Mid term Flashcards
(234 cards)
1
Q
What is the secondary regulator of cross bridge cycling and may also control the length of the thin filament with tropomyosin?
A
Caldesmon
2
Q
What works with tropomyosin and also is a secondary regulator of the crossbridge cycle?
A
Calponin
3
Q
Tropomyosin works with ________, to INCREASE the activity of myosin ATPase?
A
Calponin
4
Q
Tropomyosin works with _________, to decrease the rate of contraction?
A
Caldesmon
5
Q
How much myosin is found in smooth muscle compared to skeletal muscle?
A
about 1/4
6
Q
Nitriic oxide synthase splits _________ into ________ and _________
A
Arginine; NO; Citrulline
7
Q
NO is an __________ and acts via the ___________ mechanism
A
Inhibitor; cGMP
8
Q
Prostacyclin (PGI2) is derived from arachidonic acid via what enzyme?
A
cyclo-oxygenase
9
Q
This neurotransmitters is hypothesized to be the major vasodilator and works by opening K+ channels, allowing it to leave the cell, thus hyperpolarizing the cell and preventing contraction
A
EDHF (endothelial derived hyperpolarizing factor)
10
Q
This receptor only binds ET-1
A
ET-A receptor
11
Q
This receptor binds all 3 endothelins
A
ET-B receptor
12
Q
Explain the cascade that happens after ET-1 binds the ET-A receptor
A
1) Activation of G proteins
2) Production of PKC and IP3
3) release of Ca from the smooth muscle S.R.
4) Contraction of smooth muscle
13
Q
What kind of effects are caused by an endothelin binding to an ET-B receptor?
A
trophic effects
14
Q
neurotransmitters are released from what structures on the neuron when communicating with smooth muscle
A
varicosities
15
Q
Adenosine causes what?
A
relaxation
16
Q
Blood vessels arise from coalescence of hemangioblasts which aris from blood islands (large blood vessels develop this way)
A
Vasculogenesis
17
Q
Vessel formation via branches arising from existing vessels
A
angiogenesis
18
Q
Early vasulogenesis (week 3) begins where then formation moves where?
A
extraembryonic mesoderm around the yolk sack; lateral plate mesoderm
19
Q
These cells are what are inside the blood islands and can differentiate into 2 populations of cells?
A
hemangioblasts
20
Q
What 2 populations can hemangioblasts become?
A
Endothelial cells (angioblasts) hematopoietic stem cells
21
Q
What causes the mesoderm cells to initially start to divide?
-this makes it a mitogen
A
FGF2
22
Q
VEGF binds to VEGF-R2 (Flk1) to cause hemangioblasts to become what?
A
hemangioblasts (homatopoetic stem cells)
23
Q
VEGF binds to VEGF-R1 (Flt1) to cause what?
A
hemangioblasts to become the tube (angioblasts)
24
Q
What signals to express VEGF, which upregulates the VEGF receptor FLK1?
A
HOXB5
25
What induces loss of contact of endothelial cells with the extracellular matrix, resulting in either the absence of growth or death of endothelial cells? (destroys an area of the wall to allow a branch to bud off)
Ang2
26
What recruits periendothelial cells to come into newly forming vessel and make smooth muscle cells?
Ang1
27
What is used to develop and shape capillary beds appropriately?
EPCs (endothelial progenitor cells)
28
What, besides HOX genes, upregulates VEGF?
SHH
29
What pathway does VEGF work through?
Notch pathway
30
Notch pathway specifies arterial development through expression of what?
ephrinB2 ligand
31
What specific gene controls venous development?
EPHB4
32
What is the master gene for lymphatic vessel differentiation?
PROX1
33
Once the embryo is big enough to actually make thing inside it (end of first month), the fetus takes over production of blood cells where?
Aorta-gonad-mesonephros region (AGM)
| -where primitive kidneys are forming
34
What takes over for the AGM to do hematopoiesis? (2-7 months)?
Liver
35
After 7 months, what takes over for the liver in doing hematopoiesis?
bone marrow
36
Abnormally dense collection of capillaries with an incidence of about 10%?
hemangioma
37
Superficial and deep dilated capillaries in the skin?
Naevus flammeus (Port wind stain)
38
What layer of the heart is a functional syncytium of striated cardiac muscle fibers forming 3 major types of cardiac muscle: atrial muscle, ventricular muscles, and specialized excitatory and conductive muscle fibers
myocardium
39
What are the specialized cells that regulate contraction of the heart (sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node)?
Nodal cells
40
What specialized cardiomyocyte produces atrial natriuretic factor?
myoendocrine cells
41
What does atrial natriuretic factor do?
stimulates both diuresis and excretion of sodium in urine by increasing the glomerular filtration rate, reduces blood volume
42
What layer of blood vessels contains vasa vasorum and nervi vasorum?
tunica adventitia
43
What vessels are regarded as the major determinants of systemic blood pressure?
arterioles
44
There are 3 kinds of capillaries, Continuous, Fenestrated, and Sinusoids. Where are fenestrated capillaries found?
GI and kidneys
45
Where are sinusoids (discontinuous capillaries) found?
Liver and spleen
46
How much actin is in smooth muscle compared to skeletal muscle?
twice as much
47
What ligament support the sternocostal joint?
Anterior radiate sternocostal ligament
48
What binds the costovertebral joint?
Radiate Ligament
49
What ligament goes from the crest of the head of the rib and stretches to the intervertebral disk?
Intraarticular ligament
50
What ligament binds a rib to the transverse process of the vertebra above it?
Superior costotransverse ligament
51
What ligament binds the rib to the same number vertebra transverse process?
Lateral costotransverse Ligament
52
Where does the intercostal neurovascular bundle run?
bt internal and innermost intercostal muscles
53
Referring to their relationship to pulmonary segments, arteries are _________ while veins are _________.
INTRAsegmental; INTERsegmental
54
What nerves can be involved in lung cancer?
- Phrenic nerve
- Vagus nerve
- Recurrent Laryngeal nerve
55
What 2 cell types synthesize triacylglycerides?
hepatocytes and adipocytes
56
Dietary TAGs are broken down into what in the intestinal lumen?
- free fatty acids
| - 2-monoacylglycerol
57
Fatty acids need to be tagged with CoA in the intestinal cell in order to undergo reactions. What enzyme facilitates the tagging leading to Fatty acyl CoA?
Fatty Acyl CoA synthetase
58
Fatty acyl CoA combines with what to form Diacylglycerol (DAG)?
2-monoacylglycerol
59
TAGs in the intestinal cells are tagged with what?
apolipoproteins and other lipids
60
The TAGs from intestinal cells are packed into a lipoprotein called what?
chylomicron
61
What are the 2 sources of glycerol in hepatocytes?
free glycerol and glucose
62
Enzyme that is only in hepatocytes and converts glycerol to glycerol 3-P
Glycerol kinase
63
Enzyme that converts dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) to Glycerol 3-P in hepatocytes after glucose undergoes glycolysis to form the DHAP?
glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
64
What lipoprotein is made in the liver?
Very Low Density Lipoproteins (VLDL)
65
What enzyme is released from the adipocytes, lines the capillaries, and breaks down TAGs from chylomicrons and VLDLs to form Glycerol and fatty acids to form TAGs within the adipocytes?
capillary lipoprotein lipase
66
What is the source of Glycerol in adipocytes?
Glucose
67
Adipocytes don't release their TAGs as lipoproteins. Instead they do what?
Store them
68
What affect does insulin have on adipocytes? 2 things
- stimulation of capillary lipoprotein lipase
| - increased activity of GLUT4 glucose transporter
69
Breakdown of TGs occurs where?
adipocytes
70
What enzyme inside the adipocytes catalyzes the breakdown of TAGs into a free fatty acid and DAG?
hormone-sensitive lipase
71
What hormones stimulate activation of hormone-sensitive lipase?
- Glucagon
- epinephrine
- norepiniphrine
72
What inactivates hormone-sensitive lipase?
insulin
73
Short chain fatty acids released from adipocytes can freely travel through the blood. What happens to longer chain fatty acids?
They get carried by albumin
74
DAGs are broken down into fatty acid and MAGs by what enzyme?
lipoprotein lipase
75
MAGs are broken down into fatty acids and glycerol by what enzyme?
monoacylglycerol lipase
76
Explain the molecular steps involved in activating hormone-sensitive lipase.
1) Glucagon and epinephrine activate PKA via cAMP and GPCR cascade
2) phosphorylated PKA activates hormone sensitive lipase
77
Describe the inactivation of hormone sensitive lipase by insulin.
- insulin activates protein phosphatase 1 (PP1)
| - PP1 dephosphorylates hormone senstitive lipase-inactivation
78
What protein coats lipid droplets in adipocytes and muscle cells and regulates lipolysis by controlling physical access of HSL and can be a target to treat obesity?
perilipin
79
What regulates perilipins?
PKA phosphorylates them to make them leave the lipid droplets
80
Synthetic fat made of sucrose backbone with 6-8 fatty acids
- no calories
- no absorbed
- absorbs vitamins (can cause deficiencies)
- cramps, bloating, diarrhea
Olestra
81
What enzyme adds a fatty acid to cholesterol to form cholesterol ester?
acyl CoA acyl Transferase (ACAT)
82
What is the purpose of creating cholesterol esters?
makes is so hydrophobic that it can't be part of the membrane anymore so it is packed in the core of the lipoprotein in droplets
83
Chylomicron properties
- largest
- least dense
- high TAG content
84
apoproteins on chylomicrons
- ApoB-48
- ApoC-II
- ApoE
85
Apoproteins for VLDLs
- ApoB-100
- ApoC-II
- ApoE
86
Apoproteins for IDLs
- ApoB-100
| - ApoE
87
Apoproteins for LDLs
ApoB-100
88
What Apoprotein acts as a cofactor for capillary lipoprotein lipase?
ApoC-II
89
Why are LDLs bad?
highest density of cholesterol and can form plaques in blood
90
Apoproteins for HDL
- ApoA-1
- ApoC-II
- ApoE
91
HDL properties
- Smallest
- Most dense
- High protein and phospholipid content
92
Type 1 hyperlipoproteinemia (familial hyperchylomicronemia) is caused by what and has what effects?
Cause: Deficiency in ApoC-II or defective lipoprotein lipase
Effect: increased chylomicrons
increased TAGs
93
Type II hyperlipoproteinemia (familial hypercholesterolemia) is caused by what and has what effects?
Cause: LDL receptor is completely (IIa) or partially (IIb) defective
Effects: increased cholesterol
increased TAG (IIb), normal TAG in IIa
increased LDL
increased VLDL (IIb)
94
A nascent chylomicron contains what apoproteins?
ApoB-48
95
A nascnet chylomicron gets what Apoproteins added by HDLs to form mature chylomicrons?
- ApoC-II
| - ApoE
96
What enzyme cleaves ApoE, along with glycerol and fatty acids from IDL to form LDLs?
hepatic lipoprotein lipase
97
Statins block the rate limiting step of cholesterol biosynthesis which is catalyzed by what enzyme?
HMG-CoA reductase
98
What space allows cardiac surgeons to access the area posterior to the aorta and pulmonary trunk to clamp or insert the tubes of a bypass machine into these large vessels?
Transverse Pericardial sinus
99
What are the two terminating branches of the internal thoracic A.?
- Superior Epigastric A.
| - Musculophrenic A.
100
What artery off of the internal thoracic A. runs with the phrenic nerve?
Pericardiacophrenic A
101
Name the Paired Lateral Visceral Branches of the Thoracic Aorta
Bronchial Arteries
102
Name the unpaired visceral branches off the thoracic aorta
- Mediastinal A.
- Esophageal A.
- Pericardial A.
103
Name the paired segmental parietal branches off the thoracic aorta
- Posterior Intercostal A.
| - Subcostal A.
104
Lateral mammary arteries can come from what two sources?
- Lateral Thoracic A.
| - Lateral cutaneous branches of posterior intercostal A.
105
What cardiac veins empty directly into the right atrium?
Anterior cardiac V.
106
The posterior vagal trunk comes mostly from what?
Right vagus nerve (anterior vagal trunk from left Vagus nerve)
107
Where does the phrenic nerve run, in relationship to the pericardium?
between fibrous pericardium and parietal pleura
108
What are the Atypical intercostal nerves?
1 (brachial plexus)
2 (intercostobrachial nerve)
7th-11th (turn into thoracoabdominal nerves)
109
The vagus nerve enters the thorax through what?
superior thoracic aperture
110
How does the sympathetic nervous system affect non-sweat gland glandular secretion?
Indirectly through vasoconstriction
111
What arteries do not get vasocontricted by the sympathetic nervous system?
Coronary Arteries
112
Name the 4 Prevertebral ganglia?
- Celiac ganglion
- Superior mesenteric ganglion
- Aorticorenal ganglion
- Inferior mesenteric ganglion
113
Epinephrine is produced by what cells?
Chromaffin cells
114
Explain sympathetic activation of the eyes
1) alpha-adrenergic receptors of RADIAL muscles make it contract and dilate pupil letting more light in
2) BETA-2-adrenergic receptors of ciliary muscles of lens relax muscle causing flattening and can see distance better
115
Explain sympathetic activation of the heart
1)Beta-1 and 2 adrenergic receptors -->increased heart rate and strength of contraction
116
explain the general rule of thumb referring to receptors on vascular smooth muscle
- alpha receptor cause contraction -->vasoconstriction
| - Beta receptors cause relaxation -->vasodilation
117
What areas only have alpha receptors?
- Skin and mucosa
- Salivary glands
- brain
118
What receptors cause smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation?
Beta 2
119
on the Bronchial glands what receptors decrease secretion?
Alpha 1
120
on the bronchial glands, what receptors increase secretion?
Beta 2
121
What receptors decrease motility of the digestive system?
Alpha 1 and Beta
122
What receptors cause contraction of sphincters in the digestive system?
alpha 1
123
What receptors cause a decrease in secretion in the digestive system?
alpha 2
124
What receptors in the liver respond to sympathetic activation to increase glycogenolysis (release of glucose)?
Alpha 1 and Beta 2
125
What receptors in the adipose tissue respond to sympathetic activation to increase lipolysis?
Alpha 1
Beta 1
Beta 3
126
What forms the hard clot between two fibrins?
covalent bond between NH2 of glutamine and NH3 of Lysine
127
What enzyme causes the formation of the hard clot?
Factor XIIIa-transglutaminase
128
what activates factor XIII (transglutaminase)?
Thrombin
129
Explain the importance of post translational modification of prothrombin?
Glutamic acid gets and an extra COO-, causing a double negative charge which attracts calcium released by exposed collagen
130
What is required to modify Glutamate to gamma-carboxy-glutamate in prothrombin?
Vitamin K
131
What form of vitamin K is required to modify prothrombin and what enzyme does this?
reduced; epoxide reductase
132
What drugs inhibit epoxide reductase?
anti clotting drugs
- Warfarin (Coumadin
- Dicoumerol
133
What clotting factors besides prothrombin require vitamin K?
X, IX, VII
134
What do you add to blood to find the time for a PTT test?
Kaolin
135
What is added to blood to find the time for a PT test?
Tissue factor (Tissue thromboplastin)
136
What is the PTT testing and what is the normal time?
factor XII-->fibrin clot (intrinsic and common pathways)
| -35 seconds
137
What is the PT testing and what is the normal time?
Factor VII to fibrin clot (extrinsic and common pathways)
| -12 seconds
138
Factor XIII deficiency is known as what?
hemophilia
139
What causes the plateau (phase 2) in the slow cardiac action potential?
influx of calcium
140
What channels cause the unstable prepotential of a slow cardiac action potential?
"funny" sodium channels
141
What node has a greater density of "funny" sodium channels
SA node
142
Normal time range for PR interval
.12-.2 seconds
143
Normal QRS duration
up to .1 seconds
144
normal QT interval duration
Up to .43 seconds (must be corrected for heart rate)
145
Normal R-R interval (heart rate)
.6 to 1 sec (heart rate: 60-100bpm)
146
On an ECG how much time is 1 little square?
.04 seconds
147
What are the four components of hemostasis?
1) Vascular spasm
2) formation of platelet plug
3) formation of blood clot
4) repair of damage
148
What stimulates platelet production?
thrombopoietin (TPO)
149
what terminal of TPO is like EPO?
amine terminal
150
What organs make TPO?
Liver and Kidney
151
What controls throbopoietin secretion?
it binds to MPL receptor on platelets which interalize it and destroy it
152
What are contained in platelet vesicles?
- ATP and ADP
- thromboxane Ax
- fibrin stabilizing factor (clot stability)
- Platelet-derived growth factor (repair)
- Serotonin (5-HT)
153
What are the primary causes of vascular spasm?
1) Myogenic-direct response to injury
- no neurons or reflexes involved
2) Platelet factors-Serotonin
- Thromboxane A2
154
What contributes to the vascular spasm but on it's own cannot initiate it?
Neural reflex initiated by the mechanical injury and pain
| -neither necessary or sufficient for spasm to occur
155
What plasma protein binds collagen to the collagen receptor on the platelet?
Von Willebrand Factor
156
What does the platelet do upon activiation?
- Swells
| - Extends podocytes
157
What causes platelet vesicles to be released?
contraction by actin and myosin after activation and swelling
158
What triggers glycoproteins on the platelet membrane to become sticky?
Thromboxane A2 and ADP released from vesicles
159
Explain getting rid of a clot
1) Tissue plasminogen activator is released by damaged tissue
2) this is inhibited by tPA inhibitor that is in blood
3) Once healed, endothelial cell expresses thrombomodulin which binds to thrombin and become an anticoagulant
4) This activates protein C
5) This inactivates the tPA inhibitor
6) tPA can now activate plasmin to lyse fibrin
160
What chemicals LIMIT clotting
1) Fibin
- Binds thrombin and prevents it from working
2) Prostacyclin
- made at time of injury by endothelial cells
- vasodilation
- limit platelet aggregation
3) Antithrombin III
- when thrombin binds to it, works as an anticoagulant
4) Heparin
- derived from mast cells
- increases antithrombin efficacy
161
What are the the 2 functions of activated protein C?
- Inactivation of tPA inhibitor
| - Inactivation of factors VIIIa and Va
162
Explain the Leiden mutation
On factor V which prevents it from being inactivated by Protein C- causes blood clots
163
What does the Primary heart field become?
Atria, Left ventricle, and part of the right ventricle
164
What are formed by the secondary heart field?
Remainder of the right ventricle and the outflow tract (Conus cordis and truncus arteriosus)
165
What is the master gene for left sided ness and can lead to heart defects
PITX2
166
describe the pathway leading to PITX2 expression
5HT(serotonin)-->FGF8-->Nodal and Lefty2-->PITX2
167
What goes into the early primitive atrium?
Common cardinal vein (via posterior and anterior cardinal veins) taking blood from embryo back to the heart
168
In the embryo where are red blood cells being made?
yolk sack
169
What drains the red blood cells from the yolk sack to the embryological atrium?
Vitelline vein
170
What brings oxygenated blood to the fetus?
umbilical vien
171
What are the 5 embryological dilations in order of blood flow?
- Sinus venosus
- Primitive atrium
- primitive ventricle
- bulbus cordis
- Truncus Arteriosus
172
What does the Sinus venosus become in adult?
- Smooth part of right atrium (sinus venarum)
- Coronary Sinus
- Oblique vein of left atrium
173
What does the primitive atrium become in an adult?
Trabeculated part of right and Left atria (auricles)
174
What does the primitive ventricle become in an adult?
Trabeculated part of right and left ventricles
175
What does bulbus cordis become in an adult?
- Smooth part of right ventricle (Conus Cordis)
| - Smooth part of left ventricle (Aortic Vestibule)
176
What does truncus arteriosus become in an adult?
- Aorta
| - Pulmonary Trunk
177
What specificies the venus end of the endocardial tube?
retinoic acid
178
Low concentrations of retinoic acid specify what in the endocardial tube development?
Anterior structures and outflow track
179
In growth and development of the heart, what parts of the endocardial tube grow fastest?
- Ventricles
| - Truncus Arteriosus and bulbus cordis (outflow tract)
180
Cardiac looping is dependent on what?
Laterality pathway and proper expression of transcription factor PITX2
181
These types of ventricular septal defects require surgical correction?
membranous
182
What type of ventricular septal defects are most common?
Muscular (These spontaneously close)
183
If the ventricles aren't separated and oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix, where does blood tend to flow?
Lungs because there is less resistance which in turn increases arterial wall thickness thus increasing resistance making the right ventricle pump harder and hypertrophy
184
What causes foreman ovale to close?
At birth, lungs open, right atrial pressure drops which causes blood to push other way on the septum and it fuses and closes.
185
What do the vitelline veins contribute to in an adult?
- hepatic sinusoids
- inferior vena cava
- GI veins
186
What is the vein that is used to shunt blood from the left anterior cardinal vein to the right anterior cardinal vein to push all systemic blood to the right side of the developing heart?
brachiocephalic vein
187
What are the adult remnants of the left horn of sinus venosum?
- Oblique vein of left atrium
- Coronary sinus
- smooth part of right atrium
188
What plays a role in partitioning the aorta and pulmonary trunk?
Neural crest cells
189
Name the defect: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
Tetrology of fallot
190
Aortic arch IV makes what on the left and right respectively?
Aortic Arch; Right subclavian
191
Aortic arch VI gives rise to what?
- pulmonary arteries
| - ductus arteriosus
192
What keeps the ductus arteriosus open in utero?
prostaglandin E2
193
What common medication can cause early closure of ductus arteriosus?
NSAIDs
194
Defect causing pulmonary veins to drain into the right atrium instead of left?
Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return (TAPVR)
195
How can a child survive with TAPVR?
They must have an atrial septal defect to get oxygenated blood to the left side of the heart
-or surgery
196
Why is a double aortic arch a problem?
it can compress esophagus and trachea
197
Baby is cyanotic, blood flow issues below diaphragm
| -heart is ok and blood getting to head, neck and upper limb
Coarctation of aorta
198
Heart outside of body
Ectobis cordis
199
How do you modify the ionotropy of cardiac muscle?
Altering the amount of Ca++ available to bind to troponin
200
What is a cardiac glycoside which increases the contractility of the heart without increasing the energy demands by blocking the Na+/K+ ATPase pump?
Digoxin
201
What leads look at the inferior portion of the heart?
- II
- III
- aVF
202
What leads look at the septal portion of the heart?
- V1
| - V2
203
What leads look at the anterior portion of the heart?
- V2
- V3
- V4
204
What leads look at the lateral portions of the heart?
- I
- aVL
- V4
- V5
- V6
205
What lead usually shows an inverted P wave for a normal functioning atrium?
aVR
206
What leads normally show an upright P wave?
1, 2, V4-V6, aVF
207
What is represented by a prolonged P-R interval? Greater than .2 sec?
First degree AV block
208
What is represented by a shortened (less than .12 sec) PR interval?
Pre excitation syndromes
209
What is the most common Pre-excitation syndromes (causes shortened PR interval?
Wolf-Parkinson- White syndrome (WPW)
210
What is the normal QRS complex duration?
.05-.11 sec
211
What leads normally have narrow/small Q waves? (1-2 mm)
1, aVL, aVF, V5, and V6
212
What is wrong when there is an absence of the small Q waves in the leads where you should see them?
- bundle branch block
| - ventricular hypertrophy
213
The T wave is normally upright in what leads?
1, 2, V3-V6
214
The T wave is normally inverted in what leads?
aVR
215
In the standard leads, the T wave should not be greater than ________.
5 mm
216
in the precordial leads, the T wave should not be greater than ________.
10 mm
217
What pathology should you be thinking if you see an irregular Q wave?
Necrosis or infarction
218
What is the name of the bundle that originates at the SA node and distributes depolarization to the left atrium?
Bachmann's bundle
219
What are the two locations of baroreceptors in the arterial system?
Carotid sinus
| Aortic arch
220
If a patient has sinus bradycardia and is also hemodynamically compromised what drug is used for initial treatment?
Atropine
221
What do you treat Supraventricular tachycardia with? SVT?
Adenosine
222
A chest tube is normally placed in what intercostal space?
5th or 6th
223
Velocity=?
Q/A; flow or cardiac output/cross sectional area
224
Q=?
DP/Resistance; Pressure gradient/resistance
225
CO=?
1) (arterial pressure - venous pressure)/ TPR;
| 2) SVxHR
226
Poiseuille's law states that Resistance R=?
```
(8hL)/(pr^4)
h=viscosity
L=length of vessel
p=pi
r=radius of vessel
```
227
Reynold's number predicts when turbulence will occur. What is this equation?
```
Nr=rdv/h
r=density
d=diameter
v=velocity
h=viscosity
```
228
When the reynolds number reaches this number, turbulence occurs?
2000
229
Compliance = ?
change in volume/change in pressure
230
Pulse Pressure=?
systolic-diastolic pressure
231
Mean pressure=
Diastolic + 1/3 X pulse pressure
232
BP=
CO X TPR
233
Renin is released into the bloodstream from the kidneys in response to what?
Drop in blood pressure
234
List off the affects that Angiotensin II has?
1) increases aldosterone secretion from adrenal cortex
2) acts directly on kidneys to increase Na+ and water retention
- Same effect as aldosterone (up blood volume, preload, stroke volume, and therefore BP
3) increase thirst
4) increase ADH secretion
5) cause global vasoconstriction
