Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3L03 CSEP > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main objectives for the CSEP PATH?

A
  • establish standards of competence for fitness appraisal/PT personnel and centres on a national scale
  • encourage those currently working in the field to comply with these standards
  • provide consumer protection by educating the public to recognize the distinction in qualifications between levels in the model
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 2 types of certifications in the CSEP?

A
  1. CSEP Certified Personal Trainer (CPT)

2. CSEP Clinical Exercise Physiologist (CSEP CEP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a CPT supposed to aid clients with?

A
  • overall health of the population

- health related fitness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a CEP supposed to aid clients with?

A
  • health
  • performance
  • job related fitness (firefighter)
  • can work with clinical populations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What option do both CPT’s and CEP’s have to further their certifications?

A

can add High Performance Specializations once certified (work with elite athletes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

____________ health and fitness practitioner ___________. Develops and implements a ____________ physical activity, fitness and lifestyle plan

A

introductory, certification, tailored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

who can CPT’s work with

A
  • healthy populations

- one stable health condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is a CPT certification the minimum acceptable standard in the industry?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How much education must a CPT have?

A
  • minimum 2 years of uni/college coursework in specific core competency areas related to exercise sciences from an accredited post-secondary institution (2 years of a kinesiology degree)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

__________ health and fitness practitioner _____________

A

advanced, certification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

who can CEP’s work with?

A
  • asymptomatic and symptomatic populations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

provides appropriate advanced assessment and exercise therapy to clients including, but not limited to, those with __________, ______________ and _________ __________.

A

musculoskeletal, cardio-respiratory, metabolic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Can CEPs accept referrals from licensed health care professionals?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what certification is considered the gold standard in the industry?

A

CEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do High Performance Specialists focus on?

A
  • performance

- occupational testing and training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who can high performance specialists work for?

A
  • elite athletes
  • emergency services personnel
  • armed forces
  • high performance clients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do you need to do in order to become a high performance specialist?

A

pass a theory exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CSEP pre and postnatal exercise specialization:

focuses on safe exercise testing and prescription during _________ and the months that follwo

A

pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is a scope of practice?

A
  • who we can work with and what we can do
  • concise description in broad terms of the activities and areas of practice
  • doesn’t list specific tasks or procedures because they can become outdated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what happens when a person works outside of their SOP?

A
  • Risk the safety of clients

- expose themselves to legal risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

for what reasons can a person become at legal risk when practicing outside of SOP?

A
  1. if the trainer causes injury

2. fails to refer the client to another more appropriate health care provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the SOP for a cpt

A
  • Work with healthy people or with one stable chronic condition who can exercise independently
  • pre-participation screening
  • gather info about PA/lifestyle
  • administer fitness assessment according to goals/wishes
  • develop tailored exercise prescription
  • refer clients who fall outside of expertise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is outside of the SOP for a CPT

A
  • use of an ECG
  • do anything >90% of max effort
  • create diet plans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the SOP for a HPS?

A
  • SOP of CPT or CEP plus….
  • restrictions of max assessment are lifted
  • can do max exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the SOP for a CEP?

A
  • Work with clients with more than one medical condition or unstable medical condition
  • work with youth, older people and performance testing
  • accept referrals
  • suggest dietary practices
  • use ECG
  • monitor the use of common medications in response to exercise
  • take finger prick blood samples
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is outside the SOP for a CEP?

A
  • diagnose pathology or abnormal ECG tracings

- work with acutely injured or diseased people not in their area of expertise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are some professionalism things to consider?

A
  • consider benefits vs. risk
  • error on the side of caution if not sure
  • ensure adequate PS readiness screening and monitoring of client
  • avoid high risk/contraindicated exercises
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

which population is at the lowest risk for physical activity?

A

young adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

is excessive intensity, frequency or duration better than mild to moderate activity in terms of health benefits?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 4 facility and equipment standards?

A
  1. equipment maintenance
  2. building maintenance
  3. safety and policy signs in clear view
  4. environmental factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the two major emergency things you must have?

A
  • EAP

- conduct emergency drills and practice CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What information should be on hand for an EAP

A
  • ambulance phone number
  • local hospital or medical clinic
  • name and number of clients physician and next of kin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What to do in case of dizziness?

A
  1. lie client down in supine position and elevate legs
  2. monitor BP
  3. Keep in this position until BP returns to pre exercise level
    - maybe offer juice box
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What to do in case of Loss of Consciousness?

A
  • initiate emergency procedure right away
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what to do if any other serious incident occurs? (cardiac arrest)

A
  • emergency services

- use CPR/Automated External Defibrillator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are you supposed to do when an adverse event occurs?

A

complete an incident report form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does SOAP stand for

A

Subjective data
objective data
assessment of problem
plan of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what should you keep records of with your client?

A
  • history
  • assessment results
  • training programs
  • progress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how long do you keep records for?

A

10 years or 10 years after they turn 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

should you keep clients personal information in a password protected or lock cabinet

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what does Subjective Data consist of?

A
  • their opinion
  • likes/dislikes
  • goals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what does Objective Data consist of?

A
  • height
  • V02 max
  • test results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does Assessment of Problem consist of?

A
  • think about S + O and make a statement

- interpret the data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what does Plan of Action consist of?

A
  • summarize what youre going to do

- key strategies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are 2 things you can do in order to keep your professional development?

A
  • stay current of literature

- attend conferences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are the 6 steps to the CSEP-PATH?

A
  1. ask
  2. assess
  3. advise
  4. agree
  5. assist
  6. arrange
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what should you do in the pre-meeting?

A
  • orientation to process
  • informed consent
  • pre participation screening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what should you do in the first meeting?

A
  • establish rapport
  • gather info about goals, PA background, knowledge and interests
  • confirm readiness for PA and secure informed consent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

in the first step of the ASK section of getting to know your client what should you do?

A
  • knowledge of the importance of PA to health
  • primary motivation and drivers (intrinsic or extrinsic)
  • level of commitment
  • confidence (self-efficacy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

should you use open ended questions to engage with the client

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what order should you begin for the readiness screening?

A
  1. pre assessment instructions
  2. informed consent form
  3. GAQ
  4. observations
  5. collection of relevant medical history
  6. pre exercise HR and BP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

PRE MEETING THINGS TO SAY

A
  • welcome letter give it to them and explain it verbally
  • wear light clothing
  • no food 2 hours before
  • no caffene 2 hours before
  • no alcohol 6 hours before
  • no smoking 2 hours before
  • no exercise 6 hours before
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are some things you must do for the Informed consent form

A
  • describe assessment verbally and on paper
  • signed in pen
  • explain its not a waiver
  • if theyre younger than 18 have guardian sign
  • must be witness of 3rd party that cant be affiliated with the CPT
  • must be signed before collecting personal information
54
Q

What is the role of a QEP in pre participation health screening

A
  • conducts prescreening to reduce liability exposure
  • works within abilities and SOP
  • charts information about medical history
  • considers clients risk of an adverse event
55
Q

Should the CPT help interpret the answers on the GAQ for the client

A

no

56
Q

should the GAQ be signed with ink pen and a 3rd party witness

A

yes

57
Q

What is the main finding for the GAQ

A
  • to see if the client falls under the CPTs SOP or if it requires clearance from the physician before doing active portions of the fitness assessment
58
Q

How long is the GAQ valid for?

A

12 months or unless health condition changes

59
Q

What does understanding the current PA levels of the client help with?

A
  • the CV risks associated with exercise lessen as individual becomes more active
  • clients who do regular PA can begin at a higher level
  • clients who are inactive should begin at a lower level
  • clients who have a lower risk medical condition and are interested in vigorous activity should be referred to CEP
60
Q

What are the limitations of the GAQ

A
  • its possible for clients or have a diagnosed medical condition or take medications despite answering no to all questions
  • you must ask clients about medical history
61
Q

What is the purpose of the CPT health screening tool?

A
  • used if they have 1 medical condition
  • helps CPT determine if medical condition is low risk
  • not a substitute for GAQ
62
Q

Apparently healthy clients look like:

A
  • no diagnosed medical condition
  • no overt signs and symptoms suggesting potential underlying medical conditions
  • able to exercise independently
63
Q

lower risk medical condition:

A
  • condition is medically managed and client is asymptomatic
  • no change in meds or treatment pan in the last 6 months
  • take medication as directed
  • client can exercise independently
  • benefits of PA outweigh the risks
64
Q

Higher risk medical condition:

A
  • may not be medically managed
  • symptomatic
  • treatment recently changed
  • cant exercise independently
  • benefits may not outweigh the risks
65
Q

what are the medical conditions included in the health screening tool?

A
  • asthma
  • heart disease
  • hypertension
  • osteoarthritis
  • osteoporosis
  • type 2 diabetes
66
Q

when should the assessment be cancelled or postponed?

A
  • demonstrates difficulty breathing at rest
  • cough persistently
  • ill or have fever
  • lower extremity swelling
  • have ignored preliminary instructions
  • predisposed to unnecessary risk
  • if they may be pregnant
67
Q

what are the cutoffs for an adverse event during exercise?

A

HR over 100bpm
SBP over 160 mmHg
DPB over 90 mmHg

68
Q

What are some optional questionnaires

A
  • abilities for active living
  • PASB-Q
  • healthy sleep assessment
  • stages of change questionnaire
  • inventory of lifestyle needs and activity preferences (agree section)
69
Q

AAL-Q

A
  • used to identify a disability that may require accommodation
70
Q

PASB-Q

A
  • provides an approximation of clients physical activity behaviour for a typical week
  • use in conjunction with health benefit ratings
71
Q

Healthy Sleep Assessment

A
  • provide indication of whether the client is good or poor in sleeping habits in general
72
Q

SOC-Q

A
  • identify a clients stage of motivational readiness for change
  • knowing this allows you to decide appropriate strategies for enhancing their commitment to change
73
Q

in the assess section what is the main objective?

A
  • to choose an appropriate fitness assessment given clients goals and history
74
Q

before each assessment test what should you communicate to the client?

A
  • purpose of test

- relate it to clients goals and health

75
Q

What tools should you use in assess section?

A
  • aerobic assessment data collection sheets

- health benefit ratings

76
Q

What considerations should you take in for gender?

A
  • women carry more fat in lower extremities

- men carry more fat in their abdomen

77
Q

What considerations should you take in for aging?

A
  • people over 30 get more fat and drop in muscle mass
78
Q

What considerations should you take in for body image and eating disorders?

A
  • scales vs. other signs of progress
79
Q

what are the two types of fat

A

subcutaneous and visceral

80
Q

Males are more _____ shaped women are more _________ shaped but can still be ______ shaped

A

apple, pear, apple

81
Q

What are the 3 types of direct methods of body composition measures?

A

MRI, CT, DEXA

82
Q

What are the types of indirect methods of body composition measures in the lab?

A

hydrostatic weighing and bodpod

83
Q

What are the types of indirect methods of body composition measures in the field?

A

skin folds, BIA, BMI, waist circumference

84
Q

Explain how an MRI works

A
  • body is place in strong magnetic field
  • hydrogen protons are realigned
  • when magnet is turned off the protons lose alignment and release energy
  • energy release is dependent on tissue type
85
Q

What are the pros and cons of MRIs

A

Pro: accurate
con: expensive and difficult to assess

86
Q

Explain how a CT scan works

A
  • uses x-rays passed through the body to monitor radiation
  • rotates 360 degrees around body
  • gives more accurate determination of visceral adipose tissue over MRI
87
Q

what are the pros and cons of a CT

A

Pro: accurate
con: expensive, difficult to assess and exposed to radiation

88
Q

Explain how a DEXA scan works

A
  • x-rays with 2 energy peaks one peak is absorbed by soft tissue and the other by bone
  • estimates bone mineral, fat and lean soft tissue mass
89
Q

What does DEXA tell you

A

% BF

90
Q

What are some pros of DEXA

A
  • not as much radiation as CT
91
Q

what are the components of fat free mass

A

residual chemicals, bone, muscle, water, organs/tissues

92
Q

what does the two-component model entail?

A
  • uses a measure of body density to estimate %BF through predictive equations
93
Q

what are the assumptions of the two component model

A
  • density of fat is 0.901g/cc
  • density of FFB is 1.1g/cc
  • no individual variations in density
  • density of FFB are constant and proportions are constant
  • individuals only differ from reference body in amount of fat: 73.8% water, 19.4 protein, 6.8% mineral
94
Q

what is the equation for total body density?

A

Db = BM/BV

95
Q

What is the equation for body volume?

A

BV = ((BM-net UWW/density of water)-(RV + GV)

96
Q

What is hydrostatic weighing measuring?

A
  • determines body density and percent fat
97
Q

what is the equation for hydrostatic weighing

A

BV = BM -UWW

98
Q

What is the theory behind hydrostatic weighing?

A

weight loss under water is proportional to volume of water displaced

99
Q

what are some methodological errors in hydrostatic weighing

A
  • fixed body density values for fat mass and ffm
  • inaccurate estimation of residual volume
  • failure to eliminate trapped gas
  • failure to liberate air trapped in bathing suit or body hair
  • failure to exhale to true residual volume
100
Q

How is BODPOD different from hydrostatic weighing

A

it uses air displacement instead of water displacement to estimate volume

101
Q

what are the effects of BODPOD

A

hair, thoracic gas, volume and body surface area

102
Q

does bodpod use a pressure volume relationship

A

yes

103
Q

What does the skinfold caliper measurement do?

A
  • measures the thickness of subcutaneous adipose tissue

- uses predictive equations

104
Q

who can’t you use the skinfold measurement on

A
  • obese people
  • BMI over 30
  • when males WC > 102 cm and females is >88 cm
105
Q

what are some assumptions of the skinfold measurement?

A
  • good measure of subcutaneous fat
  • distribution of fat subcutaneously and interally is similar for all individuals of each gender
  • sum of several skinfolds can be used to estimate total body fat: theres a relationship between the sum of SKF and Db
106
Q

What is the BIA technique

A
  • low level current passes through the body and measures impedance or resistance to current
107
Q

FFT provides more resistance to electrical current

A

false

- lower R = lower % BF

108
Q

What is a methodological error of BIA

A

Hydration status

109
Q

what does resistance (R) stand for in BIA

A

opposition to current flow

110
Q

what does reactance (Xc) stand for in BIA

A

opposition to current flow caused by capacitance produced by cell membrane

111
Q

is R or Xc a better predictor of FFM

A

R

112
Q

What is the equation for BMI

A

BMI = Kg/m^2

113
Q

what does waist circumference measure?

A

measure focuses on the centralized vs. a general pattern of fat distribution

114
Q

what are the classifications of BMI

A

obese, underweight, overweight

115
Q

Waist circumference implications

A
  • visceral fat is more important determinant of health outcomes than over body fattness
  • individuals with WC over specific threshold for men and women are further elevated risk of coronary event and diabetes
  • higher WC is also a marker for high risk among people of normal weight
116
Q

what is the lactate threshold

A
  • 60% of V02 max

- point at which metabolic byproducts build up

117
Q

what influences VO2 max

A
  • mode of exercise (treadmill will have higher VO2 max than bike)
  • hereditary (RBC, lung capacity)
  • age (after 25 years VO2 max decreases by 1% per year)
  • sex (males have greater than females)
  • body comp (increased muscle = increased metabolic tissue)
118
Q

achieving maximal aerobic power or ______

A

plateau

- there is no further increase in oxygen consumption with increasing workload

119
Q

what is a prediction of assessment of aerobic power

A

that there is a linear relationship between HR/VO2 and work

120
Q

direct tests for aerobic fitness include

A

max: VO2max test using metabolic cart

121
Q

indirect tests for aerobic fitness include

A

submax: mCAFT, YMCA, Ebbeling
Field: Rockport 1 mile walk

122
Q

theory behind submax tests

A
  • for a given bout of exercise a person with a higher VO2max can perform the exercise with less effort (lower HR)
    or
  • more exercise completed at a given HR
123
Q

Assumptions of VO2 tests

A
  1. linear relationship between HR, VO2 and workload
  2. HRmax at a given age is uniform
  3. Mechanical efficiency of the activity is uniform
124
Q

What is the error rate of VO2 tests

A

+- 10-20%

125
Q

what are the general procedures of a vo2 test

A
  • explain the test
  • familiarize the client with the equipment
  • monitor (HR, RPE, BP and signs of intolerance)
  • follow post exercise recovery procedure
126
Q

When to stop an aerobic test

A 
- client asks to stop 
reached 85% of predicted HRmax
- cant maintain cadence
- HR fails to increase as intensity increases
- physical or verbal manifestations of severe fatigue
- onset of angina 
- signs of intolerance or distress
- accident emergency
- completes 8 stages
127
Q

what are signs of intolerance

A
  • chest pain
  • facial pallor
  • laboured breathing
  • begins to stagger
  • complains of dizziness - nausea
  • extreme leg pain
128
Q

Muscular strength definition

A

peak force or torque developed during maximal voluntary contraction

129
Q

what influences muscle strength

A
  • motivational state
  • CSA of muscle
  • quality of muscle (type 1 or type 2)
  • type of contraction
  • speed of contraction
  • length of muscle
  • MU recruitment
130
Q

muscular power definition

A

rate at which mechanical work is performed

max amount of force one can exert in the least amount of time

131
Q

muscular endurance definition

A

ability to exert submaximal force repeatedly or sustain a static contraction without fatigue

132
Q

what should you keep constant when doing strength testing

A
  • motivation, environment

3L03 CSEP (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions