Midterm #1

Question 1

what is a specific periosteal elevator?

Answer 1

9 Molt

Question 2

what are the three instruments for removing bone?

Answer 2

• bur/handpiece (#8 round, 703)
• rongeur (blumenthal)
• bone file

Question 3

what are the two straight elevators?

Answer 3

large - 301

small - 34S

Question 4

what are two examples of pick type elevators?

Answer 4

• crane

- cogswell (heavy)

Question 5

if a root is going to fracture, which root is better to fracture?

Answer 5

buccal root for max first molars

Question 6

if bone thicker on the palate or labial side

Answer 6

palate

Question 7

what is a #17 used for

Answer 7

mandibular molars

Question 8

what are the sizes of bite blocks?

Answer 8

38-130-50 = large edentulous
38-130-52 = large adult
38-130-54 = adult
38-130-56 = child
38-130-58 = small child

Question 9

minnesota, autsin, mirror, weider “sweetheart” are all examples of what?

Answer 9

retractors

Question 10

stillies, allis, russian, cotton pliers, and adison with and with out teeth are all examples of what?

Answer 10

instruments for grasping tissues

Question 11

when standing during extractions, where should the maxillary arch be?

Answer 11

level with surgeons elbow

Question 12

you only go behind the patient for ______ molars

Answer 12

mandibular

Question 13

what are the INITIAL instruments used for extractions?

Answer 13

straight elevators

Question 14

what is the greatest magnitude of force?

Answer 14

apically

Question 15

____ is the first and last force

Answer 15

buccal

Question 16

what do you use the figure 8 approach?

Answer 16

multirooted teeth

Question 17

you should only drill ____ of the way through the crown and you should go through the ____ floor

Answer 17

• 2/3

- pulpal

Question 18

what are the qualifications for leaving root tips behind?

Answer 18

-

Question 19

failure to fully erupt within the expected developmental time period

Answer 19

impacted tooth

Question 20

not having perforated the mucosa

Answer 20

unerupted tooth

Question 21

what is the time period for 3rd molars

Answer 21

• crown formation by 14 yrs
• 50% of root formation by 16 yrs
• avg formation is 20-24 yrs
• position does not change after 25 years

Question 22

what are the different theories for impacted 3rd molars

Answer 22

• differential root growth for mesial and distal roots
• inadequate arch space
• dental development lags skeletal
• obstruction secondary to cyst, tumor, supernumerary teeth

Question 23

what is the winter’s classification for mandibular teeth

Answer 23

• 43% mesioangular (easiest)
• 38% vertically (easy)
• 6% distoangular (hardest)
• 3% horizontal (difficult)

Question 24

what is the winter’s classification for maxillary teeth?

Answer 24

-63% vertical
-25% distoangular
-12% mesioangular
-

Question 25

what is the coding classification for just in soft tissue?

Answer 25

D7220

Question 26

what is the coding classification for partially bony?

Answer 26

D7320

Question 27

what is the coding classification for fully bony?

Answer 27

D7240

Question 28

what is the coding classification for complex fully bony?

Answer 28

D7241

Question 29

what are the contraindications for extracting 3rd molars?

Answer 29

- acute pericornitis - actute infections - ANUG - herpes - sinusitis

Question 30

treat current active process or disease

Answer 30

therapeutic

Question 31

prevent future disease and other problems

Answer 31

prophylactic

Question 32

what is the "ideal" patient for 3rd molar extraction?

Answer 32

- 2/3 root formation - 18-25 years old - healthy - no physiologic contraindications - no job restrictions for a numb lip

Question 33

local anesthesia used for 3rd molars

Answer 33

- 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epi - 0.5% marcaine with 1:200,000 epi - V2 and V3 blocks - long buccal

Question 34

on a panorex, if the canine is horizontal then it is in the ____ position. if it is vertical it is in the _____ position

Answer 34

- palatal | - labial

Question 35

an apically positioned flap is best for a ______ impacted teeth

Answer 35

labially

Question 36

a full thickness flap is best for a _____ implicated teeth

Answer 36

palatally

Question 37

what is in the take home kit?

Answer 37

- ice - gauze pack - emission-basin sedation - instruction sheet - no work/exercise instructions - phone numbers

Question 38

tinnitus and vertigo are symptoms of the _____

Answer 38

ears

Question 39

epistaxis is a symptom of the _____

Answer 39

nose

Question 40

dyspnea, syncope, orthopea, and parasomal noctural dyspea are symptoms of ______

Answer 40

cardiovascular system

Question 41

hemolysis and frequent URI are symptoms of _____

Answer 41

pulmonary

Question 42

dysphagia, dyspepsia, hematochezia, stactorrhea, puritis, and montena are symptoms of ______

Answer 42

GI tract

Question 43

cushing's dieases and pheochromatoma are symptoms of _____

Answer 43

endocrine system

Question 44

bleeding should stop between _____

Answer 44

24-48 hrs

Question 45

are antibiotics warranted for healthy patients?

Answer 45

no

Question 46

what should you not do for 24 hrs ager surgery?

Answer 46

rinse and exercise *everything is good after the first day

Question 47

what is the first stage of inflammation?

Answer 47

vascular phase | vasoconstriction, vasodilation

Question 48

what is the second phase of inflammation?

Answer 48

celluar phase | tissue trauma triggers serum compliment activation (PMNs migrate through vessel wall)

Question 49

when does inflammation happen?

Answer 49

3-5 days stabilizes the clot, cleans it, prepares it for fibroplasia LAG PHASE

Question 50

what are the three phases of wound healing?

Answer 50

- inflammation - granulation tissue - matrix formation and remodling

Question 51

how long does fibroplasia occur for?

Answer 51

2-3 weeks 70-80% as strong as uninjured stiff and red in color

Question 52

extraction sockets heal by ______

Answer 52

secondary intention

Question 53

what happens in week one of extraction socket healing?

Answer 53

inflammation, WBC activity, fibroplasia, epi migration

Question 54

what happens in week two of extraction socket healing?

Answer 54

granulation tissue, osteoid deposition

Question 55

what happens in weeks 3-4 of extraction socket healing?

Answer 55

same as week 2, but epithelialization complete, lamina dura RESORBING, trabecular bone *takes 4-6 months for lamina dura to resorb radiographically

Question 56

what are the anti resorptive drugs bisphosphonates?

Answer 56

- zometa | - pamidronate

Question 57

what are the anti resorptive drugs RANKL inhibitors?

Answer 57

- prolia | - xgeva

Question 58

loss, lysis, or breakdown of the blood clot prior to its maturation into granulation tissue

Answer 58

alveolar osteitis *dry sockets

Question 59

what are the two examples of treatment for alveolar osteitis?

Answer 59

- iodoform gauze (antiseptic wound dressing) | - eugenol (IAN)

Question 60

how long does alveolar osteitis take to resolve?

Answer 60

3-5 days, up to 14 in some ppl

Question 61

what should you do about wound dehiscence?

Answer 61

DO NOT resuture *local wound care and will heal by secondary intention