cost-effectiveness of the alternatives
    C. ease of implementation of the alternatives
    D. acceptability of the alternatives
A

A. team climate that fosters open discussion

167
Q
  1. In designing the new iPhone, Apple starts out by determining its price and size. In doing so, Apple has engaged in ______.
    A. establishing solution criteria.
    B. problem analysis
    C. problem definition
    D. information integration
A

A. establishing solution criteria.

168
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is FALSE about consultative decision making?
    A. The judge is prone to give more weight to their own opinion.
    B. The most influential advisor is not always the most accurate.
    C. It may foster competition among team members.
    D. It takes a lot of time to complete.
A

D. It takes a lot of time to complete.

169
Q
  1. When replacing a few team members, the selection is often based upon ______.
    A. needed task skills.
    B. personality of the team
    C. preferences of the leader
    D. ensuring homogeneity of the current team
A

A. needed task skills.

170
Q
  1. ______ is knowledge about how to operate as a team to complete a task.
    A. Transactive memory
    B. Team mental model
    C. Team adaptation
    D. Role ambiguity
A

B. Team mental model

171
Q
  1. When selecting a(n) ______ tactic, it is important to know the organizational status of the target and the reason for the tactic.
    A. influence
    B. growth support
    C. obedience
    D. power
A
172
Q
  1. What factor enhances team empowerment?
    A. including managers in creating the programs.
    B. organizational centralization
    C. limiting the formality of empowerment programs
    D. quick rollout of empowerment programs
A

A. including managers in creating the programs.

173
Q

. When a group influences its members through implied or actual group pressure, it is called ______.
A. suggestibility
B. conformity
C. obedience
D. minority influence
E. assertiveness

A

B. conformity

174
Q
  1. Research suggests disclosure of personal information in team icebreakers ______.
    A. should be used when the team is demographically diverse
    B. should be used with caution.
    C. always enhances team cohesion.
    D. should never be used.
A

B. should be used with caution.

175
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the three social goals served by communication?
    A. instrumental functions
    B. relationship management functions
    C. interactional management functions
    D. All of these are social goals of communication.
A

D. All of these are social goals of communication.

176
Q
  1. Which trait has NOT been found to be related to leader effectiveness?
    A. aggression
    B. extroversion
    C. emotional intelligence
    D. intelligence
A

A. aggression

177
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE about using AI in decision making?
    A. enables teams to draw from near-infinite amounts of information
    B. fully reduces biases.
    C. Accuracy is greatly enhanced.
    D. Decisions can be made more quickly.
A

B. fully reduces biases.

178
Q
  1. The dark triad of personality traits includes all of the following EXCEPT ______.
    A. narcissism
    B. agreeableness
    C. Machiavellianism
    D. psychopathy
A

B. agreeableness

179
Q
  1. The style of group decision making where the leader has the authority to make the decision but asks for advice from the group is called ______.
    A. democratic
    B. consultative
    C. consensus
    D. normative
A

B. consultative

180
Q
  1. Personal or soft power includes all the following EXCEPT ______.
    A. expert power
    B. referent power
    C. information power
    D. reward power
A

D. reward power

181
Q
  1. Compared to face-to-face teams, ______ is not used as an influence tactic in virtual teams.
    A. pressure
    B. legitimizing
    C. ingratiation
    D. consultation
A

C. ingratiation

182
Q
  1. A team that spends more of its time talking about information that members already believe or agree upon is committing ______.
    A. a dysfunctional bias
    B. a confirmation bias
    C. a transactional communication
    D. a false dichotomy
A

B. a confirmation bias

183
Q
  1. When a team member acts assertively, ______.
    A. other team members often respond with resentment and confusion.
    B. other members are likely to withdraw
    C. they will take a problem-solving approach to issues.
    D. they should then act deferentially to compensate for being forceful.
A

C. they will take a problem-solving approach to issues.

184
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a reason competition within a team often hurts performance?
    A. It creates goal confusion among team members.
    B. It strengthens team cohesion.
    C. It creates distrust among team members.
    D. It reduces communication within a team.
A

B. It strengthens team cohesion.

185
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE about the solution orientation path to team problem solving?
    A. It is part of the descriptive approach.
    B. It is part of the prescriptive approach.
    C. It tends to result in solutions that are inadequate.
    D. It bypasses a deep understanding of the problem.
A

B. It is part of the prescriptive approach

186
Q
  1. Research on work teams shows that clear project goals ______.
    A. help improve team performance and internal team processes.
    B. led to greater conflict.
    C. are not possible without a team leader.
    D. are the same as the team’s mission statement.
A

A. help improve team performance and internal team processes.

187
Q
  1. According to the punctuated equilibrium model, teams should focus on task strategy at ______.
    A. the beginning of the team’s development
    B. the midpoint crisis
    C. continually as members work together.
    D. the storming stage
A

B. the midpoint crisis

188
Q
  1. Intergroup competition results in all the following EXCEPT ______.
    A. decreased focus of the group on its task.
    B. increased prejudices and negative beliefs about the other group
    C. reduced ability of the group to act creatively.
    D. increased conflicts between the groups.
A

A. decreased focus of the group on its task.

189
Q
  1. Research at Google on the effects of team norms showed that ______.
    A. teams performed better when there were strong norms of conformity
    B. team performance was predicted by norms of psychological safety.
    C. norms did not exist when there was strong leadership.
    D. norms reduced conformity.
A

B. team performance was predicted by norms of psychological safety

190
Q

. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of group conflict?
A. Conflict can help a team make better decisions.
B. Conflict can help a team overcome obstacles that prevent progress.
C. Conflict can encourage a team to explore new problem-solving approaches.
D. Conflict can encourage a team to confirm its prior beliefs.

A

D. Conflict can encourage a team to confirm its prior belief

191
Q
  1. Which of the following situations do NOT warrant using a group to make a decision?
    A. Team members all hold unique information.
    B. Problem is complex.
    C. Team members all have the same information.
    D. Problem is ill-structured.
A

C. Team members all have the same information.

192
Q
  1. What is the minimum requirement for an empowerment program?
    A. allowing employees to hire their future coworkers.
    B. giving employees reward power.
    C. sharing information.
    D. control over work processes
A

C. sharing information.

193
Q
  1. Conflicts are more likely to occur in virtual teams because ______.
    A. such teams have more members.
    B. there is less anonymity.
    C. miscommunication is more likely to occur.
    D. such teams have more diverse members
A

C. miscommunication is more likely to occur.

194
Q
  1. In a lower power distance culture, such as the United States, individuals prefer decision making to be more ______.
    A. participatory
    B. autocratic
    C. individual based.
    D. quick
A

A. participatory

195
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE about the aggregation of individual preferences without interactions between team members?
    A. It is well suited for making estimations.
    B. It is well suited for deciding among a set of discrete alternatives.
    C. Team members should indicate their individual preferences independent of each other.
    D. It requires a great deal of cognitive but not social effort.
A

D. It requires a great deal of cognitive but not social effort.

196
Q
  1. A team charter does all of the following EXCEPT ______.
    A. helps the team manage its activities.
    B. helps clarify role expectations and work norms.
    C. helps the team to identify and resolve conflicts and misunderstandings.
    D. establishes how members are evaluated.
A

D. establishes how members are evaluated.

197
Q
  1. Groups are different from teams because of the ______.
    A. groups are typically work-related while teams are sports-related.
    B. teams are typically larger than groups.
    C. teams involve greater interaction and coordination among members to achieve a common goal
    D. teams are more hierarchical than groups.
    E. teams have a leader whereas groups do not
A

. teams involve greater interaction and coordination among members to achieve a common goal

198
Q
  1. Which of the following is a tactic to avoid groupthink?
    A. Pressure the team to make decisions as quickly as possible.
    B. The team should refrain from gathering input from external sources.
    C. Leaders should share their ideas after team members have shared theirs.
    D. Members’ areas of expertise should be disregarded during decision making.
A

C. Leaders should share their ideas after team members have shared theirs.

199
Q
  1. One of the strongest predictors of group cohesion is ______.
    A. authoritarian leadership
    B. team diversity
    C. team conflict
    D. team success
A

D. team success

200
Q
  1. Teams are typically better than the sum of individual efforts for tasks that ______.
    A. are easily divisible.
    B. focus on maximizing output.
    C. consist of additive efforts.
    D. generate a solution representative of the team’s product.
A

C. consist of additive efforts.

201
Q
  1. Defensive communication climates in groups tend to ______.
    A. have a problem orientation that emphasizes presenting the facts.
    B. encourage spontaneity.
    C. encourage empathy.
    D. decrease productivity and cohesion
A

D. decrease productivity and cohesion

202
Q
  1. According to the social facilitation effect, a person will run ______ when ______.
    A. faster; other people are around.
    B. faster; by himself or herself
    C. slower; other people are around.
    D. faster; she or he will receive a reward.
A

A. faster; other people are around.

203
Q
  1. A solution for the many challenges of virtual teams is to ______.
    A. focus only on tasks instead of social relations
    B. increase communication
    C. make tasks less interdependent.
    D. decrease the number of meetings.
A

B. increase communication

204
Q
  1. The basic problem with the trait approach to leadership is ______.
    A. the newness of this theory
    B. the lack of scientific research
    C. the inability to define traits.
    D. that leaders successful in one situation are not necessarily successful in another
A

D. that leaders successful in one situation are not necessarily successful in another

205
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding the development of group norms?
    A. They develop unconsciously and gradually over time.
    B. They are developed only when there are external pressures.
    C. They are created by mutual influence and develop through interactions of group members.
    D. They are strongly influenced by events early in the group’s existence
A

they are developed only when there are external pressures.

206
Q
  1. The use of an outside mediator to search for an integrative resolution ______.
    A. is helpful only when issues have not become very emotional.
    B. is helpful only when there is trust between the conflicting parties
    C. focuses only on the emotional aspects of the conflict.
    D. helps control communications to ensure courtesy and respectful expression of views
A

D. helps control communications to ensure courtesy and respectful expression of views

207
Q
  1. When groups are in the forming stage, they should focus more on ______ behaviors.
    A. social
    B. task
    C. both social and task
    D. role
A

A. social

208
Q
  1. Group members who define success not in terms of their individual goals or the group’s goals but rather relative to others’ performance are ______.
    A. competitors
    B. Machiavellians
    C. individualists
    D. cooperators
    E. extroverts
A

A. competitors

209
Q
  1. ______ refers to an environment in which people feel free to express their thoughts and feelings.
    A. Physical safety
    B. Social safety
    C. Psychological safety
    D. Group safety
A

C. Psychological safety

210
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a major reason why people act competitively in teams?
    A. cultural differences
    B. personality differences
    C. differences in team size
    D. differences in organizational rewards
A

C. differences in team size

211
Q
  1. Teams evaluate their ability to succeed by ______.
    A. examining the complexity of the task and temporal resources.
    B. weighing costs and benefits of working together or individually.
    C. weighing demands of the task and rewards given.
    D. examining their personal resources and ability to work together
A

D. examining their personal resources and ability to work together

212
Q
  1. Team success is more than just completing a task successfully because ______.
    A. most tasks are performed better by individuals.
    B. success on team tasks is difficult to measure.
    C. members should want to continue working together
    D. teams are valuable when events are predictable
A

C. members should want to continue working together

213
Q
  1. The main criteria used to measure team success are ______.
    A. task completion, social relations, and individual benefit
    B. task speed, quality, and accuracy
    C. social relations, team maintenance, and viability
    D. individual success, team success, and organizational success
    E. none of these
A

A. task completion, social relations, and individual benefit

214
Q
  1. In an airline flight crew, an understanding of the different roles of crew members refers to it ______.
    A. transactive memory
    B. mental model
    C. group process
    D. cohesion
A

B. mental model

215
Q
  1. When group members put concern for the group’s social relations ahead of their desire to make a good decision, then the group is likely to suffer from ______.
    A. group polarization
    B. groupthink
    C. risky shift phenomenon
    D. Ringi effect
A

B. groupthink

216
Q
  1. Kipnis (1976) documents a cycle of power that shows ______.
    A. the positive effect of power on organizations
    B. the corrupting nature of power
    C. diminishing power for those who have power.
    D. an equalizing of power in virtual teams
A

B. the corrupting nature of power

217
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about cooperation is FALSE?
    A. Cooperation helps to motivate most team members.
    B. Cooperative situations reduce the performance of high performers.
    C. Conflict management impacts the benefits of cooperation.
    D. Cooperation encourages team members to help each other.
A

B. Cooperative situations reduce the performance of high performers.

OBHR 668 (1 decks)

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