Mid-term #2 Flashcards

Credibility assessment, eyewitness memory, and problem solving courts

1
Q

What did Ekman and O’Sullivan find about different professions and detecting lies?

A

that forensic psychiatrists, customs agents, FBI agents, and judges all performed at chance level; while US Secret Service agents performed better then chance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What did Vrig find regarding detecting truths and lies?

A

we are better at judging truthful claims than we are at detecting when people are lying; there are subtle nuance differences between when people are lying vs telling the truth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

we are typically… in our detectability

A

overconfident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

most lie catchers have a…

A

truth bias (believe people are telling the truth more than they are)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what do training programs do for credibility assessment?

A

expand people’s capacities to detect multiple cues and triangulate them, but are not a fool proof science

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are polygraphs based off?

A

the belief that deception is related to physiological changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what do polygraphs measure? (3)

A

respiration, heart rate, sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how does a polygraph measure?

A

a device attached to the chest, fingertips, and a half inflated cuff on the arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

a polygraph is not a…

A

lie detector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a polygraph bets on…

A

guilty individuals demonstrating larger psychological changes than innocent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the uses of the polygraph? (4)

A
  1. helps in criminal investigations
  2. verify a crime has occurred
  3. monitoring sexual offenders on probation
  4. pre-employment screening for police
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the two types of polygraph tests?

A
  1. Comparison Question Test (CQT)
  2. Concealed Information Tests (CIT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the 3 types of questions asked in the CQT?

A

Irrelevant (used to obtain a baseline), Relevant (deals with the crime), and Comparisons (deals with prior antisocial behaviour)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how is deception assessed in the CQT?

A

by comparing the psychological responses between the relevant and comparison questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the 4 phases of the CQT?

A
  1. Pre-tests interview
  2. Polygraph exam
  3. Scoring
  4. Post-test interview
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

explain the pre-test interview of the CQT

A

an interview with suspect to develop comparison questions; gathers information and establishes a base like with irrelevant questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

explain the polygraph exam in the CQT

A

questions are asked while suspects physiological responses are measured; guilty people react more strongly to relevant questions vs comparison questions due to guilt and innocent people react more strongly to comparison questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

explain scoring in the CQT

A

polygraph examiner scores the physiological responses to determine if the suspect is truthful, deceptive, or inconclusive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

explain post-test interview in the CQT

A

if a suspect is judged deceptive, they are pressured to confess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the CIT formally known as?

A

guilty knowledge test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does the CIT assess?

A

if suspect has information that only the criminal would know

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how does the CIT work?

A

asks suspects multiple choice questions, one option is correct; assumes if the suspect is guilty, they will react strongly to correct information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Filed studies of polygraph tests include:

A

real-life situations and actual suspects; ground truth is not known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

laboratory studies of polygraph tests include:

A

ground truth is known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

research findings of the CQT

A

most guilty suspects correctly identified; didn’t produce high numbers of identifying false guilt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Research findings of accuracy of CIT

A

very accurate at identifying innocent participants; slightly less accurate at identifying guilty participants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

complications of the CQT?

A

both physical and mental countermeasures dramatically reduce the effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

complications of the CIT?

A

not effected by anti-anxiety drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The polygraph did not pass the…

A

General acceptance test when first admitted as evidence in court (Frye v. US 1923)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Is the polygraph admissible into evidence in Canadian courts?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are 3 other physiological credibility assessment measures?

A

Thermal imaging, Event-related brain potentials (ERP), and Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

explain thermal imaging

A

detects facial warming due to blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

explain event-related brain potentials (ERP)

A

electrodes measure brain activity in response to significant stimulus (used to detect guilty knowledge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Explain functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

A

measures differences in brain activity when people are being honest vs deceptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the single most salient reason for wrongful convictions?

A

giving wrong eyewitness testimonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the taxonomy of witness errors?

A

errors in:
1. clothing or physical attributes of perp
2. environmental details
3. perps race of sex
4. weapon errors
5. inferential, extrapolative, or imaginative errors (what they were probably wearing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the two ways eyewitness can err

A
  1. by failing to identify the guilty
  2. by falsely identifying the innocent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

who said ‘justice would less often miscarry if all who are to weigh evidence were more conscious of the teachery of human memory’?

A

Hugo Munsterburg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the different stages of memory process?

A
  1. Memory
  2. Attention and Retention
  3. Storage
  4. Short-term memory/ long-term memory
  5. Retrieval
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the two types of memory retrieval?

A
  1. Recall Memory
  2. Recognition Memory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Explain Recall Memory

A

reporting details of a previously witnessed event/person (open-ended and no explicate cues)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Explain Recognition Memory

A

Determining whether what is currently being viewed/heard is the same thing as the previously witnessed item/person (matching things up, relies on retrieval of what occurred)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how can recognition memory be influenced?

A

the amount of time they had to scan the environment and by hearing others describe the situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Explain the Landmark Study (John Yuille and Judith Cutshall)

A

Studied memory for witnessed murder/attempted murder (generally remained accurate, detailed, and resistant to effect of misinformation and showed that memories for violent things can be quite enduring)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are the 2 types of variable influencing eyewitness memory (Gary Wells)

A
  1. System variables
  2. Estimator variables
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Explain System Variables

A

can be manipulated to increases or decreased eyewitness accuracy (the way you were interviewed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Explain Estimator Variables

A

present at the time of the crime and cannot be changed (environmental factors and within-the-person variables)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the 2 forms of recall of the crime

A
  1. Open-ended recall/free narrative
  2. Direct questions recall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Explain Open-ended recall/Free narrative recall

A

witnesses are asked to recount what they witnessed without be prompted (better accuracy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Explain Direct question recall

A

witnesses are asked specific questions about the event/culprit (more room for bias and produces more errors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are some ways police officers may impeded the interview process?

A
  1. interrupting witness free recall
  2. repeatedly asking the same questions
  3. ask short, specific questions
  4. allowing one witness to overhear the responses to the other witness
52
Q

What is lineup identification?

A

witnesses are asked to identify a culprit from a lineup

53
Q

how does lineup identification work?

A

lineups contain the suspect (may be guilty or not) who is placed among a set of individuals who are known to be innocent for the crime in questions (foils or distractors)

54
Q

what is a simultaneous lineup?

A

a common lineup procedure that presents all lineup members at one time to the witness

55
Q

what is a sequential lineup?

A

lineup members are presented serially to the witness

56
Q

what is a show up (lineup)?

A

only suspect is shown to the witness

57
Q

what is a walk-by (lineup)?

A

witness is taken to a public location where the suspect is likely to be (not common)

58
Q

what is relative judgment? (lineup)

A

comparing lineup members to one another and choosing who most looks like the culprit

59
Q

what is absolute judgment (lineup)?

A

each member is compared to the culprit individually outside of a lineup

60
Q

what are biased lineups?

A

suggests who the police suspect and thereby who the witness should identify

61
Q

what is unconscious transference?

A

showing the witness a picture of a suspect prior to the lineup and then including that suspect in the lineup (witness will identify them because of their prior exposure)

62
Q

what are the 3 types of biases that increase false identification in lineups?

A
  1. Foil bias
  2. Clothing bias
  3. Instruction bias
63
Q

explain foil bias

A

using particular distinguishable characteristics (put one one person of a different race in a lineup of foils all consisting of the same race)

64
Q

explain clothing bias

A

have the suspect wearing different clothes than the foils (foils should be wearing similar things to the suspect in order to eliminate the clothing bias)

65
Q

explain Instruction bias

A

witness is not told that the real suspect might not be in the lineup therefore pressuring them to select someone even if it is incorrect

66
Q

What helps for greater accuracy in voice identification?

A

longer voice samples

67
Q

what are the 6 factors associated with decreased voice identification?

A
  1. whispering
  2. disguising the voice
  3. unfamiliar accents
  4. placing the target voice near the end of the lineup
  5. showing the face along with the voice
  6. using a larger number of foils
68
Q

due to the Law Reform Commission of Canada, emphasis was shifted onto…

A

instructing the jury due to the procedures not always being followed

69
Q

do mock-jurors appear sensitive to inflated confidence?

A

no

70
Q

what can confidence be modified with?

A

post-identification feedback

71
Q

what are system variables?

A

after the event and can be addressed by the CJS

72
Q

what are Estimator Variables?

A

present at the time of the crime and cannot be changed; environmental and within person

73
Q

what is the Cross Race Effect?

A

the idea that we are better at identifying faces of people of our own race

74
Q

what is inter racial contact? (cross-race effect)

A

different racial backgrounds have less contact and therefore. less experience to make facial recognition

75
Q

what is attitudes (cross-race effect)

A

the ideas of more positive attitudes towards people of different races when you spend more fine coding and getting to know those races and vice versa

76
Q

explain Encoding Time (cross-race effect)

A

the longer we have to encode faces of people of other races, the more profound out cognitive processing will be and the more we’ll be able to differentiate faces of those outside of our race

77
Q

what did Porter and Peace find about traumatic memory?

A

trauma impairs memory process (suppress and repress)

78
Q

what percentage of complete memories can be implanted?

A

20-26%

79
Q

memory for traumatic events are usually intact for…

A

central details of the experience

80
Q

What is ‘weapon focus’ in the role of estimator variables?

A

the phenomenon of as witness’ attention being focused on the weapon rather than on the culprit

81
Q

what is the Cue-utilization hypothesis?

A

in presence of a weapon our physiological arousal increases, this leads to a narrowing process that occurs and continues to narrow significantly which can screen our relevant details

82
Q

what is the Unusualness hypothesis?

A

idea that we don’t frequently see weapons so they’re especially salient to use so they distract us from other stimuli in the environment

83
Q

who is Thomas Sophonow?

A

A man who was sentenced to prison for the murder of Barbara Stoppel due to an eyewitness changing details and information during their recount of the crime; further research found that the eyewitness was possibly traumatized by the event, leading to the wrong recount of the crime

84
Q

What 4 things came from the Sophonow Case?

A
  1. the lineup procedure should be taped
  2. officers should inform witnesses of the importance of also clearing innocent suspects
  3. photo lineup should be presented sequentially
  4. officers should not discuss a witness’ identification with that witness
85
Q

What are the 9 steps of the best practice eyewitness identification guidelines

A
  1. Pre-lineup interview
  2. Evidence-based suspicion
  3. Double-blind procedures
  4. Lineup fillers
  5. Pre-lineup instructions
  6. Immediate confidence statement
  7. Video-recording
  8. Avoid repeated misidentification
  9. Show-ups
86
Q

explain the pre-lineup interview

A

before presenting lineup, the officers should interview the witness to see if there was anything that may interfere

87
Q

explain evidence-based suspicion

A

people should not be a suspect in the lineup unless there is evidence they did the crime

88
Q

explain double-blind procedures

A

lineup administrator or eyewitness should not know who the suspect is

89
Q

explain lineup fillers

A

1 suspect, 5 fillers

90
Q

explain Pre-lineup instructions

A

specific instructions: including that the suspect may not be there and its okay to say you don’t know

91
Q

when does the immediate confidence statement occur?

A

after the lineup

92
Q

explain avoid repeated misidentification

A

even if the eyewitness doesn’t identify the first time, they should not be shown the same person a second time

93
Q

explain show-ups

A

suspect is presented by themselves and not in a lineup

94
Q

what is the Post-Event Misinformation effect?

A

occurs when a witness is provided with inaccurate information about an event after it is witnessed, and incorporates the misinformation into their late recall

95
Q

do words matter in witness testimonies?

A

yes, wording of questions influences how the witness think of their memory

96
Q

does memory work like a recording device?

A

no!

97
Q

what are the 3 theories of the misinformation effect?

A
  1. Misinformation acceptance hypothesis
  2. Source misattribution hypothesis
  3. Memory impairment hypothesis
98
Q

explain the misinformation acceptance hypothesis

A

witness tries to give the investigator what they want to hear

99
Q

explain the source misattribution hypothesis

A

witness has both accurate memory and inaccurate memory but are not sure which is which

100
Q

explain the memory impairment hypothesis

A

our memories become altered or replaced with new ones so the original memory is no longer there

101
Q

Is information obtained under hypnosis admissible in court?

A

not usually

102
Q

what is Hypnosis used for?

A

facilitate retrieval of memories, but may or may not be accurate

103
Q

What were some basic interviewing strategies found by Fisher?

A
  1. slow down rate of questioning
  2. tailor questions to the individual witness
  3. witness-centred interview
104
Q

What are the goals of the Step-Wise Interview?

A
  1. minimize the trauma for witness or victim
  2. maximize amount of quality information
  3. minimize any contamination of collected info
  4. maintain the integrity of the investigation process
105
Q

Credibility assessment is…

A

evaluation of whether a person has lied deliberately or mistakenly and/or omitted information

106
Q

what are some non-verbal behavioural cues of deception?

A
  1. blinking
  2. pupil dilation
  3. chin raises
  4. pressed lips
  5. facial pleasantness
  6. cooperativeness
  7. fidgeting
107
Q

what are some verbal cues to decpetion?

A
  1. voice pitch
  2. speech errors (repetition)
  3. talk time
  4. speech pauses
  5. speech fillers (ah, um)
108
Q

what are some content cues that are indicative of honesty?

A
  1. make spontaneous corrections
  2. admit to lack of memory/forgetting
109
Q

what are some content cues indicative of deception?

A
  1. little detail
  2. repetition of detail
  3. word and phrase repetition
110
Q

what is therapeutic jurisprudence?

A

a philosophical shift from traditional court to facilitate behaviour change via proper services

111
Q

what are the 2 goals of Therapeutic Jurisprudence?

A
  1. minimize anti-therapeutic effects
  2. increase the laws therapeutic potential
112
Q

what is restorative justice?

A

emphasis on holding the offender accountable while also restoring the harm they caused to the victim and community

113
Q

Where was the first DV court?

A

Florida

113
Q

what are the two common features of problem solving courts?

A
  1. a dedicated legal team
  2. non-legal professionals who can coordinate services for each case
113
Q

what are the 4 types of problem solving courts?

A
  1. Drug treatment court
  2. Mental health court
  3. Domestic violence court
  4. Community court
113
Q

clients of mental health courts were found…

A

criminally responsible

113
Q

what are problem solving courts designed for?

A

to solve specific social problems

113
Q

where was the first MHC?

A

Florida

113
Q

what are some positives that came form MHC?

A
  1. decreases time spent in jail
  2. increases time before re-offence
  3. reduction in # of arrests
  4. fewer self-reported acts of violence
  5. improved independent functioning and substance use
113
Q

where did Mental health courts come from?

A

the deinstitutionalization movement

113
Q
A
113
Q

Are DV courts voluntary?

A

often mandatory

113
Q

what do critics says about PS courts?

A
  1. they are not needed
  2. unfair to participants
113
Q

court structure of DV courts

A
  1. arraigned
  2. legal advice
  3. guilty plea
  4. assessment
  5. monitoring
  6. sentencing
113
Q

what is the RNR model?

A

Risk (who you could treat)
Need (what you should focus on)
Responsivity (how you should accomplish it)