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Advanced Pharmacology > Mid Term Review > Flashcards

Mid Term Review Flashcards

(100 cards)

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1
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

What body does to drug.

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2
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

What drug does to body.

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3
Q

What is the first pass effect?

A

The concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before reaching systemic circulation

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4
Q

What is a prodrug?

A

A biologically inactive compound that can be metabolized in the body to produce a drug.

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5
Q

What are drug isomers?

A

Two or more different substances with same molecular formula.

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6
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

The extent a substance or drug becomes completley available to it’s intended biological destination

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7
Q

What is bioequivalence?

A

When two drugs prodouce the same effect, or two fromulations do.

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8
Q

What role does the cytochrome P450 enzyme system play in drug metabolism?

A

Poor metabolizers: toxic levels or poor effect

Rapid metabolizers: subtherapuetic levels

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9
Q

What do inducers do?

What do inhibitors do?

A

Inducers: inrease metabolism, decreaase effect
Inhibitors: decrease metabolism, increase effect

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10
Q

What is the primary site of drug elimination in the body?

A

Kidneys

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11
Q

What is the best measure of renal function to use when dosing medications?

A

GFR

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12
Q

What are the restrictions for schedule 2 medications?

A

No fax/phone.
90 days only.
No refills.

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13
Q

Who is at greatest risk for drug reactions and adverse effects?

A

Children and elderly.

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14
Q

What population does the Beers criteria apply to?

A

Those of 65

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15
Q

What is most common reasons a medication appears on Beer’s list?

A

causing falls/CNS sx

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16
Q

MOA for thiazide diuretics

A

inhibition of Na/Cl cotransporter in the renal distal tubule

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17
Q

Side effects of thiazide diuretics

A 
dizziness
blurred vision
loss of appetite
headache
weakness
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18
Q

Monitoring parameters for thiazide diuretics

A

potassium

Cr Cl

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19
Q

MOA for Ace Inhibitors

A

inhibits conversation of angiotensin to renin

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20
Q

Side effects for Ace Inhibitors

A 
cough
hyperkalemia
fatigue
hypotension
headache
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21
Q

Monitoring parameters for Ace Inhibitors

A

creatinine and potassium

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22
Q

MOA for ARBs

A

blocking receptors that AT 1 works on, heart, blood vessels, kidneys

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23
Q

Side effects of ARBs

A

less cough
less angioedema
Can’t use if pregnant

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24
Q

Monitoring parameters for ARBs

A

creatinine/K+

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25
MOA for calcium channel blockers: Dihydro Non-Dihydro
Dihydro: more peripherally | Non-dihydro: mostly in heart
26
Side effects of CA channel blockers
avoid non-dihydro in low EF/HF | CYP inhibitors and drug reactions common in non-dihydro
27
Monitoring parameters for CA channel blockers
Ca
28
What class of medication can be used for treatment of nightmares and PTSD?
Alpha Blockers
29
Aldosterone antagonists spare what electrolyte?
Potassium
30
What are some unique adverse effects of aldosterone antagonists?
Diarrhea | High K+
31
Which drugs are high intensity statins?
Atorvastatin | Rosuvastatin
32
What is the most common side effect of statins?
Myalgias
33
What medication is preferred when treating hypertriglycerides and dyslipidemia?
Fenofibrate
34
Lovasa is used more as it is _____ purified and ____ likely to increase LDL.
More, less
35
Zetia can be used as ______ to statins.
Adjunct
36
What drug is now considered first line for CHF with reduced EF?
sacubitril/valsartan (Entresto)
37
Amniodarone has a side effect that is concerning:
pulmonary toxicity
38
Dronedarone
Less likely to cause pulmonary toxicity
39
Which antiarrythmic can only be given inpatient due to risk of QT prolongation?
Dofetilide (Ticasyn)
40
Match the insulins with their duration of action: 1. Regular 2. Glargine 3. Lispro 4. Degludec 5. NPH ``` A. Rapid B. Short Acting C. Intermediate. D. Long Acting E. Ultra Long Acting ```
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. E 5. C
41
MOA of metformin
Inhibition of hepatic glucose production
42
Side effects of metformin
GI symptoms
43
Monitoring parameters for metformin.
AIC
44
MOA for DPP4 inhibitors
Glucose dependent increase in insulin secretion. | Glucose dependent inhibition of glucagon secretion.
45
Side effects of DPP4 inhibitors
Minimal side effects, not very potent.
46
MOA for GLP-1
Glucose dependent insulin secretion Glucose dependent decrease in glucagon secretion decreased gastric emptying increased satiety
47
Side effects for GLP-1
N/V | Weight Loss
48
Monitoring for GLP-1
Pancreatitis | Renal fct
49
MOA for SGLT
Reduces reabsorption of filtered glucose and lowers renal threshold for glucose, increased urinary glucose secretion (lowers plasma levels)
50
Side effects for SGLT
GU infections
51
Monitoring for SGLT
Renal fct
52
How do sulfonureas work?
Increasing secretion of insulin from pancreas
53
What are common side effects of sulfonureas?
hypoglycemia | weight gain
54
Which is the drug of choice for hypothyroidism?
Levothyroxine
55
What are administration needs for levothyroxine?
Morning: 30-60 min before breakfast
56
Methimazole is preferred for hypothyroidism because:
more potent less toxicity (not for pregnancy)
57
SABA: Albuterol Max puffs per day
12
58
What med shoulc a patient using a SABA also be on?
ICS
59
LABA use in asthma.
Must be coupled with ICS.
60
What are adverse effects of ICS?
Thrush, hoarseness, impaired growth in children.
61
Montelukast, a leukotriene modifier, can be used in very young children, but poses what risk?
Neuropsychiatric symptoms
62
Name a couple of LAMAs
Spiriva Ellipta Tudorza
63
MOA of LAMA
anticholinergic
64
SE of LAMAs
dry mouth, dizziness
65
Oral option for COPD.
Roflumilast/Daliresp Not a bronchodilator
66
What abx is sometimes used for COPD tx?
Azithromycin
67
_______ for productive cough. | ________ for non productive cough.
Expectorant | Suppressant
68
Should you treat cough in patients under 6?
No
69
Which type of heparin is used more outpatient?
LMWH
70
What is the reversal agent for heparin?
Protamine Sulfate
71
What is the MOA for Warfarin?
Vit K antagonist
72
What monitoring is needed for coumadin?
INR
73
Does warfarin have many or few drug and food interactions?
Many
74
If INR is greater than 10....
Consider Vitamin K (phytoin)
75
Factor 10a inhibitors all have an ___ and ____ in their names.
X A
76
What are the two classes of DOACs?
Direct thrombin inhbitors | Factor Xa
77
What monitoring is required with DOACs?
Renal fct
78
Why is clopidegrel now preferred over ASA?
Lower risk of bleeding
79
What is the dose needed for daily ASA?
81 mg
80
Why is the metabolism of clopidegrel and important consideration?
Can by affected by CYP polymorphisms. Lowers efficacy.
81
What are some adverse effects of oral iron?
Darkened stools Constipation N/V
82
What are the administration routes for B12?
Oral, IM, SQ
83
What is the first line of treatment for GERD?
Lifestyle modifications
84
What are some adverse effects of antacids?
``` Chalky taste Blood sugar increase Renal dsyfct Constipation (aluminum) Diarrhea (magnesium) ```
85
What are some issues with using PPI long term?
decreased calcium
86
What is the primary concern with promotility agents?
Extrapyramidal side effects, especially TD
87
What is the most common cause of PUD?
H. Pylori
88
What is the most common cause of diarrhea?
Antibiotics
89
Which antidepressant is also approved for quitting smoking?
Bupropion
90
What are some limitations for rx remeron?
weight gain | sedation
91
Should you d/c an antidepressant abruptly?
No
92
What medication commonly paired with an SSRI can cause seratonin syndrome?
Trazadone
93
Are benzos thought to work quickly or long term?
Quickly
94
What populations should avoid the use of benzos?
Elderly | Hx of substance misuse
95
How long is it recommended to taper benzos?
more than a year: 3-4 mos | less than a year: 2-3 weeks
96
What are the drugs for sleep?
Z drugs
97
Beta 1 action primarily occurs in the:
heart
98
Beta 2 action occurs in the
lungs *One heart, two lungs*
99
Alpha 1 acts on vascular smooth muscle, and...
genital smooth muscle
100
Alpha 2 acts on vascular smooth muscle and
platelet aggregation.

Advanced Pharmacology (9 decks)

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