Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Science is… (3 Things)?

A

1) Cumulative (knowledge keeps building on prior knowledge)
2) A process more than a product
3) Attitudes

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2
Q

What 3 things does science do?

A

1) Question authority (should be able to provide evidence)
2) Open skepticism (open to information)
3) Intellectual honesty (open and honest about data and how you acquired data)

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3
Q

What are the 5 components of the scientific method?

A

1) Observe
2) Predict
3) Test
4) Interpret
5) Communicate

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4
Q

OPTIC stands for?

A

Observe, predict, test, interpret, communicate

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5
Q

What are theories?

A

Set of related assumptions from which testable predictions can be made

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6
Q

Theories are known as the (___), while the hypothesis is known as the (___)

A

Telescope; microscope

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7
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

Specific, informed, and testable predictions of the outcome of a particular set of conditions in a research design

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8
Q

What is pseudoscience?

A

Claims to be science

1) Lacks the cumulative process seen in science
2) Disregards real-world observations and established facts / results and contradicts what is already known
3) Lacks internal skepticism
4) Only vaguely explains how conclusions are reached
5. Uses loose and distorted logic

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9
Q

Science uses (___) strategy, while pseudoscience uses (___) strategy

A

Disconfimational; confirmational

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10
Q

What is research design?

A
  • Involves the plans for how a study is to be conducted

- Includes variable, population, sample

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11
Q

What is a variable?

A

Any characteristic that changes, or “varies”
i.e. physical - weight, height.
memory, hyperactivity

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12
Q

What is a population?

A

Entire group of interest to a researcher

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13
Q

What is a sample?

A

Subset of population (represented as a population as a whole)

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14
Q

What are descriptive studies?

A
  • Aim to describe behaviour i.e. how do people flirt?
  • Researcher defines a problem and variable of interest
  • BUT doesn’t necessarily make a prediction
  • Does not control or manipulate anything
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15
Q

What are the types of descriptive designs?

A

1) Case study
2) Naturalistic observation
3) Interview and survey

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16
Q

What is a case study?

A

In-depth look at one individual or a special group

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17
Q

What is naturalistic observation?

A

Study the behaviour of a subject under natural settings, no manipulation of the environment

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18
Q

What is interview & survey?

A
  • Generally one-on-one
  • Very time-consuming (interview)
  • Surveys usually done by questionnaires i.e. polls
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19
Q

What are correlational studies?

A
  • Measure 2 or more variables and their relationships to one another
  • Cannot be used to show cause-and-effect relationships (causation)
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20
Q

If 2 variables are correlated, there are at least _ possible causal explations

A

3

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21
Q

A correlation coefficient is ___

A

A numerical representation of the strength (number) and direction (+ or -) of the relationship between two variables

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22
Q

What are experimental studies?

A

Design that allows the most control over experimental situation

  • Manipulation of a predicted cause
  • Measurement of the response
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23
Q

What is a random assignment?

A

Each participant has the same chance of being in an experimental or a control group

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24
Q

What is an experimental group / condition?

A

Participants who receive treatment being investigated

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25
Q

What is a control group / condition?

A

Participants who do NOT receive the treatment being investigated

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26
Q

What are the 3 variable types?

A

1) Independent variable (what is being manipulated - cause) i.e. sugar consumption
2) Dependent variable (what is being measured - effect) i.e. hyperactivity level from sugar consumption
3) Confounding variable (variable you didn’t consider, but could be effecting results) i.e. maybe something that tastes sweet makes the kids just as hyperactive

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27
Q

What are the 2 issues in experimental design?

A

1) Participant expectancy effects

2) Experimenter expectancy effects

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28
Q

What is the solution to participant expectancy effects?

A

Single-blind studies (person doesn’t know until end of study which condition they were in)

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29
Q

What is the solution to experimenter expectancy effects?

A

Double-blind studies (person participating and the experimenter both don’t know)

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30
Q

What is a placebo?

A

Substance / treatment that appear identical to the actual treatment (lacks active substance), and sometimes given to the control group

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31
Q

What is experimenter expectancy effects?

A

When characteristics of an experimenter influence participants’ behaviour

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32
Q

What is a self-fulfilling prophecy?

A

When statements change events so that beliefs or predictions come true

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33
Q

What is a meta-analysis?

A

A technique for combining all published research results on one question (statistical summary)

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34
Q

What are operational definitions?

A

Describe the way variables are measured or manipulated i.e. a researcher defines sugar consumption as 100 gram bag of candy consumed in 1 hour

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35
Q

A good measure has demonstrated (2 things):

A

1) Reliability

2) Validity

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36
Q

What is reliability?

A

Consistency of measurement

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37
Q

What is validity?

A

Meaningful, measuring what you intended to measure

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38
Q

What are self-report measures?

A

Written or oral accounts thoughts, feelings, or actions

  • Interviews
  • Questionnaires
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39
Q

What are behavioural measures?

A
  • Systematic observation of actions, either in their normal environment or in a lab setting (people act differently when being watched)
  • Reduces social desirability bias
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40
Q

What are physiological measures?

A

Measures of bodily responses used to determine changes in psychological state

  • Blood pressure, heart rate
  • Sweating, respiration
  • Brain-imaging technologies
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41
Q

What is multiple measurement?

A

Use of several measures to acquire data on one aspect of behaviour
- offsets limitation of any measurement

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42
Q

What is comorbidity?

A

One disorder while you have another disorder

i.e. depression, anxiety

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43
Q

What is single value; mean; mode; median?

A

“Typical” of wholeset; arithmetic average; mode; mid-point value

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44
Q

What is variability?

A
  • Info about spread of scores
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45
Q

What is range; variance; standard deviation?

A

Difference between highest/lowest; average deviation from the mean; square root variance, returns original scale of measurement units

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46
Q

What are inferential statistics?

A

Inferences (predictions) about a population, based on observations of a sample

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47
Q

What is statistical significance?

A

Likelihood that difference is due to chance

  • expressed as p-value (probability value)
  • conventional cut-off
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48
Q

What are ethics?

A

Rules governing the conduct of a person or group

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49
Q

What are Glial cells?

A

Support cells of the nervous system

- most numerous

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50
Q

What are neurons?

A

Receive, process, and send information

- most varied

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51
Q

What are the three types of neurons?

A

1) Sensory neurons
2) Motor neurons
3) Interneurons

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52
Q

What are sensory neurons?

A

Receive incoming sensory information

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53
Q

What are motor neurons?

A

Carry commands for movement; hormone release

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54
Q

What are interneurons?

A

Communicate only with other neurons; most common type of neuron

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55
Q

What is a concentration gradient?

A
  • Different ion concentrations across membrane

- Pumps actively exchange ions

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56
Q

What is an electrical gradient?

A

Different charge across membrane

- resting potential = -70mV

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57
Q

Proteins: symbol (), charge (- or +), location ()
Potassium: symbol (), charge (- or +), location ()
Sodium: symbol (), charge (- or +), location ()
Chloride: symbol (), charge (- or +), location ()
Calcium: symbol (), charge (- or +), location ()

A
A-, negative, inside
K+, positive, more inside
Na+, positive, more inside
Cl-, negative, more outside
Ca2+, positive, more outside
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58
Q

What is a resting potential?

A

In the resting neuron, the fluid outside the axon contains a HIGHER concentration of the POSITIVE ions than the inside of the axon, which contains many negatively charged anions (A-)

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59
Q

Which two jobs does the neuron have?

A

1) Transmit message to target neuron
- across synapse –> dendrite
- via graded potentials
2) Transmit message along neurons
- from dendrite –> terminal
- via action potential

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60
Q

What do graded potentials do?

A
  • Influence likelihood of action potential
  • Occur in dendrites
  • Aka postsynaptic potentials (PSPs)
    can be + (EPSPs) or - (IPSPs)
  • Dissipate over time/distance
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61
Q

What do action potentials do?

A
  • Neurotransmitter release
  • Travels down axon
  • Have + and - components
  • One size, do NOT dissipate with distance
  • Necessary for neurotransmitter release
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62
Q

What do neurotransmitters do?

A

Generate graded potentials

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63
Q

Neurotransmitter released from ___

A

Vesicles

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64
Q

Vesicles are stored in ___

A

The presynaptic terminal

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65
Q

Receptor binding opens ___ on ___

A

Ion channels; postsynaptic dendrite

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66
Q

Action potential 1st step:

If membrane potential = ___ mV (threshold)

A
  • 55 mV
  • Voltage-dependent sodium channels open
  • Creates action potential
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67
Q

Action potential 2nd step:

If membrane potential = ___ mV

A

+40 mV

  • Voltage-dependent sodium channels close
  • Voltage-dependent potassium channels open
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68
Q

Action potential 3rd step:
Repolarization
Back to ___ mV

A
  • 70 mV

- Refractory period

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69
Q
Each stage of an action potential:
1) 
2)
3)
4)
A

1) Resting potential
2) Depolarization
3) Repolarization
4) Refractory period

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70
Q

What happens at the terminal?

A
  1. Action potential triggers voltage sensitive
    calcium channels to open
    - Calcium enters cell at terminal
    - Neurotransmitter released into synapse
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71
Q

What are two ways to remove excess neurotransmitters

from the synaptic cleft?

A

1) Enzymatic degradation

2) Presynaptic reuptake

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72
Q

What is the major function of the neurotransmitter Acetylcholine?

A

Slows ANS activity; eating, drinking, neuromuscular junction; involved in learning, memory, sleeping, dreaming

73
Q

What is the major function of the neurotransmitter Dopamine?

A

Plays an important role in arousal, mood (especially positive mood), oversupply correlates with schizophrenia; voluntary muscle control

74
Q

What is the major function of the neurotransmitter Epinephrine?

A

Increases ANS activity; fight-or-flight response

75
Q

What is the major function of the neurotransmitter Norepinephrine?

A

Affects CNS activity; plays role in increasing alertness, attention

76
Q

What is the major function of the neurotransmitter Serotonin?

A

Plays role in mood, sleep, eating, temperature regulation; undersupply correlates with anxiety and depression

77
Q

What is the major function of the neurotransmitter GABA?

A

Is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain; slows CNS function; correlates with anxiety and intoxication

78
Q

What is glutamate?

A

Is the most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain; involved in learning and memory; may be involved in schizophrenia

79
Q

The central nervous system (CNS) is made up of ___ and ___

A

Brain; spinal cord

80
Q

The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is made up of ___ and ___

A

Somatic nervous system (voluntary); Autonomic nervous system (involuntary)

81
Q

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is made up of ___ and ___

A

Sympathetic nervous system (arousing); Parasympathetic nervous system (calming)

82
Q

What does the central nervous system (CNS) do?

A

Processes incoming information and crafts a response if one is needed

83
Q

What does the peripheral nervous system (PNS) do?

A

Transmits information between the external environment and internal systems of the body and the central nervous system

84
Q

The sympathetic nervous system is known as ___

A

Fight-or-flight

85
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system is known as ___

A

Rest and digest

86
Q

The brain is made up of these regions:

A

Forebrain
Midbrain
Hindbrain –> Pons, Cerebellum, Medulla

87
Q

The spinal cord contains ___ and ___ tracts

A

Ascending (somatosensory); descending (motor)

88
Q

In the spinal cord, the collection of axons in PNS =

CNS =

A

Nerve; tract

89
Q

Sensory nerves enter ___ spinal cord

Motor nerves exit ___ spinal cord

A

Dorsal; ventral

90
Q

Top =
Bottom =
Middle =
Sides =

A

Dorsal
Ventral
Medial
Lateral

91
Q

The brainstem (located in hindbrain) is made up of ___ and ___

A

Medulla and pons

92
Q

The brainstem organizes some reflexes, such as ___ and ___

A

Postural reflexes (balance); vital reflexes (respiration, heart rate)

93
Q

Pons are involved in ___ and ___

A

Sleeping and dreaming

- damage usually fatal

94
Q

The cerebellum (located in hindbrain) means ___ in Latin

A

Little brain

95
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

Integrates sensory information –> calculates how muscles should move
- Most active when learning new motor
patterns
- Well developed in animals that have fine
motor control

96
Q
The research conducted on this woman
born without a cerebellum is an example of
which type of research study?
a) An experiment
b) Naturalistic observation
c) A case study
d) A correlational study
e) An interview
A

c) A case study

- phenomenon that is rare and happened to one person

97
Q

What does the midbrain do?

A
  • Controls eye movements
  • Processes visual and auditory information
  • Involved with voluntary movement/
    motivation
    i.e. Parkinson’s disease; addiction
98
Q

What is reticular formation?

A

A diffuse network of nerve pathways in the brainstem connecting the spinal cord, cerebrum, and cerebellum, and mediating the overall level of consciousness

  • Important in arousal
  • Net-like structure
99
Q

The thalamus is known as the ___

A

Sensory relay station

100
Q

The limbic system is a ___

A

Collection of structures

101
Q

The limbic system is made up of:

A
  • Hypothalamus
  • Hippocampus
  • Amygdala
  • Cingulate gyrus
  • Basal ganglia
  • Nucleus accumbens
102
Q

What does the hypothalamus control?

A

Instinct –> hunger, thirst, body temperature, fatigue, sleep

103
Q

What does the hippocampus control?

A

Short-term and long-term memory, spatial navigation

i.e. Big in taxi drivers

104
Q

What is anterograde amnesia?

A

The inability to form and retain new memories

105
Q

What does the cingulate gyrus control?

A
  • Helps regulate emotions and pain

- Involved in predicting and avoiding negative consequences

106
Q

What does the basal ganglia control?

A
  • Motor cognitive plans

- Coordination of movement

107
Q

What does the nucleus accumbens control?

A

Cognitive processing of aversion, motivation, pleasure, reward and reinforcement learning
- significant role in addiction

108
Q

What does the thalamus control?

A

Relaying of sensory and motor signals to the cerebral cortex, and the regulation of consciousness, sleep, and alertness

109
Q

Cerebral cortex means ___ in Latin

A

“Bark”

110
Q

The cerebral cortex makes up ___ of human brain

A

80%

111
Q

The cerebral cortex is made up of these complex functions:

A

Thought, planning, perception, consciousness

112
Q

What is the cerebral cortex?

A
  • Cerebrum’s outer layer of neutral tissue
  • Two hemispheres
  • Four lobes in each hemisphere
113
Q

What are the four lobes of the brain?

A

FPOT -

Frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe

114
Q

What does the primary sensory areas do?

A

Receive sensory signals via the thalamus

- Conscious perception

115
Q

What does the primary motor area do?

A

Sends signals to neurons in brainstem and spinal cord

- Voluntary movement

116
Q

What are the association areas?

A

A region of the cortex of the brain that connects sensory and motor areas, and that is thought to be concerned with higher mental activities
- “Silent” cortex

117
Q

What does output: motor cortex do?

A

Left hemisphere section controls the body’s right side

118
Q

What does input: somatosensory cortex do?

A

Left hemisphere section receives input from the body’s right side

119
Q

Who is Phineas Gage?

A

A man who had extensive damage to frontal lobes, profound personality changes

120
Q

What does the frontal lobe do?

A
  • Attention, planning, impulse and motor
    control
  • Houses the primary motor area
121
Q

What does the parietal lobe do?

A
  • Sensation and perception of touch

- Houses the primary somatosensory cortex

122
Q

What does the temporal lobe do?

A
  • Strong role in hearing

- Houses the primary auditory cortex

123
Q

What does the occipital lobe do?

A
  • Strong role in vision

- Houses the primary visual cortex

124
Q

Connections between primary sensory/

motor cortex and body are:

A
  • Contralateral - Touch sensations on body’s left -> right
    parietal lobe
    Left primary motor cortex -> right side of body
  • Symmetrical
  • Equal representation for left and right
125
Q

Association cortex has large ___ between

hemispheres

A
Asymmetry 
Left hemisphere: preferentially
language
- Right hemisphere: typically spatial
- Left and right communicate via
the corpus callosum
- Large collection of axons
126
Q

What is split brain syndrome?

A
Corpus callosum is cut
- Hemispheres cannot share
information
- Sensory stimuli can be
presented to each half
separately
- Left or right
127
Q

What is aphasia?

A

Language impairment

128
Q

What is agnosia?

A

Perceptual impairment

129
Q

What is Broca’s area?

A
  • Left frontal lobe
  • Damage produces deficit in speech
    production
130
Q

What is Wernicke’s area?

A
  • Left temporal lobe
  • Damage results in speech comprehension
    problems
131
Q

What happens if the right parietal lobe is damaged?

A
  • Damage produces contralateral neglect

Left side of the world is ignored

132
Q

What happens if the right occipital/temporal lobes are damaged?

A
  • Damage produces prosopagnosia
    Inability to recognize faces
    Also known as face blindness
133
Q

What is Monogenic transmission?

A

Traits determined by a single gene

i.e. Huntington’s disease

134
Q

What is Polygenic transmission (more common)?

A

Many genes interact to create a single
characteristic
i.e. Personality, body weight

135
Q

What is Heritability?

A

Extent to which differences in a

trait are influenced by genetics

136
Q

Identifying genetic/environmental influences

requires special techniques:

A
  • Twin studies
  • Adoption studies
  • Twin-adoption studies
  • Gene-by-environment studies
  • Gene manipulation in animals
137
Q

What are the gene manipulation techniques in animals?

A
* Changes in gene
expression
- Antisense
- Viral-mediated gene
transfer
* Changes in genome
itself
- Knockouts
- Transgenics
138
Q

What are epigenetics?

A
Changes in the way genes are turned on
and off
- However, DNA sequence unchanged
examples: Parents diets -> offspring’s weight
Parental nurturing -> offspring’s stress
genes
139
Q

What is Neuroplasticity?

A

Brain’s ability to adopt new functions from new

experiences

140
Q

What is Neurogenesis?

A

Development of new neurons

141
Q

What is Aborization?

A

Growth of new dendrites

142
Q

What is Synaptogenesis?

A

Formation of new synapses

143
Q

What does Electroencephalography (EEG) do?

A
Records electrical activity
- Shows when brain activity occurs but not
exactly where
- Event-related potential (ERP)
- Helps measure cognitive processes
144
Q

What is an MRI?

A

Uses magnetic fields
- Finely detailed images of
brain structure
- Shows where but not when

145
Q

What is an fMRI?

A

Variation on MRI, tells about brain activity
- Tracks blood oxygen use in
brain tissue

146
Q

What is a PET?

A
  • Measures blood flow to active brain areas
  • Radioactive form of oxygen (glucose) is
    injected into participant and can be tracked
147
Q

What is Electrophysiology?

A

Study of electrical activity in the body

148
Q

What is Microdialysis?

A

Technique to measure released neurotransmitter in the brain

149
Q

What is Lesioning?

A

Intentionally damaging the brain in order to

determine role in behaviour

150
Q

What does Esref Armagan’s Story

Reveal About the Brain?

A

Visual images formed from his sense of touch
activate the same region active in sighted
people when seeing something - the occipital
lobe

151
Q

Emily is running an assessment of cognitive functioning on a patient recovering
from stroke. She asks the patient to draw a clock. He is confident in his drawing, but
when Emily sees the picture only the right half of the clock is present. This patient
may be suffering from _____________.

A

a. contralateral neglect
b. prosopagnosia
c. aphasia
d. damage to Broca’s area
e. damage to Wernicke’s area

152
Q

Jeff experienced damage to his ____________. Due to this injury he has difficulty
forming words and sentences, but he can easily understand other people when they
speak to him

A

a. right parietal lobe
b. right occipital lobe
c. right temporal lobe
d. Broca’s area
e. Wernicke’s area

153
Q

The ________ is/are symmetrical across brain hemispheres, but the _________ is/are not
symmetrical.

A

a. association areas; motor cortex
b. motor cortex; association areas
c. association areas; temporal lobes
d. somatosensory cortex; motor cortex
e. motor cortex; somatosensory cortex

154
Q

Visual information from the left visual field is transferred to the ___________ via the
________.

A

a. left hemisphere; corpus callosum
b. right hemisphere; thalamus
c. right hemisphere; corpus callosum
d. right hemisphere; optic chiasm
e. left hemisphere; optic chiasm

155
Q

In terms of functional divisions of the brain - the _________ areas take up the most
space in the brain.

A

a. primary motor areas
b. primary sensory areas
c. primary emotional areas
d. association areas
e. dissociation areas

156
Q

The part of the brain that is associated with consciousness and awareness is the
__________, which is a part of the ___________.

A

a. thalamus; midbrain
b. pons; forebrain
c. reticular formation; forebrain
d. reticular formation; midbrain
e. pons; midbrain

157
Q

The ________ stimulates digestion and pupillary constriction

A

a. visual cortex
b. brainstem
c. parasympathetic nervous system
d. sympathetic nervous system
e. primary motor cortex

158
Q

_____________ is the most common excitatory neurotransmitter.

A

a. GABA
b. norepinephrine
c. dopamine
d. acetylcholine
e. glutamate

159
Q

. When an action potential reaches the axon terminals, it signals voltage-gated
__________ channels to open, which causes neurotransmitter release.

A

a. potassium
b. sodium
c. protein
d. chloride
e. calcium

160
Q

Enzymatic degradation of neurotransmitters refers to:

A

a. the breakdown of neurotransmitters within the axon, preventing action
potential.
b. the breakdown of neurons in the brain, causing diseases such as Parkinson’s.
c. the breakdown of neurotransmitters in the synapses.
d. the creation of neurotransmitters inside the neuron.
e. Both A and C.

161
Q

When a neuron is at rest, the voltage within the cell is ________.

A

a. -55 mV
b. +55 mV
c. -70 mV
d. +70 mV
e. +40 mV

162
Q

During the process of an action potential in a neuronal cell, voltage gated sodium
channels open when the membrane potential reaches _____________.

A

a. -55 mV
b. +55 mV
c. -70 mV
d. +70 mV
e. +40 mV

163
Q

During the process of an action potential in a neuronal cell, voltage gated potassium
channels open when the membrane potential reaches _____________.

A

a. -55 mV
b. +55 mV
c. -70 mV
d. +70 mV
e. +40 mV

164
Q

Graded potentials are different from action potentials such that:

A

a. action potentials can vary in strength, graded potentials cannot.
b. action potentials mostly occur in the dendrites, graded potentials do not.
c. action potentials can travel in any direction, graded potentials cannot.
d. graded potentials dissipate over time and distance, action potentials do not.
e. graded potentials are all-or-none, but action potentials are not.

165
Q

When a neuron is at its resting potential:

A

a. sodium ions are only on the outside of the cell, and potassium ions are only
on the inside of the cell
b. there are more potassium ions outside of the cell, and more sodium ions
inside the cell.
c. there are more potassium ions outside of the cell, and more sodium ions and
negatively charged proteins inside the cell.
d. there are more sodium and chloride ions outside of the cell and more
potassium ions and negatively charged proteins on the inside of the cell
e. there are more sodium ions and negatively charged proteins outside of the
cell, and more potassium inside of the cell.

166
Q

Glutamate is released from a presynaptic neuron and binds to the post synaptic
neuron causing sodium channels to open in the post-synaptic cell. This action has
caused ______________.

A

a. repolarization
b. an action potential
c. an IPSP
d. an EPSP
e. a refractory period

167
Q

___________ are responsible for receiving information from other neurons.

A

a. Axons
b. Axon terminals
c. Terminal branches
d. Dendrites
e. Somas

168
Q

_________ cells myelinate neurons by wrapping their many extensions around
multiple neuronal axons in the CNS.

A

a. Schwann cells
b. Nodes of Ranvier
c. Interneurons
d. Oligodentrocyes
e. Astrocytes

169
Q

The best methods of reducing experimenter expectancy effects would be _________.

A

a. a double blind design
b. a single blind design
c. using specific questionnaires
d. using open ended interviews
e. using inferential statistics

170
Q

You run a study in which you surveyed students who also work part time jobs and
asked about their salary and their GPA. You found you have correlation coefficient
between these two variables of 0.4. This suggests that:

A

a. having to work causes students to make poorer grades.
b. having a higher GPA will make you more money.
c. making more money allows you to pay for tutors, and therefore have a higher
GPA.
d. there is a moderate positive relationship between GPA and salary.
e. this data does not suggest any of the above items.

171
Q

You design an experiment to test the effectiveness of different study methods. You assign
the first half of the participants to arrive to the experiment, to a cue-card-based study
group, and the last half to arrive to a reading-text group. After 1 week of studying the
materials, you test all the students.
This is an example of a ____________.

A

a. descriptive study
b. experimental design
c. random sample
d. ransom assignment
e. correlational study

172
Q

You design an experiment to test the effectiveness of different study methods. You assign
the first half of the participants to arrive to the experiment, to a cue-card-based study
group, and the last half to arrive to a reading-text group. After 1 week of studying the
materials, you test all the students
The independent variable in this study is:

A

a. the time that the participants arrive.
b. the type of studying the participants complete.
c. the scores on the participants’ tests.
d. the time spend studying.
e. how much better one group performs over the other.

173
Q

You design an experiment to test the effectiveness of different study methods. You assign
the first half of the participants to arrive to the experiment, to a cue-card-based study
group, and the last half to arrive to a reading-text group. After 1 week of studying the
materials, you test all the students.
The dependent variable in this study is:

A

a. the time that the participants arrive.
b. the type of studying the participants do.
c. the scores on the participants’ tests.
d. the time spend studying.
e. how much better one group performs over the other

174
Q

In which of the following approaches to psychology was introspection the primary research method used to understand thoughts and behaviour?

Empiricism 
Structuralism
Behaviourism
Psychophysics
Pseudoscience
A

Structuralism

175
Q

The four central goals of Psychology are:

cognitive, behavioural, psychodynamic, humanistic
simplify, analyze, influence, rationalize
describe, explain, predict, change
describe, explain, reduce, change
rationalize, explain, predict, punish

A

describe, explain, predict, change

176
Q
Dr. Jonas is interested in how parents interact with their children. So she goes to a local daycare centre and watches how parents greet their children when they come to pick them up at the end of the day. This study could best be described as:
a case study
a correlational study
descriptive research
an experiment
a survey
A

descriptive research

177
Q
A psychologist is interested in studying stress. Since stress can mean different things to different people, she decides that she would like to assess stress by measuring people’s blood pressure. This psychologist has just created:
a population
an operational definition
an experimental group
a control group
a case study
A

an operational definition

178
Q
Neurogenesis, the process of developing new neurons, is increased by:
BrdU
cancer
impoverished environments
prolonged stress
enriched and stimulating environments
A

enriched and stimulating environments

179
Q

As you learned in class, the spinal cord contains ascending (somatosensory) and descending (motor) tracts. What is the difference between a tract and a nerve?
A tract is a collection of neurons, while a nerve is a collection of axons.
A tract is a collection of axons in the central nervous system, while a nerve is a collection of axons in the peripheral nervous system.
Tracts are found in the brain while nerves are found in the spinal cord.
A nerve is a long axon that travels far from the soma to communicate with distant targets, whereas a tract is a short axon that communicates with neurons nearby.
A tract is myelinated while a nerve is not.

A

A tract is a collection of axons in the central nervous system, while a nerve is a collection of axons in the peripheral nervous system.